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Limnology
2 of 11 〉 India's Coastline is7516.6 km
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Practice (MCQs) All ❱
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Q.1 In which of the following year was the budget system introduced for the first time in India?
- 1867
- 1860
- 1897
- 1890
Answer ✔ (b) 1860
Explanation: James Wilson, the British economist, presented the first-ever budget in India in 1860. He is credited with introducing a financial budget in India framed by the English model.
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Q.2 Which of the Viceroys started the budget system in India?
- Lord Minto
- Lord Macualey
- Lord Canning
- Lord Dalhousie
Answer ✔ (c) Lord Canning
Explanation: The introduction of the budget system in India started in the era of Lord Canning, the first Viceroy of India.
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Q.3 In case a State emergency is declared, it needs Parliamentary approval after every _____.
- 6 months
- 1 year
- 2 years
- 3 years
Answer ✔ (a) 6 months
Explanation: State emergency is imposed for an initial period of six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months.
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Q.4 How many times a person can be elected as the President of India?
- One time
- Two times
- Three times
- Indefinite
Answer ✔ (d) Indefinite
Explanation: A person can be elected any number of times until he satisfies all the conditions under the provisions of the constitution.
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Q.5 If there is a deadlock between Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha over an ordinary bill, it will be resolved by
- The President
- The Council of Ministers
- The Joint Session of Parliment
- The Supreme Court
Answer ✔ (c) The Joint Session of Parliment
Explanation: The Joint Session of Parliament resolves the deadlock between Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha over an ordinary bill.
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Q.6 Which act completely ended the commercial trade monopoly of the East India Company?
- Charter Act of 1853
- Charter Act of 1833
- Charter Act of 1813
- Government of India Act, 1858
Answer ✔ (a) Charter Act of 1853
Explanation: The charter Act of 1853 abolished East India Company's Monopoly of Indian trade. Under the government of India Act 1858, the British parliament took the responsibility for ruling India directly.
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Q.7 Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the World Parliamentary systems?
- Question hour
- Zero hour
- Resolutions
- Presidential Speech
Answer ✔ (b) Zero hour
Explanation: Zero hour refers to the leftover time after question hour in Indian Parliament. During this time members are allowed to raise matters of importance without giving any prior notice. Zero hour is entirely at the discretion of the Speaker as there is no constitutional provision with regard to this.
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Q.8 The phrase 'bicameral legislature' means
- a single assembly
- an elected legislature
- a legislature consisting of a lower and an upper chamber
- parliamentary system of government
Answer ✔ (c) a legislature consisting of a lower and an upper chamber
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Q.9 Raja Rammohan Roy was the founder of
- Arya Samaj
- Brahmo Samaj
- Ram Krishan Mission
- Prarthna Samaj
Answer ✔ (b) Brahmo Samaj
Explanation: On August 20, 1828, the first assembly of the Brahmo Sabha was held at Kolkata (Calcutta). This Sabha was convened by religious reformer Raja Ram Mohan Roy for his family and friends settled there. Brahmo Samaj is the monotheistic reformist movement of the Hindu religion that appeared during the Bengal Renaissance.
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Q.10 Who was the Prime Minister of the British Empire during the 1857 revolt?
- William Pitt
- Charles Grey
- William Lamb
- Lord Palmerston
Answer ✔ (d) Lord Palmerston
Explanation: Henry John Temple, 3rd Viscount Palmerston was a British statesman who served twice as a Prime Minister in the mid-19th century. Palmerston dominated British foreign policy during the period 1830 to 1865 when Britain was at the height of its imperial power. He held office almost continuously from 1807 until his death in 1865.
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Q.1 Who introduced the term state for the first time?
- Karl Marx
- Machiavelli
- Rousseau
- Jean Bodin
Answer ✔ (b) Machiavelli
Explanation:
The term ‘State’ in its modern sense was first used by Machiavelli. The State consists of four elements. These are (a) the people; (b) the territory; (c) the government and (d) sovereignty.
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Q.2 How do we consider a Constitution rigid or flexible?
- Based upon the provisions made for its amendment
- Based upon Constitutional Supremacy
- Based upon Parliamentary Supremacy
- Based upon Judicial Review
Answer ✔ (a) Based upon the provisions made for its amendment
Explanation: On the basis of amendments, a constitution can be classified into the categories of rigid and flexible. A rigid constitution is one that can't be amended easily, i.e., the US Constitution. A flexible constitution is one that can be amended easily, i.e., Britain.
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Q.3 Indian constitutional amendment procedure is:
- Rigid
- Flexible
- Rigid as well as Flexible
- None
Answer ✔ (c) Rigid as well as Flexible
Explanation: Indian constitution is more flexible than rigid. For example, most of its provisions can be amended by a two-thirds majority in the parliament. However, in order to amend some of the provisions like the election of the president, powers and functions, the extent of Centre-State relations, etc. apart from two-thirds majority in both houses of the parliament, the bill must be passed by at least half of the total state legislatures.
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Q.4 The nature of the Indian Constitution-
- Unitary
- Federal
- Quasi Federal System
- Parliamentary
Answer ✔ (c) Quasi Federal System
Explanation: Indian constitution is federal in form and unitary in spirit. The meaning of the quasi-federal system is both federal and unitary. In Unitary Constitution the supreme governing authority of a state is concentrated in a single place(Central Government). In this constitution, the supreme power is divided between the central and state government, and both governments are independent in their domain.
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Q.5 When did the East India Company?
- 31st December, 1600
- 13th December, 1598
- 31th December, 1609
- 11th December, 1603
Answer ✔ (a) 31st December, 1600
Explanation: On 31 December 1600, the British East India Company received a Royal Charter from the British monarch Elizabeth I to trade with the East Indies. Later, the company colonized the Indian subcontinent.
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Q.6 The Charter was issued to the East Indian Company in 1600 by whom?
- King Charles II
- Queen Elizabeth I
- Queen Victoria
- Queen Mary
Answer ✔ (b) Queen Elizabeth I
Explanation: On December 31, 1600, Queen Elizabeth I issued the Royal Charter to the East India Company. The British East India Company established trading facilities on the east and west coasts of India as well as in Bengal as a result of this Charter.
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Q.7 For how many years the charter gave the company a monopoly to trade with the east and west coasts of India?
- 10 Years
- 20 Years
- 15 Years
- Indefinite Years
Answer ✔ (c) 15 Years
Explanation: For an initial 15 years, the charter granted the company a monopoly on trade with India's east and west coasts.
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Q.8 Which Act abolished the administration system in India?
- Pitt’s India Act of 1784
- Government of India Act of 1858
- Charter Act of 1913
- Regulating Act of 1773
Answer ✔ (d) Regulating Act of 1773
Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 abolished the administration system in India. This was the first step taken by the British government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India, as well as the first time the Company's political and administrative functions were recognized.
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Q.9 Name of the first Governor-General of Bengal.
- Warren Hastings
- Lord Dalhousie
- WIlliam Bentick
- Lord Cornwallis
Answer ✔ (a) Warren Hastings
Explanation: The first Governor-General of Bengal was Warren Hastings, the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal.
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Q.10 Who was the first Governor-General of British India?
- Lord Dalhousie
- Warren Hastings
- WIlliam Bentick
- Lord Cornwallis
Answer ✔ (c) WIlliam Bentick
Explanation: William Bentick became the first Governor-General of India after the Charter Act of 1833. He was the Governor-General of Bengal from 1828 to 1833 and the Governor-General of India from 1833 to 1835.
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Q.1 Name the branch of astronomy that involves the origin and evolution of the universe.
- Cosmology
- Meteorology
- Petrology
- Orology
Answer ✔ (a) Cosmology
Explanation: Cosmology is "the scientific study of the large-scale properties of the universe as a whole."
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Q.2 Why does a star produce its own light and heat?
- Nuclear fission
- Nuclear fusion
- Chemical reaction
- None
Answer ✔ (b) Nuclear fusion
Explanation: Stars are huge celestial bodies made mostly of hydrogen and helium. Heat and light energy produced by the stars are due to the fusion reaction of hydrogen atoms.
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Q.3 Which theory explains the origin of the universe?
- Geocentric Model
- Heliocentricity
- Big Bang Theory
- Pulsating Theory
Answer ✔ (c) Big Bang Theory
Explanation: The Big Bang was 13.8 billion years ago when the universe began as a tiny, dense, fireball that exploded.
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Q.4 Big bang theory was proposed by
- Georges Lemaitre
- Hermann Bondi
- Thomas Gold
- Hoyle
Answer ✔ (a) Georges Lemaitre
Explanation: Georges Lemaitre was a Belgian cosmologist, Catholic priest, and father of the Big Bang theory.
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Q.5 Who proposed the theory of the expanding universe?
- Georges Lemaitre
- Galileo Galilei
- Edwin Hubble
- Claudius Ptolemy
Answer ✔ (c) Edwin Hubble
Explanation: American astronomer Edwin Hubble discovered in the 1920s that the Universe is expanding by showing that most galaxies are receding from the Milky Way and the farther away they are, the faster they are receding.
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Q.6 Who proposed the steady-state theory?
- Hermann Bondi
- Thomas Gold
- Sir James Jeans
- Fred Hoyle
Answer ✔ (c) Sir James Jeans
Explanation: The steady-state theory was first proposed by Sir James Jeans in the 1920s, but it was reformulated by Fred Hoyle, Thomas Gold, and Hermann Bondi in 1948.
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Q.7 What is the pulsating theory of the universe?
- A cosmological model that combines both the Big Bang and the Big Crunch as part of a cyclical event
- An expansion and contraction of the star as a whole in a regular periodic pulsation
- All the matter of the universe was present in a single place in the form of hot and dense fireball
- Counting of the galaxies is constant and new galaxies which are forming continuously are filling the empty spaces
Answer ✔ (b) An expansion and contraction of the star as a whole in a regular periodic pulsation
Explanation: Sir J.C. Bose proposed a theory of the ascent of sap known as the pulsation theory. The Pulsating Universe Theory says that the universe follows self-sustaining cycles such as expanding and contrasting.
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Q.8 What Are Constellations?
- A group of stars that appears to form a pattern or picture
- Small chunks of ice and rock come from the outer edge of the solar system
- Collection of billions of stars
- Small irregularly shaped rocks made up of metal or minerals
Answer ✔ (a) A group of stars that appears to form a pattern or picture
Explanation: A constellation is an area on the celestial sphere in which a group of visible stars forms a perceived pattern or outline.
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Q.9 In which of these constellations does the current Pole Star, Polaris, lie?
- Ursa Minor
- Orion
- Ursa Major
- Corona Borealis
Answer ✔ (a) Ursa Minor
Explanation: Ursa Minor, or the 'Little Bear', is a relatively conspicuous constellation, visible from the latitudes 90 degrees North to 10 degrees South. It is 'circum-polar', i.e. always visible in the sky, above 20 degrees North latitude.
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Q.10 Where in the sky would the Pole Star appear to an observer situated on the North Pole?
- At a fixed point on the horizon
- Perpetually below the horizon and invisible
- It depends on the time of the year
- At the zenith (exactly overhead)
Answer ✔ (d) At the zenith (exactly overhead)
Explanation: The North Star or Pole Star is famous for holding nearly still in our sky while the entire northern sky moves around it. That's because it's located nearly at the north celestial pole
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Q.1 Who is considered as the father of economics?
- Alfred Marshall
- Adam Smith
- David Ricardo
- Esther Duflo
Answer ✔ (b) Adam Smith
Explanation: Adam Smith was an 18th-century Scottish philosopher. He is considered the father of modern economics. He published “The Wealth of Nations” in 1776.
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Q.2 Name the economist who gave the theory of “Comparative Advantage.”
- Adam Smith
- David Ricardo
- Thomas Robert Malthus
- Amartya Sen
Answer ✔ (b) David Ricardo
Explanation: David Ricardo was a classical economist best known for his theory on wages and profit, the labor theory of value, the theory of comparative advantage, and the theory of rents.
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Q.3 What was the comparative advantage theory of David Ricacrdo?
- When a country can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another country.
- Pursuit of self-interest, division of labor, and freedom of trade.
- A theory of free-market capitalism directly opposed to government intervention.
- A theory centers on entrepreneurship, knowledge, innovation and technological advancement.
Answer ✔ (a) When a country can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another country.
Explanation: Comparative advantage is an economy's ability to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost than its trading partners.
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Q.4 __________ is the migration of health personnel in search of a better standard of living and quality of life, higher salaries, access to advanced technology, and more stable political conditions in different places worldwide.
- Immigration
- Emigration
- Brain Drain
- Mass Exodus
Answer ✔ (c) Brain Drain
Explanation: “Brain drain” is a term used to describe the large-scale migration of skilled human capital that causes a country to lose its innovative capabilities and limits its economic growth.
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Q.5 ________ implies that sustainable development should take a holistic approach towards notions of progress and give equal importance to non-economic aspects of wellbeing.
- National Happiness Index
- Psychological Wellbeing Index
- Living Standards Index
- Community Vitality Index
Answer ✔ (a) National Happiness Index
Explanation: Gross National Happiness (GNH), sometimes called Gross Domestic Happiness (GDH), it provides a way for the country to understand and enact progress based on the society's value of happiness.
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Q.6 What type of economy is followed in India?
- Traditional Economy: Economic system based on goods, services, and work, all of which follow certain established trends.
- Command Economy: A dominant centralized authority – usually the government – that controls a significant portion of the economic structure.
- Market Economy: Economic system based on the concept of free markets.
- Mixed Economy: Economic system that combine the characteristics of the market and command economic systems.
Answer ✔ (d) Mixed Economy: Economic system that combine the characteristics of the market and command economic systems.
Explanation: A mixed economic system is a system that combines aspects of both capitalism and socialism. This means that some industries are controlled by private businesses and individuals, while other industries are controlled by the government.
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Q.7 People who regularly move in and out of poverty (for example small farmers and seasonal workers). The occasionally poor are rich most of the time but may sometimes have a patch of bad luck are called ______
- Chronic poor
- Churning poor
- Transient poor
- Non-poor
Answer ✔ (b) Churning poor
Explanation: The churning poor are the people who go in and out of poverty (for example, small farmers and seasonal workers).
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Q.8 _______ is the study of the behavior of individuals and firms in making decisions such as consumers, resource owners, and firms.
- Macroeconomics
- Neo-classical economics
- Microeconomics
- Monetarist economics
Answer ✔ (c) Microeconomics
Explanation: Microeconomics is the study of the behavior of individuals and firms in making decisions such as consumers, resource owners, and firms.
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Q.9 Who is called the father of macroeconomics?
- Alfred Marshall
- John Maynard Keynes
- Adam Smith
- Leon Walras
Answer ✔ (b) John Maynard Keynes
Explanation: Macroeconomics as a modern discipline began with the publication of John Maynard Keynes's General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money where he offered a new theory of economics that evolved into Keynesian economics.
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Q.10 Which of the following activities is also referred to as the 'Gold Collar' profession?
- Primary
- Secondary
- Quinary
- Quaternary
Answer ✔ (c) Quinary
Explanation: Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement, and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation, and the use and evaluation of new technologies. Gold Collar Worker: Refers to highly-skilled knowledgeable people such as doctors, lawyers, scientists, and also young, low-wage workers who also get parental support.
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Q.1 How much time did the framing of the Constitution take?
- 2 years 11 months
- 3 years
- 2 years 11 months 18 days
- 2 years 10 months
Answer ✔ (c) 2 years 11 months 18 days
Explanation: From 9th December 1946 to 26th November 1949, the constitution of India was framed which came into force after two months of completion, that is on 26th January 1950, celebrated as the republic day of India.
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Q.2 In which year was the constituent assembly established?
- 1949
- 1948
- 1946
- 1945
Answer ✔ (c) 1946
Explanation: The constituent assembly was formed in 1946 on the basis of the cabinet mission plan.
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Q.3 Constitution day of India is celebrated on
- 26th November 1949
- 26th November 1948
- 26th January 1950
- 26th November 1946
Answer ✔ (a) 26th November 1949
Explanation: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into force on 26th January, 1950.
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Q.4 By whom and when did the idea of a constituent assembly was first proposed
- Dr. Sachinand Sinha, 1949
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad, 1949
- Dr. B.R Ambedkar, 1946
- M.N. Roy, 1934
Answer ✔ (d) M.N. Roy, 1934
Explanation: The idea of a constituent assembly was first proposed in 1934 by M.N. Roy. However, the actual constituent assembly was formed in 1946 on the basis of the cabinet mission plan.
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Q.5 When was Jana Gana Mana adopted as our national anthem?
- 25 January 1950
- 24 January 1950
- 26 January 1950
- 26 November 1949
Answer ✔ (b) 24 January 1950
Explanation: On 24 January 1950, ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was adopted as the national anthem.
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Q.6 When was Objective Resolution moved and by who?
- 26 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru
- 13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru
- 26 November 1946, Dr. B R Ambedkar
- 9 December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer ✔ (b) 13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: On 13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the ‘Objective Resolution’. Objective Resolution enshrined the aspirations and values of the constitution-makers.
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Q.7 Who was the first temporary chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
- BN Rau
- Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
- Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer ✔ (c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was appointed as the interim(temporary) chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
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Q.8 Who is known as the ‘Architecture of Indian Constitution’?
- Dr. B R Ambedkar
- Jawaharlal Nehru
- Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer ✔ (a) Dr. B R Ambedkar
Explanation: Because of his role in drafting the Constitution of India, Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar is well known throughout India as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.
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Q.9 Is the Constitution of India flexible or rigid?
- Rigid
- Flexible
- Both (a) and (b)
- None
Answer ✔ (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Indian Constitution is both a flexible and rigid form of constitution because in some cases it requires a simple majority of people for passing an amendment and in some cases, it requires the majority of people to pass the amendment.
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Q.10 Which article of the Indian Constitution describes it as rigid and flexible?
- Article 332
- Article 368
- Article 300
- Article 312
Answer ✔ (b) Article 368
Explanation:
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides for two types of amendments.
1. By a special majority of Parliament.
2. By a special majority of the Parliament with the ratification by half of the total states.
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Q.1 What does republic mean in the Indian Constitution?
- India is a Union of States
- The head of state is elected by people
- People have final authority in all the matters
- India has parliamentary system of government
Answer ✔ (b) The head of state is elected by people
Explanation: 'Republic' is a State in which supreme power is held by the people and their elected representatives. It has an elected head of state rather than a monarch.
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Q.2 Which one is not the Component of the Preamble?
- Sovereign
- Secular
- Hostility
- Democratic Republic
Answer ✔ (c) Hostility
Explanation: The preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic. The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, and equality for all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation.
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Q.3 How many articles, parts, and schedules are in the Indian constitution?
- 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules
- 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 12 Schedules
- 385 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules
- 385 Articles, 22 Parts, and 12 Schedules
Answer ✔ (a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules
Explanation: At its enactment, it had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. At about 145,000 words, it is the second-longest active constitution—after the Constitution of Alabama—in the world.
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Q.4 Who prepared the manuscript of the Constitution of India?
- Shantiniketan
- Nandlal Bose
- Dr. B R Ambedkar
- Prem Behari Narain Raizada
Answer ✔ (d) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
Explanation: Prem Behari Narain Raizada was an Indian calligrapher. He is notable for being the calligrapher who hand-wrote the Constitution of India.
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Q.5 Procedure for Amendment in Indian Constitution is given in which article?
- Article 332
- Article 318
- Article 368
- Article 364
Answer ✔ (c) Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 in Part 20 of the Constitution deals with the power of parliament to amend the constitution and its procedures. The procedure of amending the constitution has been adopted from the constitution of South Africa.
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Q.6 Which article if the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
- Article 30
- Article 17
- Article 19
- Article 21
Answer ✔ (b) Article 17
Explanation: Abolition of Untouchability. To make an untouchability law further strong, parliament passed an Untouchability Offenses Act in 1955. However, this act was further amended and also renamed in the year of 1976 as Protection of the Civil Rights Act, 1955.
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Q.7 Who has the power to create new states?
- Parliament of India
- Chief Justice of India
- Governor
- State legislatures
Answer ✔ (a) Parliament of India
Explanation: Article 3 assigns to Parliament the power to enact legislation for the formation of new States. Parliament may create new States in a number of ways, namely by (i) separating the territory from any State, (ii) uniting two or more States, (iii) uniting parts of States, and (iv) uniting any territory to a part of any State.
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Q.8 Fundamental Rights are described in which articles of Indian Constitution?
- Article 12 to 35
- Article 14 to 32
- Article 14 to 35
- Article 12 to 32
Answer ✔ (a) Article 12 to 35
Explanation: Article 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights.
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Q.9 Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
- Right to Equality
- Right to Life
- Right to Property
- Right against Exploitation
Answer ✔ (c) Right to Property
Explanation: The Morarji Desai government eventually scrapped the fundamental right to property with the 44th Constitutional Amendment in 1978.
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Q.10 Who was the Constitutional Advisor of the Constituent Assembly?
- Dr. Sachinand Sinha
- Dr. B.N. Rau
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- H.C. Mukherjee
Answer ✔ (b) Dr. B.N. Rau
Explanation:
Sir Benegal Narsing Rau CIE was an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India. He was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly.
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Q.1 Name the only floating national park in India and in the world as well.
- Kanha National Park
- Bandipur National Park
- Keibul Lamjao National Park
- Ranthambore National Park
Answer ✔ (c) Keibul Lamjao National Park
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Q.2 Dead Sea is located between which two countries?
- Jordan and Sudan
- Jordan and Israel
- Turkey and UAE
- UAE and Egypt
Answer ✔ (b) Jordan and Israel
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Q.3 Which country is also known as the ‘Land of Rising Sun’?
- Japan
- New Zealand
- Fiji
- China
Answer ✔ (a) Japan
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Q.4 Which layer is considered ideal for flying off aircraft?
- Troposphere
- Stratosphere
- Exosphere
- Ionosphere
Answer ✔ (b) Stratosphere
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Q.5 The Mangroove forests of the Gangetic delta (West Bengal) are called
- Sholas
- Evergreen forest
- Sunderbans
- Kalibans
Answer ✔ (c) Sunderbans
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Q.6 In which unit is the thickness of the stratospheric ozone gas layer measured?
- Caverts
- Dobson unit
- Melsen Unit
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Dobson unit
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Q.7 Which of the following is known as the suicide sac of the cell?
- Lysozyme
- Golgibodies
- Ribosome
- Cytoplasm
Answer ✔ (a) Lysozyme
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Q.8 The relationship between the water fern Azola and the cyanobacterium Annabena is: -
- Symbiotic
- Mutual
- Survival
- Proto-support
Answer ✔ (a) Symbiotic
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Q.9 The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is
- Nitrogen
- Hydrogen
- Carbon dioxide
- Oxygen
Answer ✔ (a) Nitrogen
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Q.10 Bromine is a
- Black solid
- Red liquid
- Colourless gas
- Highly inflammable gas
Answer ✔ (a) Black solid
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Q.11 Which one is the World’s highest-altitude civilian airport?
- Daocheng Yading Airport, China
- Kushok Bakula Rimpochhe Airport, Leh
- Qamdo Bamda Airport, China
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Daocheng Yading Airport, China
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Q.12 Name the vitamin which is not found in any non-vegetarian food.
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin K
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin D
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Q.13 Who appoints the judges of a high court?
- Supreme Court
- Chief Justice of India
- President
- Parliament
Answer ✔ (c) President
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Q.14 Who determines the salary and other service conditions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
- President
- Parliament
- Rajya Sabha
- Council of Ministers
Answer ✔ (b) Parliament
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Q.15 The hardest substance available on earth is
- Gold
- Iron
- Diamond
- Platinum
Answer ✔ (c) Diamond
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Q.1 Which of the following are the most and the least electronegative elements in the periodic table?
- Chlorine and Fluorine
- Hydrogen and Helium
- Carbon and Oxygen
- Fluorine and Caesium
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorine and Fluorine
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Q.2 Which compound of mercury is used as antiseptic?
- Mercuric sulphide
- Mercuric oxide
- Mercuric iodide
- Mercuric chloride
Answer ✔ (d) Mercuric chloride
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Q.3 Which among the following is major component of Gobar Gas?
- Butane
- Ethane
- Propane
- Methane
Answer ✔ (d) Methane
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Q.4 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?
- Lithium
- Sodium
- Magnesuium
- Bromine
Answer ✔ (a) Lithium
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Q.5 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?
- Lithium
- Sodium
- Magnesuium
- Bromine
Answer ✔ (a) Lithium
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Q.6 Calcium Magnesium Silicate is commonly called as?
- Borax
- Washing soda
- Baking soda
- Asbestos
Answer ✔ (d) Asbestos
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Q.7 Which among the following chemicals is used in Photography?
- Pottasium chloride
- Silver bromide
- Sodium bromide
- Magnesium chloride
Answer ✔ (b) Silver bromide
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Q.8 Which of the following methods is used to purify Titanium metal?
- Mond process
- Hall-Heroult process
- Van Arkel method
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Van Arkel method
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Q.9 Which of the following Group in the modern periodic table contains Halogens?
- Group 17
- Group 18
- Group 1
- Group 2
Answer ✔ (a) Group 17
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Q.10 Which of the following quantum number is also known as orbital angular momentum?
- Magnetic quantum number
- Principal quantum number
- Azimuthal quantum number
- Electron spin quantum number
Answer ✔ (c) Azimuthal quantum number
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Q.11 Which of these principles state that in the ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies?
- Afbau principle
- Hund’s rule of multiplicity
- Pauli’s exclusion principle
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Afbau principle
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Q.12 What is the multiplication factor when the nuclear reactor is said to be critical?
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 10
Answer ✔ (b) 1
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Q.13 Which of the following types a PEM cell belongs to?
- Electrolytic cell
- Fuel cell
- Dry cell
- Galvanic cell
Answer ✔ (b) Fuel cell
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Q.14 Which of the following is not a compound of carbon?
- Cinnabar
- Acetic acid
- Chloroform
- Methane
Answer ✔ (a) Cinnabar
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Q.15 What is the octane number of iso-octane?
- 0
- 1
- 100
- 200
Answer ✔ (c) 100
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Q.16 Which of the following polymer is obtained by the condensation reaction between ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
- Terelene
- PMMC
- PVC
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Terelene
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Q.17 Which of these is not a Linear polymer?
- Starch
- Polyethelene
- Nylons
- Polysters
Answer ✔ (a) Starch
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Q.18 Which of the following metals is involved in the anodisation process?
- Aluminium
- Copper
- Calcium
- Bismuth
Answer ✔ (a) Aluminium
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Q.19 Which of these non-metals is commonly used as a general anesthetic?
- Helium
- Fluorine
- Xenon
- Tellurium
Answer ✔ (c) Xenon
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Q.20 Which of the following is produced when wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen?
- Charcoal
- Water gas
- Paraffin
- Petroleum
Answer ✔ (a) Charcoal
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Q.1 Which of the following are the most and the least electronegative elements in the periodic table?
- Chlorine and Fluorine
- Hydrogen and Helium
- Carbon and Oxygen
- Fluorine and Caesium
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorine and Fluorine
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Q.2 Which compound of mercury is used as antiseptic?
- Mercuric sulphide
- Mercuric oxide
- Mercuric iodide
- Mercuric chloride
Answer ✔ (d) Mercuric chloride
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Q.3 Which among the following is major component of Gobar Gas?
- Butane
- Ethane
- Propane
- Methane
Answer ✔ (d) Methane
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Q.4 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?
- Lithium
- Sodium
- Magnesuium
- Bromine
Answer ✔ (a) Lithium
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Q.5 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?
- Lithium
- Sodium
- Magnesuium
- Bromine
Answer ✔ (a) Lithium
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Q.6 Calcium Magnesium Silicate is commonly called as?
- Borax
- Washing soda
- Baking soda
- Asbestos
Answer ✔ (d) Asbestos
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Q.7 Which among the following chemicals is used in Photography?
- Pottasium chloride
- Silver bromide
- Sodium bromide
- Magnesium chloride
Answer ✔ (b) Silver bromide
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Q.8 Which of the following methods is used to purify Titanium metal?
- Mond process
- Hall-Heroult process
- Van Arkel method
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Van Arkel method
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Q.9 Which of the following Group in the modern periodic table contains Halogens?
- Group 17
- Group 18
- Group 1
- Group 2
Answer ✔ (a) Group 17
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Q.10 Which of the following quantum number is also known as orbital angular momentum?
- Magnetic quantum number
- Principal quantum number
- Azimuthal quantum number
- Electron spin quantum number
Answer ✔ (c) Azimuthal quantum number
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Q.11 Which of these principles state that in the ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies?
- Afbau principle
- Hund’s rule of multiplicity
- Pauli’s exclusion principle
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Afbau principle
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Q.12 What is the multiplication factor when the nuclear reactor is said to be critical?
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 10
Answer ✔ (b) 1
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Q.13 Which of the following types a PEM cell belongs to?
- Electrolytic cell
- Fuel cell
- Dry cell
- Galvanic cell
Answer ✔ (b) Fuel cell
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Q.14 Which of the following is not a compound of carbon?
- Cinnabar
- Acetic acid
- Chloroform
- Methane
Answer ✔ (a) Cinnabar
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Q.15 What is the octane number of iso-octane?
- 0
- 1
- 100
- 200
Answer ✔ (c) 100
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Q.16 Which of the following polymer is obtained by the condensation reaction between ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
- Terelene
- PMMC
- PVC
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Terelene
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Q.17 Which of these is not a Linear polymer?
- Starch
- Polyethelene
- Nylons
- Polysters
Answer ✔ (a) Starch
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Q.18 Which of the following metals is involved in the anodisation process?
- Aluminium
- Copper
- Calcium
- Bismuth
Answer ✔ (a) Aluminium
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Q.19 Which of these non-metals is commonly used as a general anesthetic?
- Helium
- Fluorine
- Xenon
- Tellurium
Answer ✔ (c) Xenon
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Q.20 Which of the following is produced when wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen?
- Charcoal
- Water gas
- Paraffin
- Petroleum
Answer ✔ (a) Charcoal
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Q.1 All India Congress Committee (AICC) meeting to ratify the Quit India resolution was held at _____ session.
- calcutta
- Bombay
- faizpuri
- tripuri
Answer ✔ (b) Bombay
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Q.2 Which Indian nationalist movement is also known as the 'August Movement'?
- Non-coperation Movement
- Swadeshi movement
- Civil Disobedience Movement
- Quit India movement
Answer ✔ (d) Quit India movement
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Q.3 With Which of the following movements is Aruna Asaf Ali associated?
- Non-coperation Movement
- Civil Disobedience movement
- Individual Satyagrah
- Quit India movement
Answer ✔ (d) Quit India movement
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Q.4 What was the another name of Quit India Movement?
- August Kranti
- Non-cooperation
- Civil Disobedience
- No option is correct
Answer ✔ (a) August Kranti
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Q.5 To launch which movement did Mahatma Gandhi give the 'Do or Die' speech?
- Non-cooperation movement
- Quit India movement
- Civil Disobedience Movement
- Khilafat movement
Answer ✔ (b) Quit India movement
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Q.6 Who coined the slogan 'Quit India'?
- Mahatma Gandhi
- Pt.Jawaharlal Nehru
- Yusuf Meher Ali
- Aruna Asaf Ali
Answer ✔ (c) Yusuf Meher Ali
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Q.7 Quit India Movement was launched in response to which of the following events?
- Simon Commission
- Cabinet Mission Plan
- Cripps Mission
- Wavell Plan
Answer ✔ (c) Cripps Mission
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Q.8 When was the 'Quit India Movement' started?
- August 1942
- April 1919
- October 1905
- February 1928
Answer ✔ (a) August 1942
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Q.9 Jayprakash Narayan was given the title of '_____'.
- Deenbandhu
- Loknayak
- Jana Nayak
- Deshbandhu
Answer ✔ (b) Loknayak
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Q.1 The governor of a state is appointed by the President on the advice of the-
- Prime Minister
- Vice-President
- Chief Minister
- Chief Justice
Answer ✔ (a) Prime Minister
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Q.2 The President gives his resignation to the-
- Chief Justice
- Vice President
- Parliament
- Prime Minister
Answer ✔ (b) Vice President
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Q.3 For what period does the Vice president of India hold office?
- 5 Years
- Till the age of 65 years
- 6 years
- 2 years
Answer ✔ (a) 5 Years
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Q.4 Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is-
- 23 years
- 21 years
- 35 years
- 30 years
Answer ✔ (c) 35 years
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Q.5 What is the Minimum age for appointment as a Governor?
- 35 years
- 40 years
- 25 years
- 30 years
Answer ✔ (a) 35 years
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Q.6 Chief Minister of a state is responsible to-
- Prime Minister
- Rajya Sabha
- Legislative Assembly
- Governor
Answer ✔ (c) Legislative Assembly
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Q.7 How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post?
- once
- 3 times
- 2 times
- Any number of times
Answer ✔ (d) Any number of times
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Q.8 Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union cabinet?
- President
- Cabinet Ministers
- Ministers of States
- Deputy Ministers
Answer ✔ (b) Cabinet Ministers
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Q.9 Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
- President
- Speaker of Lok sabha
- Chief Justice of India
- Prime Minister
Answer ✔ (a) President
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Q.1 The governor of a state is appointed by the President on the advice of the-
- Prime Minister
- Vice-President
- Chief Minister
- Chief Justice
Answer ✔ (a) Prime Minister
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Q.2 The President gives his resignation to the-
- Chief Justice
- Vice President
- Parliament
- Prime Minister
Answer ✔ (b) Vice President
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Q.3 For what period does the Vice president of India hold office?
- 5 Years
- Till the age of 65 years
- 6 years
- 2 years
Answer ✔ (a) 5 Years
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Q.4 Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is-
- 23 years
- 21 years
- 35 years
- 30 years
Answer ✔ (c) 35 years
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Q.5 What is the Minimum age for appointment as a Governor?
- 35 years
- 40 years
- 25 years
- 30 years
Answer ✔ (a) 35 years
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Q.6 Chief Minister of a state is responsible to-
- Prime Minister
- Rajya Sabha
- Legislative Assembly
- Governor
Answer ✔ (c) Legislative Assembly
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Q.7 How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post?
- once
- 3 times
- 2 times
- Any number of times
Answer ✔ (d) Any number of times
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Q.8 Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union cabinet?
- President
- Cabinet Ministers
- Ministers of States
- Deputy Ministers
Answer ✔ (b) Cabinet Ministers
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Q.9 Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
- President
- Speaker of Lok sabha
- Chief Justice of India
- Prime Minister
Answer ✔ (a) President
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Q.1 On ------------, the Nobel Prizes were awarded for the first time in Stockholm and in Christiania
- December 24, 1906
- September 10, 1901
- March 10, 1900
- December 10, 1901
Answer ✔ (d) December 10, 1901
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Q.2 The Nobel Prize award ceremony in Stockholm took place at ----------- of Music during the years 1901-1925.
- The Old Royal Academy
- University of Oslo
- The Nobel Institute building
- The Stockholm Globe Arena
Answer ✔ (a) The Old Royal Academy
Explanation: From official site of Nobel price- The Nobel Prize award ceremony in Stockholm took place at the Old Royal Academy of Music during the years 1901-1925. Since 1926, the ceremony has taken place at the Stockholm Concert Hall with few exceptions: 1971 in the Philadelphia Church; 1972 in the St. Erik International Fair (known today as Stockholm International Fairs) in Älvsjö, 1975 in the St. Erik International Fair and in 1991 at the Stockholm Globe Arena. The King of Sweden hands over the prize to the laureate/s.
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Q.3 Between 1901 to 2021, How any times Nobel awarded?
- 943
- 975
- 720
- 609
Answer ✔ (d) 609
Explanation: From official site- Between 1901 and 2021, the Nobel Prizes and the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel were awarded 609 times to 975 people and organisations. With some receiving the Nobel Prize more than once, this makes a total of 943 individuals and 25 organizations. Below, you can view the full list of Nobel Prizes and Nobel Prize laureates.
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Q.4 Who got first Nobel price in India?
- Rabindranath Tagore
- Mother Teresa
- C.V. Raman
- Mahatma Gandhi
Answer ✔ (a) Rabindranath Tagore
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Q.5 In Following, Which person rejected the Nobel Price?
- Mother Teresa
- Mahatma Gandhi
- Le Duc Tho
- Paul Krugman
Answer ✔ (c) Le Duc Tho
Explanation: Le Duc Tho rejected Nobel price for peace.
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Q.6 When Alfred Nobel born?
- 1833
- 1901
- 1896
- 1872
Answer ✔ (a) 1833
Explanation: Alfred Nobel (1833-1896) was born in Stockholm, Sweden, on 21 October 1833.
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Q.7 When Alfred Nobel signed his last will?
- 1901
- 1886
- 1872
- 1895
Answer ✔ (d) 1895
Explanation: On November 27, 1895, Alfred Nobel signed his third and last will at the Swedish-Norwegian Club in Paris.
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Q.8 Who got first Nobel price in physics?
- Swiss Jean Henri Dunant
- Thomas Alva Edison
- C V Raman
- Wilhelm Rontgen
Answer ✔ (d) Wilhelm Rontgen
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Q.9 Who got first Nobel price?
- Jean Paul Sartre
- Swiss Jean Henri Dunant
- Thomas Alva Edison
- Samual Nobel
Answer ✔ (b) Swiss Jean Henri Dunant
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Q.10 which country has most Nobel prize winners up to 2021
- Germany
- Italy
- United States
- Japan
Answer ✔ (c) United States
Explanation: United States (375)
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Q.1 On ------------, the Nobel Prizes were awarded for the first time in Stockholm and in Christiania
- December 24, 1906
- September 10, 1901
- March 10, 1900
- December 10, 1901
Answer ✔ (d) December 10, 1901
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Q.2 The Nobel Prize award ceremony in Stockholm took place at ----------- of Music during the years 1901-1925.
- The Old Royal Academy
- University of Oslo
- The Nobel Institute building
- The Stockholm Globe Arena
Answer ✔ (a) The Old Royal Academy
Explanation: From official site of Nobel price- The Nobel Prize award ceremony in Stockholm took place at the Old Royal Academy of Music during the years 1901-1925. Since 1926, the ceremony has taken place at the Stockholm Concert Hall with few exceptions: 1971 in the Philadelphia Church; 1972 in the St. Erik International Fair (known today as Stockholm International Fairs) in Älvsjö, 1975 in the St. Erik International Fair and in 1991 at the Stockholm Globe Arena. The King of Sweden hands over the prize to the laureate/s.
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Q.3 Between 1901 to 2021, How any times Nobel awarded?
- 943
- 975
- 720
- 609
Answer ✔ (d) 609
Explanation: From official site- Between 1901 and 2021, the Nobel Prizes and the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel were awarded 609 times to 975 people and organisations. With some receiving the Nobel Prize more than once, this makes a total of 943 individuals and 25 organizations. Below, you can view the full list of Nobel Prizes and Nobel Prize laureates.
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Q.4 Who got first Nobel price in India?
- Rabindranath Tagore
- Mother Teresa
- C.V. Raman
- Mahatma Gandhi
Answer ✔ (a) Rabindranath Tagore
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Q.5 In Following, Which person rejected the Nobel Price?
- Mother Teresa
- Mahatma Gandhi
- Le Duc Tho
- Paul Krugman
Answer ✔ (c) Le Duc Tho
Explanation: Le Duc Tho rejected Nobel price for peace.
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Q.6 When Alfred Nobel born?
- 1833
- 1901
- 1896
- 1872
Answer ✔ (a) 1833
Explanation: Alfred Nobel (1833-1896) was born in Stockholm, Sweden, on 21 October 1833.
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Q.7 When Alfred Nobel signed his last will?
- 1901
- 1886
- 1872
- 1895
Answer ✔ (d) 1895
Explanation: On November 27, 1895, Alfred Nobel signed his third and last will at the Swedish-Norwegian Club in Paris.
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Q.8 Who got first Nobel price in physics?
- Swiss Jean Henri Dunant
- Thomas Alva Edison
- C V Raman
- Wilhelm Rontgen
Answer ✔ (d) Wilhelm Rontgen
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Q.9 Who got first Nobel price?
- Jean Paul Sartre
- Swiss Jean Henri Dunant
- Thomas Alva Edison
- Samual Nobel
Answer ✔ (b) Swiss Jean Henri Dunant
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Q.10 which country has most Nobel prize winners up to 2021
- Germany
- Italy
- United States
- Japan
Answer ✔ (c) United States
Explanation: United States (375)
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Q.1 Which country banned the use of foreign currencies
- Azerbaijan
- Afghanistan
- Uzbekistan
- Pakistan
Answer ✔ (b) Afghanistan
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Q.2 Which social media platform has launched ‘Safe Stree’ and ‘My Kanoon’ campaigns for cyber safety
- Snapchat
Answer ✔ (d) Instagram
Explanation: Instagram launched 'safe Stree' and 'My Kanoon' campaigns to provide online safety to young users.
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Q.3 When the Kashi Utsav is being organized in Varanasi to celebrate the classic heritage & culture of Kashi.
- 10 to 15 November 2021
- 18 to 19 November 2021
- 16 to 18 November 2021
- 16 to 19 November 2021
Answer ✔ (c) 16 to 18 November 2021
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Q.4 Which bank approved a loan agreement of $61 million in order to improve liveability, new developments, and harness technology.
- Reserve bank of India [RBI]
- Asian Development Bank (ADB)
- HSBC Bank
- Citibank
Answer ✔ (b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
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Q.5 Who won the Australian Open 2021 women’s title recently?
- Naomi Osaka
- Jennifer Brady
- Novak Djokovic
- Monica Seles
Answer ✔ (a) Naomi Osaka
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Q.6 Who launched the largest 'creator education and enablement program' in India
- Hotstar
- Zee Tv
Answer ✔ (a) Facebook
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Q.7 Which cricket team won the 20-20 World cup 2021
- Afghanistan
- England
- New Zealand
- Australia
Answer ✔ (d) Australia
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Q.8 What is the rank of India in the Global Start-up ranking
- 15th
- 45th
- 60th
- 20th
Answer ✔ (d) 20th
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Q.9 In which country organized the Global Education Summit 2021
- Paris
- New Delhi
- London
- Tokyo
Answer ✔ (c) London
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Q.10 Who Won The Miss Universe Title 2021?
- Armi Kuusela
- Chandigarh's Harnaaz Sandhu
- Lara Dutta
- Miriam Stevenson
Answer ✔ (b) Chandigarh's Harnaaz Sandhu
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Q.1 'Subroto Cup' is associated with which game?
- Football
- Hockey
- Badminton
- Basketball
Answer ✔ (a) Football
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Q.2 National sports day is celebrated on-
- August 29
- August 18
- September 29
- September 18
Answer ✔ (a) August 29
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Q.3 Rovers Cup is associated with-
- Football
- Lawn tennis
- Hockey
- Basketball
Answer ✔ (a) Football
Explanation: The Rovers Cup was an annual football tournament held in India, organized by the Western India Football Association. It was the second oldest tournament in India after Durand Cup
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Q.4 Formula 1 is associated with-
- Ice hockey
- River rafting
- Motor racing
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Motor racing
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Q.5 LBW is the term associated with the game of-
- Hockey
- Cricket
- Tennis
- Football
Answer ✔ (b) Cricket
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Q.6 The game of chess was originated in-
- China
- Iran
- Indonesia
- India
Answer ✔ (d) India
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Q.7 Gambit is related to which among the following sports?
- Carrom
- Bridge
- Chess
- Billiards
Answer ✔ (c) Chess
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Q.8 In the game of volleyball the number of players on each side is-
- Eight
- Six
- Five
- Seven
Answer ✔ (b) Six
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Q.9 What is the national game of the USA?
- Cricket
- Soccer
- Baseball
- Billiards
Answer ✔ (c) Baseball
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Q.10 'Jab' and 'parry' are terms used in which sport?
- Wrestling
- Boxing
- Billiards
- Weightlifting
Answer ✔ (b) Boxing
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Q.1 Which of the following Indian State is largest producer of Rubber?
- Tamil Nadu
- Andhra Pradesh
- Karnataka
- Kerala
Answer ✔ (d) Kerala
Explanation: Kerala is the largest producer of Rubber.
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Q.2 Which of the following Plantation crop produces in India are produced in excess of its demand?
- Tea
- Foodgrains
- Petroleum
- Rubber
Answer ✔ (a) Tea
Explanation: India is the second-largest producer of tea in the world after China. India stands 4th position in terms of export of tea.
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Q.3 Which of the following state is not known for the production of cardamom?
- Kerala
- Karnataka
- Odisha
- Tamil Nadu
Answer ✔ (c) Odisha
Explanation: Cardamom cultivation is concentrated on the Western Ghats in the country; and the Western Ghats are also known as “Cardamom Hills”. In 2012-13, as per provisional trade estimates, India's production is around 12,000 MT. Following states are the major producers of cardamom in India: 1. Kerala – 70% 2. Karnataka – 20% 3. Tamil Nadu – 10%
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Q.4 Which of the following Indian state is popularly known as 'Garden of Spices'?
- Karnataka
- Kerala
- Andhra Pradesh
- Tamil Nadu
Answer ✔ (b) Kerala
Explanation: Kerala is referred to as the spice garden of India as it has a variety of spices and is popular in the entire world. Black pepper, Cinnamon, Turmeric, Cardamom, ginger, and nutmeg are the major spices grown in Kerala.
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Q.5 The Green Gold revolution is related to the ________.
- Coffee
- Gold
- Bamboo
- Tea
Answer ✔ (c) Bamboo
Explanation: The “green gold” revolution is the name given to the promotion and trade of bamboo to bring about a quantum jump in the economic growth of the Northeastern states of India.
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Q.6 The tea plantation requires rainfall of______.
- 50-150 cm
- 200-400 cm
- 250-300 cm
- 150-250 cm
Answer ✔ (d) 150-250 cm
Explanation: India is the largest producer and exporter of tea in the world. The ideal climatic conditions for the production and growing of tea are as follows: temperature- 21°C to 29°C and 150-250 cm of rainfall.
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Q.7 The Ganga delta region is suitable for Jute cultivation due to the rich fertile _______ and favorable temperature and rainfall.
- Alluvium Soil
- Black Soil
- Red Soil
- Laterite Soil
Answer ✔ (a) Alluvium Soil
Explanation: Jute is an important natural fiber. The share of the Ganga delta contributes for about 85% of the Worldwide Jute cultivation. The Ganga delta region is suitable for Jute cultivation due to the rich fertile alluvium soil and favorable temperature and rainfall.
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Q.1 Which of the following is the smallest island in the Nicobar group of Islands?
- Middle Andaman
- Ross Island
- Great Nicobar
- Pulomilo Island
Answer ✔ (d) Pulomilo Island
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Q.2 The extreme southernmost point of India, Pygmalion point is located in which of the following Islands?
- Arabian Sea Island
- Bay of Bengal Islands
- Offshore Islands
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bay of Bengal Islands
Explanation: Explanation: The extreme southernmost point of India, Pygmalion point is located in the Bay of Bengal islands.
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Q.3 Which of the following is the biggest island in the Nicobar group of Islands?
- Middle Andaman
- Ross Island
- Great Nicobar
- Pulomilo Island
Answer ✔ (c) Great Nicobar
Explanation: The Great Nicobar is the biggest island in the Nicobar group of Island.
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Q.4 Which of the following is the biggest island in the Andaman group of Islands?
- Middle Andaman
- Ross Island
- Saddle Peak
- Pulomilo Island
Answer ✔ (a) Middle Andaman
Explanation: Middle Andaman is the biggest island in the Andaman group of Island.
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Q.5 Which of the following states of India has the longest Coastline?
- Maharashtra
- Gujarat
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Kerala
Answer ✔ (b) Gujarat
Explanation: Gujarat has the longest coastline of 1600 Km.
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Q.6 How many Coastal States are there in India?
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 12
Answer ✔ (b) 9
Explanation: India's Coastline touches 09 States-Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal.
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Q.7 How many Coastal Union Territories of India?
- 2
- 4
- 3
- 5
Answer ✔ (b) 4
Explanation: There are 4 Coastal Union Territories- Daman & Diu, Puducherry, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and Lakshadweep Islands.
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Q.8 What is the Length of Coastline of mainland in India?
- 1000 Km
- 6000 Km
- 6100 Km
- 4200 Km
Answer ✔ (c) 6100 Km
Explanation: The length of coastline of mainland India is 6100 Km.
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Q.9 Which of the following coastal plain is formed by the alluvial deposits of the Sabarmati, Mahi and numerous tiny streams?
- Gujarat Coastal Plain
- West Coastal Plain
- Karnataka Coastal Plain
- East Coastal Plain
Answer ✔ (a) Gujarat Coastal Plain
Explanation: Gujarat Coastal Plain is formed by the alluvial deposits of the Sabarmati, Mahi and numerous tiny parallel consequent streams whose process of formation is still continuing.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.1 Which of the following is the smallest island in the Nicobar group of Islands?
- Middle Andaman
- Ross Island
- Great Nicobar
- Pulomilo Island
Answer ✔ (d) Pulomilo Island
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Q.2 The extreme southernmost point of India, Pygmalion point is located in which of the following Islands?
- Arabian Sea Island
- Bay of Bengal Islands
- Offshore Islands
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bay of Bengal Islands
Explanation: Explanation: The extreme southernmost point of India, Pygmalion point is located in the Bay of Bengal islands.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.3 Which of the following is the biggest island in the Nicobar group of Islands?
- Middle Andaman
- