This practice test contains 50 questions from pharmacy including asked in previous year ESIC, AIIMS, DSSSB, HSSC, UPSSC, CGHS pharmacist exams. Questions included from pharmacology, pharmacognosy, Human Anatomy and physiology, hospital pharmacy, biochemistry, pharma chemistry and pharmaceutics.
To Check your Progress and get points for your performance
Login & Start the Test
OR
Start the Test Without Login
OR
Scroll Down to See Questions
Q.1.
Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:
- Sterility test
- Active ingredient
- Clarity test
- Pyrogen test
Answer:
(d) Pyrogen test
Explanation: Ophthalmic solutions are evaluated for Sterility, Clarity and Active ingredients not for Pyrogen testing
Explanation: Ophthalmic solutions are evaluated for Sterility, Clarity and Active ingredients not for Pyrogen testing
Q.2.
Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form
- Diclofenace
- Nicotine
- Carbamazepine
- Fentanyl
Answer:
(c) Carbamazepine
Explanation: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug and not suitable for controlled release dosage form
Explanation: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug and not suitable for controlled release dosage form
Q.3.
Kries test is related to
- Skin sensitivity studies
- Identification test of resin
- Rancidity index
- Identification test of aloin
Answer:
(c) Rancidity index
Explanation: Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.
Explanation: Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.
Q.4.
Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to
- Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
- Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
- Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
- Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory
Answer:
(a) Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
Explanation: Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first line medication for treatment of tuberculosis.
Explanation: Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first line medication for treatment of tuberculosis.
Q.5.
Which one of the following drug's tablet should be stored in the closely tight container to prevent loss of potency?
- Phenytoin
- Propranolol
- Nitroglycerine
- All of these
Answer:
(c) Nitroglycerine
Explanation: nitroglycerine is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid most commonly produced by treating glycerol with white fuming nitric acid. It should be protected form light and air exposure.
Explanation: nitroglycerine is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid most commonly produced by treating glycerol with white fuming nitric acid. It should be protected form light and air exposure.
Q.6.
Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is
- Nordiazepam
- Oxazepam
- Demoxipam
- All of these
Answer:
(c) Demoxipam
Explanation: Demoxipam is a benzodiazipine derivative. it has anticonvulsant properties.
Explanation: Demoxipam is a benzodiazipine derivative. it has anticonvulsant properties.
Q.7.
Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the
- Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
- Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
- Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
- Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis
Answer:
(c) Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
Explanation: Aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus (lemon grass) are used in soaps, beauty products, insect repellents etc.
Explanation: Aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus (lemon grass) are used in soaps, beauty products, insect repellents etc.
Q.8.
Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of
- Obsessive-compulsive disorders
- Schizophrenia
- Anxiety
- Mania
Answer:
(c) Anxiety
Q.9.
Praracetamol is a derivative of:
- p-amino phenol
- Aryl acetic acid
- Aryl propionic acid
- Anthranilic acid
Answer:
(a) p-amino phenol
Q.10.
Efficiency of ball mill depends on
- Rotational speed
- Density of balls
- Volume occupied by the balls
- All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Q.11.
Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation
- Flow properties
- Chemical stability
- Therapeutic effectiveness
- All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Q.12.
The phosphate antiviral agent is
- Ribavirin
- Didanosine
- Ganciclovir
- Foscarnet
Answer:
(d) Foscarnet
Q.13.
side effect of drugs is arise due to its intraction to cellular molucules other than the target. these effect can be minimized by their:
- specificity
- Solubility
- Affinity
- Hydrophobicity
Answer:
(a) specificity
Q.14.
Which statement is not correct about levodopa?
- In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
- It is a prodrug
- Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
- Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Answer:
(d) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Q.15.
Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is
- Ethyle cellulose
- cellulose acetate
- cellulose nitrate
- cellulose acetobutyrate
Answer:
(c) cellulose nitrate
Q.16.
Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?
- Phosphoramide mustard
- Acrolein
- Aldophosphamide
- 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide
Answer:
(a) Phosphoramide mustard
Q.17.
The pH of tears is about
- 6.0
- 8.0
- 7.4
- 9.0
Answer:
(c) 7.4
Q.18.
Food poisoning is caused by :
- Clostridium tetani
- Clostridium welchi
- Clostridium botulinium
- Clostridium septicum
Answer:
(c) Clostridium botulinium
Q.19.
Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?
- Horse
- Pigeon
- Rabbit
- Chicken
Answer:
(c) Rabbit
Q.20.
Geiger muller counter is used in :
- UV specroscopy
- Ionisation methods
- IR spectroscopy
- NMR spectroscopy
Answer:
(b) Ionisation methods
Q.21.
Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by
- Trihexyphenidyl
- Levodopa
- Selegiline
- Amantadine
Answer:
(a) Trihexyphenidyl
Q.22.
