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B. Pharma

A Bachelor of Pharmacy is an undergraduate academic degree in the field of pharmacy. It is the 4 years program course required for entry in master in Pharmacy Program and applying for various govt. jobs like Pharmacist, drug inspectors, drug controllers, drug store in charge etc.

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Lessons/Tutorials All ❱

Diseases Of Bones & Joints

diksha bhatla  
21 Jun 2022   

INTRODUCTION TO HUMAN SKELETON  The human skeleton is the internal framework of the body. It is composed of 270 bones at birth. This total 206 ...

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Cardiovascular System

diksha bhatla  
20 Jun 2022   

INTRODUCTION TO CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM The heart is muscular organ about the size of a closed fist located in the chest between the lungs behind th...

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Basic Mechanism Involved In The Process Of Inflammation, Repair, And Atherosclerosis

diksha bhatla  
9 Jun 2022   

Inflammation is a critical homeostatic process that is activated by cellular injury regardless of the mechanism of that injury. ...

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Basic principles of cell injury

diksha bhatla  
3 Jun 2022   

Cell injury is the common denominator in almost all diseases. It is defined as 'an alteration in cell structure or biochemical functioning, re...

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Water and Mineral Metabolism | Biochemistry notes

solotutes  
24 May 2021   

Water and minerals are play major role in the processes of life. Minerals are divided into two types in human body 1. Principal elements (Macromineral...

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Histamine And Antihistamine Drugs

pharmacy infoline  
30 Nov -0001   

histamine and antihistamine drugs...

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Notes All ❱

Morphology Of Cell Injury- Adaptive Changes

diksha bhatla  
4 Jun 2022   

Cell adaptation within limits: Most cells have the ability to adapt to changes in their environment by altering their morphology, pattern of growth ...

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Mechanism of Cell Injury -  Reversible and Irreversible Cell Injury

diksha bhatla  
4 Jun 2022   

Cell injury is the common denominator in almost all diseases. It is defined as 'an alteration in cell structure or biochemical functioning, resulting ...

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Homeostasis : definition, and mechanism | B.pharma 2nd sem. Notes 

diksha bhatla  
2 Jun 2022   

Homeostasis may be defined as “The maintenance of the internal conditions of the body at equilibrium, despite changes in the external environment”. ...

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Teratogenecity of drugs

solotutes  
12 Jun 2020   

Some of drugs or chemicals are fatal to embryo development. Those drugs and chemical substances which produce deviations and abnormalities in the ...

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Types of Containers used for the Packaging of Pharmaceutical Products

prakash joshi  
14 May 2021   

Pharmaceutical containers are divided according to their utility i.e. well closed container for solid items for transportation, tightly closed conta...

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Types of Containers used for the Packaging of Pharmaceutical Products

prakash joshi  
14 May 2021   

Pharmaceutical containers are divided according to their utility i.e. well closed container for solid items for transportation, tightly closed conta...

Read ( 3 min )

MCQs on antihistamines | medicinal chemistry | by pharmacy infoline

pharmacy infoline  
12 Jul 2021   

Antihistamines are drugs which treat rhinitis and other allergies. Typically people take antihistamines as a cheap , generic, over-the-counter medicin...

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One Liners All ❱

Practice (MCQs) All ❱

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Q.1 Containers meant for storage of injectables are made of

  • Lime-soda glass
  • Type II glass
  • Neutral glass
  • Type I and II glass


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Q.2 Air tight sealed containers are used for

  • Tablets
  • Injectables
  • Capsules
  • Liquid preparations


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Q.3 Hydraulic resistance test is performed on glass in order to find out

  • Mechanical strength
  • Quality
  • Alkali liberated by it
  • Limit of Alkalinity liberated by it


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Q.4 Collapsible tubes made from lead is not used for pharmaceutical packaging due to

  • Inferior metal
  • Risk of lead poisoning
  • Soft in nature
  • Not good in appearance


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Q.5 Ball Mills work on the principle of 

  • Impact
  • Attrition
  • Crushing
  • Impact and attrition


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Q.6 The output of size reduction of material in a machine depends on 

  • Chemical nature
  • Physical character
  • Bulk density
  • Material structure


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Q.7 Roller mill works on the principle of

  • Impact
  • Attrition
  • Compression
  • Compression and attrition


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Q.8 Give the name of the mill in which no wear occurs

  • Ball mill
  • Edge runner mill
  • Fluid energy mill
  • Roller mill


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Q.9 The efficiency of a ball mill is maximum at

  • Low speed
  • 2/3rd of speed
  • High speed
  • Very high speed


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Q.10 Sulphur glass is prepared from soda glass by treating it's surface with -

  • Sulphur
  • Sulphur dioxide
  • Sodium sulphate
  • None of the above


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Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:

  • Is more painful
  • Produces faster response
  • Is unsuitable for depot preparations
  • Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction


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Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by

  • Passive diffusion
  • Facilitated diffusion
  • Active transport
  • Pinocytosis


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Directions:

Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach

  • Hyoscine hydrobromide
  • Morphine sulfate
  • Diclofenac sodium
  • Quinine dihydrochloride


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Directions:

Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is

  • Nature of the base used in the formulation
  • Lipid solubility of the drug
  • Molecular weight of the drug
  • Site of application


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Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug

  • Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
  • Is incompletely absorbed
  • Is freely water soluble
  • Is completely absorbed


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Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of

  • Highly plasma protein bound drugs
  • Depot preparations
  • Highly lipid soluble drugs
  • Poorly lipid soluble drugs


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Q.7 High plasma protein binding

  • Increases volume of distribution of the drug
  • Generally makes the drug long acting
  • Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
  • Minimises drug interactions


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Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug

  • Enalapril
  • Menapril
  • Thiazine
  • Penicillin


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Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of

  • Tolerance
  • Physical dependence
  • Psychological dependence
  • Idiosyncrasy


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Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its

  • Plasma protein binding
  • Lipid solubility
  • Degree of ionization
  • Rate of tubular secretion


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Directions:

Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves

  • Sweat glands
  • Ciliary muscle
  • Iris muscles
  • Splenic capsule


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Directions: .

Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut

  • Nitric oxide (NO)
  • Adenosine
  • Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
  • Kallidin


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Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site

  • Neuromuscular junction
  • Postganglionic parasympathetic
  • Adrenal medulla
  • Autonomic ganglia


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Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is

  • Bethanechol
  • Butyrylcholine
  • Methacholine
  • Benzoylcholine


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Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is

  • Colon
  • Gastric fundus
  • Bladder trigone
  • Major bronchi


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Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for

  • Glaucoma
  • Paralytic ileus
  • Urinary retention
  • Infection


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Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme

  • Neostigmine
  • Edrophonium
  • Physostigmine
  • Dyflos


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Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase

  • Edrophonium
  • Dyflos
  • Tacrine
  • Neostigmine


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Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that

  • It produces less muscarinic side effects
  • It is more potent orally
  • It is longer acting
  • It does not have any direct action on NM receptor


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Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is

  • Canal of Schlemm
  • Ciliary body
  • Ciliary muscle
  • Sphincter pupillae muscle


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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that

  • It has additional α1 blocking property
  • It is a selective βS1 blocker
  • It does not undergo first pass metabolism
  • All of the above


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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties

  • Celiprolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Carvedilol
  • Acebutolol


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Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion

  • Atenolol
  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Dompirol


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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker

  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Esmolol
  • Propalol


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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol

  • Raynaud’s disease
  • Infection
  • Heart attack
  • Epilepsy


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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men

  • Albendazole
  • Mebendazole
  • Cocaine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure

  • Doxazosin
  • Alprostadil
  • Tamsulosin
  • Yohimbine


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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by

  • Adrenergic α1 agonists
  • Adrenergic α1 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 agonists


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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is

  • Tolazoline
  • Desmopressin
  • Ergotamine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP

  • Noradrenaline
  • Mephentermine
  • Isoxsuprine
  • Oxymetazoline


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Q.1 Skin or bone is an example of what level of organization

  • organ
  • macromolecule
  • cell
  • tissue


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Q.2 Which one of the following traits is not a characteristic of life shared by all organisms?

  • growth
  • circulation
  • photosynthesis
  • digestion


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Q.3 Which of the following is the most complex level of organization?

  • macromolecule
  • organ
  • organ system
  • organelle


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Q.4 The ______________ of the body includes the head, neck, and trunk

  • dorsal cavity
  • axial portion
  • appendicular portion
  • ventral cavity


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Q.5 The _____________ cavity is the portion enclosed by the pelvic bones

  • abdominopelvic
  • abdominal
  • thoracic
  • pelvic


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Q.6 The lungs are covered by a membrane called the _____

  • parietal pleura
  • visceral pleura
  • parietal pericardium
  • peritoneum


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Q.7 The ______________ system includes all the glands that secrete hormones.

  • muscular
  • endocrine
  • nervous
  • lymphatic


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Q.8 A ______________ section divides the body into right and left portions.

  • sagittal
  • coronal
  • transverse
  • oblique


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Q.9 Anatomy is a term that means the study of _____.

  • physiology
  • human functions
  • morphology
  • cell functions


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Q.10 A study dealing with the explanations of how an organ works would be an example of _____

  • anatomy
  • physiology
  • cytology
  • teleology


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Q.1 To identify the emulsion type, which of the following tests are conducted?

  • Conductivity test
  • Sedimentation test
  • Tensile strength
  • Bioadhesion


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Q.2 Which of the following is not used as an emulsifying agent?

  • Finely divided solids
  • Surfactant
  • Hydrophilic colloid
  • Electrolytes


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Q.3 Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?

  • Cream
  • Solution
  • Paste
  • Gel


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Q.4 Generally pastes contain

  • Very low percentage of insoluble solids
  • Low percentage of insoluble solids
  • High percentage of insoluble solids
  • soluble solids


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Q.5 In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used generally?

  • Water removable bases
  • Absorption base
  • Hydrocarbon base
  • Oily base


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Q.6 In the preparation of cold creams, which types of bases are used generally?

  • Fatty base
  • Hydrocarbon base
  • Water removable bases
  • Absorption base


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Q.7 Water soluble bases are also known as

  • Greasy ointment bases
  • Greaseless ointment bases
  • Water removable base
  • None of them


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Q.8 A suppository is generally intended for use in

  • Rectum
  • Ear
  • Nose
  • Mouth


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Q.9 .Vaginal suppositories also called as

  • Simple suppositories
  • Bougies
  • Pessaries
  • Soft tablet


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Q.10 Which of the following method is used to manufacture suppositories

  • Compression molding
  • Dissolution
  • Sterilisation
  • Disinfection


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Q.1 Who is the father of medicine………

  • Luther
  • Hippocrates
  • Pastuer
  • Bohr


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Q.2 The first edition of IP was published in …

  • 1955
  • 1965
  • 1975
  • 1985


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Q.3 The seventh edition of IP was published in …

  • 2011
  • 2012
  • 2013
  • 2014


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Q.4 The “Pharmacy Act” came in force in ….

  • 1947
  • 1948
  • 1949
  • 1950


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Q.5 Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was established in …..

  • 1947
  • 1948
  • 1949
  • 1950


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Q.6 What is USP?

  • The United States Pharmacology
  • The United States Pharmacopoeia
  • The United States Pharmcy
  • The United States Pharmacy Department


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Q.7 Drugs converted to suitable form are known as

  • Dosage form
  • Excipients
  • API
  • Diluents


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Q.8 Simple syrup is a saturated solution of…

  • Fructose
  • Mannose
  • Glucose
  • Sucrose


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Q.9 When two or more drugs are used in combination to increase the pharmacological action, the phenomenon is known as ………

  • Potentisation
  • Combination
  • Synergism
  • Antagonism


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Q.10 When the action of the drug is opposed by the other drug, the the phenomenon is known as

  • Antagonism
  • Synergism
  • Opposition
  • Potentisation


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Q.1 Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

  • haemopoiesis
  • haemostasis
  • peristalsis
  • glycogenolysis


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Q.2 In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?

  • canaliculi
  • osteons
  • lacunae
  • lamellae


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Q.3 Which bone is most superior?

  • cervical vertebra
  • patella
  • manubrium
  • occipital bone


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Q.4 What is a “trochanter”?

  • projection that forms part of an articulation
  • part of a femur
  • groove in which lies a tendon
  • a feature of the pelvis


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Q.5 One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?

  • Haemopoiesis
  • Haematuria
  • Haemostasis
  • Haemolysis


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Q.6 Where do osteocytes reside?

  • In lamellae
  • In lacunae
  • In trabeculae
  • In endosteum


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Q.7 Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?

  • hyoid
  • sesamoid
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid


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Q.8 Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?

  • The mandible
  • The sphenoid
  • The maxilla
  • The hyoid


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Q.9 What are the bones of the fingers known as?

  • carpals
  • phalanges
  • short bones
  • metacarpals


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Q.10 Which of the following comprise seven bones?

  • Cranial bones
  • Carpals
  • Lumbar vertebrae
  • Cervical vertebrae


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Q.1 The process occurring in the presence of oxygen is called… ..

  • Anaerobic
  • Aerobic
  • Glycogenic
  • Microaerophilic


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Q.2 The process occuring in the absence of oxygen is called… .

  • Anaerobic
  • Aerobic
  • Glycogenic
  • Microaerophilic


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Q.3 Enzymatic hydrolysis of major nutrients in GIT to yield their simpler components is .....

  • Fermentation
  • Deglutition
  • Glycolysis
  • Digestion


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12thBachelor of Pharmacy

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Q.4 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .

  • Metagenic amino acids
  • Glucogenic amino acids
  • Ketogenic amino acids
  • Glutamic amino acids


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Directions:

Q.5 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into ketone bodies are called… .

  • Metagenic amino acids
  • Glucogenic amino acids
  • Ketogenic amino acids
  • Glutamic amino acids


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12thBachelor of Pharmacy

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Q.6 The water soluble fuels which are overproduced during fasting or in untreated diabetes mellitus are called… . .

  • Melanin bodies
  • Ketone bodies
  • Glucose bodies
  • Citrate bodies


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Q.7 Energy yielding anaerobic breakdown of glucose yielding lactate, ethanol with some other products is… . ..

  • Protein fermentation
  • Fat metabolism
  • Glucose fermentation
  • Nucleic acid fermentation


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Q.8 The biosynthesis of carbohydrates from simpler, non carbohydrate precursors is… . .

  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenolysis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycogenesis


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12thBachelor of Pharmacy

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Q.9 An oxidative pathway of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as…

  • Phosphogluconate pathway
  • Pentose phosphate pathway
  • Hexose monophosphate pathway
  • All of them


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12thBachelor of Pharmacy

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Q.10 The process of breakdown of glycogen to blood glucose is … . .

  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenesis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycogenolysis


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12thBachelor of Pharmacy

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Q.1 The process of converting glucose to glycogen for storage is…

  • Glycogenolysis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycogenesis
  • Gluconeogenesis


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Q.2 The catabolic pathway by which a molecule of glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate is ..

  • Glycogenolysis
  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycolysis
  • Thermogenesis


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Q.3 What is glycolysis?

  • synthesis of glycogen
  • breakdown of glycogen
  • synthesis of glucose
  • Utilization of glucose


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Q.4 Where does glycolysis occur?

  • Cytosol
  • Mitochondria
  • Nucleus
  • Ribosomes


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Q.5 Glycolysis occurs in …. cells

  • Plant
  • Animals
  • Eukaryotic
  • All of them


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Q.6 Oxidation of glucose for energy production is… ..

  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenolysis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycolysis


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Q.7 Glycolysis is the conversion of

  • Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate
  • Fructose into pyruvate
  • Glucose into phosphoenolpyruvate
  • Glucose into pyruvate


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Q.8 Glycolysis is also known as?

  • Embden Meyerhof pathway
  • HMP-shun
  • Respiratory cycle
  • Kreb’s cycle


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Q.9 EMP stands for …

  • Embden Meyerhof & parulekar
  • Emmoline Meyerhof & parnas
  • Embden Meyerhof & parnas
  • Embden Meyerhof & parnar


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Q.10 In the EMP pathway, the steps involved are ……

  • Energy generation phase
  • Energy investment phase
  • Splitting phase
  • All of them


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Q.1

The following are excreted faster in basic
urine

  • Weak acids
  • Strong acids
  • Weak Bases
  • None of the above


B. PharmaPharmacologyBachelor of Pharmacy

102 of 106

Q.2 A good example of chemical antagonism

  • Heparin & Protamine
  • Protamine & Zinc
  • Heparin & Prothrombin
  • All the above


B. PharmaPharmacologyBachelor of Pharmacy

103 of 106

Q.3 Active transport differs from facilitated transport in following ways, except

  • Carrier is involved
  • It is against concentration gradient
  • Energy is required
  • All of the above


B. PharmaPharmacologyBachelor of Pharmacy

104 of 106

Q.4 Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma

  • Albumin
  • acid glycoprotein
  • Weak acids
  • Heparin & Protamine


B. PharmaPharmacologyBachelor of Pharmacy

105 of 106

Q.5 _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.

  • CYP378A
  • CYP4B2
  • CYP3A4
  • CYP256


B. PharmaPharmacologyBachelor of Pharmacy

106 of 106

Q.6 N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except

  • Dapsone
  • Meperidine
  • Phenytoin
  • Chlorpheniramine


B. PharmaPharmacologyBachelor of Pharmacy

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