Classification of drugs is the most important part of pharmacology for every pharmacist or pharmacy graduate. This test contains MCQs from pharmacology classification.
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Q.1.
Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer:
(b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Q.2.
Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer:
(a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Q.3.
Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Q.4.
The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer:
(b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Q.5.
Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer:
(b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Q.6.
Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer:
(a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Q.7.
Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer:
(c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Q.8.
Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer:
(b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Q.9.
Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer:
(c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Q.10.
Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer:
(c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Q.11.
Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer:
(b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Q.12.
The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer:
(b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Q.13.
Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer:
(a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Q.14.
Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer:
(a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Q.15.
Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer:
(c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Q.16.
Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer:
(b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Q.17.
Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer:
(a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Q.18.
Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer:
(c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Q.19.
Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer:
(a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Q.20.
Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer:
(b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Q.21.
Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer:
(b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Q.22.
Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer:
(b) Vasoconstriction action
Q.23.
Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer:
(c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Q.24.
Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer:
(d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Q.25.
Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer:
(d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Q.26.
Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer:
(d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Q.27.
Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer:
(b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Q.28.
Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer:
(a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Q.29.
Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer:
(c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Q.30.
Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer:
(a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
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