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DSSSB Pharmacist (Allopathy) Mock Test 2024: Practice 100 Previous Year Questions

Prepare for the DSSSB Pharmacist Exam 2024 with our comprehensive mock test. This practice session includes 100 subject-specific questions from the pharmacy domain, designed in alignment with the previous year's exams. Boost your confidence, clear doubts, and familiarize yourself with the exam pattern before the real test. Enhance your preparation and maximize your score with this valuable DSSSB Pharmacist (Allopathy) Mock Test. 

SoloTutes
updated: 12 Feb 2024

Prepare for the DSSSB Pharmacist Exam 2024 with our comprehensive mock test. This practice session includes 100 subject-specific questions from the pharmacy domain, designed in alignment with the previous year's exams. Boost your confidence, clear doubts, and familiarize yourself with the exam pattern before the real test. Enhance your preparation and maximize your score with this valuable DSSSB Pharmacist (Allopathy) Mock Test.  

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Q.1. Which one is not an ester prodrug?
  1. Aspirin
  2. Benorylate
  3. Salsalate
  4. None of these
Q.2. Pharmacodynamics deals with the study of
  1. Machanism of action
  2. Intraction with receptor
  3. toxic effect of drug
  4. metabolism of drug
Q.3. Therepeutic index is a ratio of
  1. toxic dose and therapeutic dose
  2. therapeutic dose and % response
  3. Toxic dose and % response
  4. None of these
Q.4. The action of acetyle choline on Exocrine gland is
  1. Stimulatory
  2. Inhibitory
  3. Stimulatory or inhibitory depends on nature of exocrine glands
  4. None of these
Q.5. barbiturates causes death at toxic dose due to
  1. Cardiac arrest
  2. Liver damage
  3. Depression of respiration
  4. All of these
Q.6. Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by
  1. Intraction with fungal membran sterol
  2. Inhibiting protien synthesis
  3. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
  4. None of these
Q.7. Suganril is common brand name for :
  1. Phenylbutazone
  2. Piroxicam
  3. Benorylate
  4. Indomethacine
Q.8. Captopril lowers down the blood pressure by
  1. inhibition of calcium reflux
  2. inhibition of enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase
  3. relaxation of smooth muscles
  4. None of these
Q.9. Which one of these metallic ions essential for coagulation of blood?
  1. Calcium
  2. Manganese
  3. Sodium
  4. Potassium
Q.10. Paraldehyde is administered by
  1. Oral route
  2. Rectal route
  3. Intramuscular route
  4. All of these
Q.11. The term bio-equivalence means comparisions of various formulation of
  1. same class of drug
  2. different class of drug
  3. same or different class of drug
  4. None of these
Q.12. which one of these vitamin possess lipid lowering property?
  1. Nicotinic acid
  2. vitamin A
  3. vitamin B1
  4. vitamin K
Q.13. Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
  1. Phenelzine
  2. Trifluperazine
  3. Promethazine
  4. Hydroxyzine
Q.14. Dose and frequency of administration is determined by
  1. Dissolution rate
  2. Half-life of a drug
  3. Disintration rate
  4. All of these
Q.15. The Saheli oral contraceptive contains
  1. Estrogen
  2. Estrogen and progestin
  3. Non-steroidal compound
  4. None of these
Q.16. Drug of choice in acute attack of migraine is:
  1. Methylsergide
  2. Ergotamine
  3. Serotonin
  4. Nicotine
Q.17. Antidote for acute iron poisoning is:
  1. Desferoxamine
  2. Copper
  3. Pyridoxine
  4. Riboflavin
Q.18. Drug that cause the pupil of eye to constrict are called
  1. Mydriatics
  2. Vasoconstrictors
  3. Vasodilators
  4. Miotics
Q.19. An example of auto-immune disorder is:
  1. Myasthenia gravis
  2. Hypertension
  3. Angina
  4. DM
Q.20. Which one of these impart red colour to urine?
  1. Rifampin
  2. Isoniazid
  3. Aspirin
  4. Luminal
Q.21. Which one of these is used as antidote for heparin
  1. Protamine sulphate
  2. Warfarin
  3. BAL
  4. Glyceryl trinitrate
Q.22. Naloxene is used in the poisoning of
  1. Barbiturates
  2. Morphine
  3. Cocaine
  4. Alcohol
Q.23. Overdose of digitalis may cause
  1. Habituation
  2. Tolerance
  3. Cumulative tolerance
  4. Physical dependence
Q.24. Methyl alcohol may cause
  1. Tetany
  2. Blindness
  3. Inflammation of skin
  4. Gastric irritation
Q.25. In infants tetracyclin offen cause:
  1. Agranulocytocis
  2. Redness in eye
  3. Discolouration of teeth
  4. Fever
Q.26. Ryle's tube is used for:
  1. Feeding
  2. Removing poision from stomach
  3. Gastric lavage
  4. All of the above purpose
Q.27. Service directly related to the patient care is:
  1. Clinical service
  2. Pharmacy service
  3. Nursing service
  4. All of the above
Q.28. Aspirin is not taken in empty stomach because
  1. It causes gastric irritation
  2. It causes anaemia
  3. It is absorbed slowly
  4. It causes allergy
Q.29. The member secretary of pharmacy and therapeutic committee is
  1. Chief pharmacist
  2. Medical officer
  3. Analytical chemist
  4. Physician
Q.30. When the combined effect of two drugs is graeter than the algebric sum of their indivisiul effect, is called
  1. Antagonism
  2. Competitive antagonism
  3. Synergism
  4. non-competitive antagonism
Q.31. Drug useful in Zollinger-ellison syndrome:
  1. Famotidine
  2. Ranitidine
  3. Cimetidine
  4. Omeprazole
Q.32. Cheese is not given with MAO inhibitors because there is risk of:
  1. Allergic reactions
  2. Hypertensive crisis
  3. Decrease absorption
  4. None of the above
Q.33. The latin word 'Ad libitum' means :
  1. As much as you please
  2. To be added
  3. When required
  4. Upto
Q.34. The term ambulatory patients is refers to:
  1. Those patients who are bedridden
  2. Those who are able to walk
  3. Those who are brought to hospital in an ambulance
  4. Elderly patients
Q.35. Lipid soloble drugs are better absorbed when:
  1. Given with meal
  2. Given 3 hours after meal
  3. Given 1/2 hours before meal
  4. both (b) and (c)
Q.36. D5W refers to:
  1. 5% solution of D-glucose
  2. Distilled water which is acidified to pH 5.0
  3. 0.5% solution of sodium chloride in distilled water
  4. None of above
Q.37. Drugs contra-indicated in pregnancy
  1. Paracetamol
  2. Colchicines
  3. Indomethacin
  4. Allopurinol
Q.38. List of ailments that is not cured by drug is given in Schedule
  1. G
  2. J
  3. C
  4. H
Q.39. The drug sample taken by the drug inspector for analysis are sent to:
  1. Drug controller
  2. Chemical analyst
  3. Govt. analyst
  4. Testing laboratories
Q.40. Shedule FF is related with:
  1. Standard for opthalmic preparation
  2. Standards fro surgical dressings
  3. Standards for cometics
  4. None of these
Q.41. What is GMP means?
  1. Good man practices
  2. Good manufacturing practices
  3. good manufacturing plant
  4. Good material practices
Q.42. Which of the following colours is a natural colour?
  1. Carotene
  2. Caramel
  3. Tetrazine
  4. All of these
Q.43. Ibuprofen belongs to which schedule as per Drug and cosmetics act, 1940?
  1. B
  2. G
  3. H
  4. X
Q.44. Which form should be used for application to import drugs for personal use?
  1. Form 12 A
  2. Form 19
  3. Form 8
  4. Form 24 C
Q.45. In the prescription the medication prescribed is called as:
  1. Superscription
  2. Inscription
  3. Subscription
  4. Signature
Q.46. Aminophyllin is used in:
  1. Edema
  2. Asthma
  3. Ulcer
  4. Depression
Q.47. Naturally occuring alkaloid colchicine is used in:
  1. Inflammation
  2. Gout
  3. Pain
  4. none of these
Q.48. Parkinsonism occurs due to:
  1. Excess of dopamine
  2. Depletion of dopamine
  3. Depletion of epinephrine
  4. None of these
Q.49. Which one of these antihistaminic drugs is used as appetite stimulant?
  1. Promethazine
  2. Pheniramine maleate
  3. Cyproheptadine
  4. None of these
Q.50. Ventolin is a common brand name for:
  1. Salbutamol
  2. Terbutaline
  3. Amphetamine
  4. Orciprenaline
Q.51. Acetylcholine is not used clinically as it is:
  1. Less active
  2. More toxic
  3. Hydrolyse rapidly
  4. None of these
Q.52. Cardiac glycosides possess cardiac activity due to presence of:
  1. Glycoside linkage
  2. Steroid nucleus
  3. hydroxy group
  4. Unsaturated five membered lactone ring
Q.53. From these β-blockers, which one is used in glaucoma?
  1. Propranolol
  2. atenolol
  3. timolol
  4. metoprolol
Q.54. Insulin is composed of:
  1. Amino acid
  2. Fatty acid
  3. Sugar units
  4. None of above
Q.55. Prazosin act as antihypertensive drug by:
  1. Blocking α-receptors
  2. Blocking β-receptors
  3. Blocking ganglions
  4. Depleting catecholamine
Q.56. Mannitol acts as a diuretic by:
  1. Increasing the osmotic pressor in renal tunules
  2. Increasing the rate of glomarular filtration
  3. inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium ion
  4. None of above
Q.57. Which one of these is an anabolic steroid?
  1. Testosterone propionate
  2. Fluxymesterone
  3. Stanozolol
  4. None of these
Q.58. Which one of these is a non-steroidal drug, possessing oestrogenic properties?
  1. Stilbosterol
  2. Ethinylestrodiole
  3. Ethisterone
  4. None of these
Q.59. Which one of these antibiotics belongs to aminoglycoside category?
  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Bacitracin
  3. Streptomycin
  4. Penicillin
Q.60. Which one of these antibiotic contains napthacene ring?
  1. Tobramycin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. None of these
Q.61. Iodized oil is used for:
  1. Bronchography
  2. Urography
  3. Fallopian tube
  4. None of these
Q.62. The 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione monosodium is used as:
  1. Hypnotic
  2. Anticonvulsant
  3. Muscle relexant
  4. Muscarinic agent
Q.63. Diltiazem is a:
  1. Benzodiezipine derivative
  2. Benzothiazepine derivative
  3. Thiazolidine derivative
  4. None of these
Q.64. which one of these prolongs the repolarization of cardiac muscle to act as antiarrythmic drug?
  1. verapamil
  2. Procainamide
  3. Bretylium
  4. Maxiltene
Q.65. Which sugar is present in digitalis glycoside?
  1. Digoxose
  2. Digitoxose
  3. Fructose
  4. Doxose
Q.66. Which one of these paraffin base is used in the eye ointment?
  1. White soft paraffin
  2. Yellow soft paraffin
  3. Hard paraffin
  4. None of these
Q.67. Latin term for 'two times a day'
  1. b.i.d.
  2. q.i.d.
  3. s.o.s.
  4. t.i.d.
Q.68. One fluid ounce is equal to :
  1. 30ml
  2. 20ml
  3. 25ml
  4. 50ml
Q.69. Glycerin suppositories ( containing 92% of glycerin ) are solidified by adding:
  1. White wax
  2. Stearic acid
  3. Sodium stearate
  4. PEG 4000
Q.70. DPT vaccine contains the mixture of:
  1. killed causative microorganism suspension
  2. Diptheria toxoid, tetanous toxoid, and killed bordetella pertusis suspension
  3. living causative micro-organism suspension
  4. none of these
Q.71. The dose of BCG vaccine is:
  1. 1 ml
  2. 0.01 ml
  3. 0.1 ml
  4. 0.02 ml
Q.72. The shells of soft gellatin capsules may be made ellastic or plastic like by the addition of:
  1. Sorbitol
  2. Cmc
  3. Water
  4. Alcohol
Q.73. Aromatic waters are prepared by:
  1. Filtration
  2. Condensation
  3. Maceration
  4. Distillation
Q.74. Elisa test is used for diagnosis of:
  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Typhoid
  3. AIDS
  4. Rabbies
Q.75. Protien Energy Malnutrition causes:
  1. Marasmus
  2. Obesity
  3. Diabetes
  4. Cancer
Q.76. The injectable contraceptive is
  1. Ethesterone
  2. Progesterone
  3. Depomedroxy progesterone acetate
  4. none of these
Q.77. Hetrazan drug is used in
  1. Malaria
  2. Filariasis
  3. cholera
  4. Typhoid
Q.78. Defficiency of vitamin A causes:
  1. Conjuctival xerosis
  2. Night blindness
  3. Keratomalacia
  4. Rickets
Q.79. The most essential fatty acid is:
  1. Linoleic acid
  2. Linolenic acid
  3. Arachidonic acid
  4. Stearic acid
Q.80. In anaphylactic shock, the drug of choice is:
  1. Isoprenaline
  2. Dopamine
  3. Coramine
  4. Adrenaline
Q.81. Hydrophobia is a symptom of which disease?
  1. Rabbies
  2. AIDS
  3. Amoebiasis
  4. Tuberculosis
Q.82. The body temperature is controlled by:
  1. Hypothallamus
  2. Medulla
  3. Pitutary
  4. Thyroid
Q.83. Insulin is secreted by:
  1. Salivary glands
  2. Liver
  3. beta-cells of islets of langerhans
  4. Pancrease
Q.84. Which type of antigen is present in universal donor blood group?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. Both A nd B
  4. None of these
Q.85. The number of cervical vertibrae in humans is:
  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9
Q.86. A component of coenzyme A is :
  1. Inosine
  2. Thiamine
  3. Pentothenic acid
  4. Pyridoxine
Q.87. Increase in level of SGPT is used in diagnosis of which disease?
  1. Hepatitis
  2. Rickets
  3. Heart attack
  4. Alcoholism
Q.88. The major site of fat digestion is:
  1. Large intestine
  2. small intestine
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver
Q.89. Drug acting on HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor ?
  1. Propranolol
  2. lovastatin
  3. Captopril
  4. Allopurinol
Q.90. Calcium gluconate is used as:
  1. Antacid
  2. Electrolyte replenisher
  3. Preservative
  4. Astringent
Q.91. Silver nitrate should be stored in:
  1. Clean, dry white bottle
  2. Lead free white bottle
  3. Amber coloured white bottle
  4. Neutral glass bottle
Q.92. Barium sulphate is used to diagnose:
  1. Thyroid gland
  2. Kidney
  3. Blood vessels
  4. Gastro intestinal tract
Q.93. Which one of these oil is used as laxatives?
  1. Olive oil
  2. Castor oil
  3. Arachis oil
  4. Linseed oil
Q.94. Cod liver oil is nutritive due to the presence of which vitamin?
  1. Vtamin A
  2. vitamin A and vitamin D
  3. Vitamin A and E
  4. Vitamin E
Q.95. Which one of these drug is used in inflammation?
  1. Asafoetida
  2. Turmeric
  3. Jalap
  4. All of these
Q.96. Which one of these posssess cytotoxic action?
  1. Podophillum emodi
  2. Ipomoea hederacea
  3. Curcuma longa
  4. None of these
Q.97. Codien as an alkaloid is used for
  1. Vasodilation
  2. Analgesia
  3. Skeletal muscle contraction
  4. cough suppression
Q.98. Which one of these drug contains anthraquinone glycosides?
  1. Senna
  2. Aloe
  3. Cascara
  4. All of these
Q.99. Which of the following is used as emetic?
  1. Agar
  2. Isphagula
  3. Ipecac
  4. Ginseng
Q.100. Drug under the class of isothiocyanate glycosides:
  1. Black mustard
  2. White mustard
  3. Thevatia
  4. Black mustard and white mustard both
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