As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to
- Schedule L
- Shedule X
- Shedule R
- Shedule O
Answer:
(b) Shedule X
Q.23.
Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of
- Pinus leaf
- Peppermint leaf
- Clove buds
- Rose marry
Answer:
(b) Peppermint leaf
Q.24.
The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a
- Primary amine
- Secondary amines
- Tertiary amines
- Quarternary amines
Answer:
(b) Secondary amines
Q.25.
Hardness of water is expressed in
- mL
- Dynes
- ppm
- Mhos
Answer:
(c) ppm
Q.26.
Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by
- Gas
- Moist heat
- Radiation
- Dry heat
Answer:
(c) Radiation
Q.27.
Chlorophyll test is positive in
- Male fern
- Clove
- Rhubarb
- Pale catechu
Answer:
(d) Pale catechu
Q.28.
Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may
- Increases the toxicity
- Decreases bitterness
- Decreses potency
- Increases water solubility
Answer:
(c) Decreses potency
Q.29.
A process of sepration of molecules through the use of semi-permeable membrane is known as
- Osmosis
- Dialysis
- Seiving
- Diffusion
Answer:
(b) Dialysis
Q.30.
Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet
- Deaggregation
- Diffusion
- Disintegration
- Dissolutuin
Answer:
(c) Disintegration
Q.31.
Fenbufen is used in
- TB
- Plague
- Dengu
- Inflammation
Answer:
(d) Inflammation
Q.32.
The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of
- Honey
- Canthrites
- Shellac
- Colchicine
Answer:
(b) Canthrites
Q.33.
Tragacanth in water is associated with
- Plastic flow
- Pseudoplatic flow
- Dialatant flow
- None of these
Answer:
(b) Pseudoplatic flow
Q.34.
Antioxidants are added in lipstics to
- Impart pleasant ordour
- Staining of lips
- Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
- Prevent rancidity
Answer:
(d) Prevent rancidity
Q.35.
Borntrager test is used to identification of
- Senna
- Squill
- Cinchona
- Digitalis
Answer:
(a) Senna
Q.36.
Plasma protiens act as
- Reserve protiens
- Immunoglobulins
- Buffers
- All of these
Answer:
(c) Buffers
Q.37.
Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ
- Brain
- Liver
- Skeletal muscle
- Kidney
Answer:
(b) Liver
Q.38.
An example of protien denaturation is
- Dissolving sugar in water
- Metabolism of meat
- Heating milk
- Heating egg
Answer:
(d) Heating egg
Q.39.
An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as
- Isomerases
- Transferases
- Hydrolysases
- Oxydoreductases
Answer:
(a) Isomerases
Q.40.
The constituent of essential oil is
- Polyterpenoid
- Tetraterpenoid
- mono and sesquiterpenoid
- Triterpenoid
Answer:
(c) mono and sesquiterpenoid
Q.41.
Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?
- Hydralazine and atenolol
- Metochlopramide and levodopa
- Quinidine and digoxine
- Furosemide and lithium carbonate
Answer:
(a) Hydralazine and atenolol
Explanation: hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker
Explanation: hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker
Q.42.
Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of
- Purine
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Pyrimidine
Answer:
(a) Purine
Q.43.
Active immunity is induced by
- Placental transfer of antibodies
- Infection
- Injection of gamma-globulins
- Injection of antibodies
Answer:
(b) Infection
Q.44.
HIV infection can be clinical controlled with
- Ribavirin
- Ganciclovir
- Stavudine
- Acyclovir
Answer:
(c) Stavudine
Explanation: stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor
Explanation: stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor
Q.45.
An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is
- Lidocain
- Disipyramide
- Phenytoin
- Amiodarone
Answer:
(c) Phenytoin
Q.46.
Drug of choice for thyroid storm is
- Carbimazole
- Radioactive iodine
- Propyl thiouracil
- Centimizone
Answer:
(c) Propyl thiouracil
Explanation: Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.
Explanation: Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.
Q.47.
The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are
- Lysosomes
- Nucleolus
- Ribosomes
- Golgi's bodies
Answer:
(a) Lysosomes
Q.48.
The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is
- Propranolol
- Prazocine
- Dexamphetamine
- Diazepam
Answer:
(c) Dexamphetamine
Q.49.
Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year
- 1985
- 1996
- 2007
- 2015
Answer:
(c) 2007
Q.50.
List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule
- M
- N
- A
- R
Answer:
(b) N
SIMILAR FOR YOU
Videos from Youtube 〉
Posted in sample test pharmacy hssc sample paper pharmacy practice practice test haryana pharmacist pharmacist exams government pharmacist
1 likes 67288 views 6 shares
Share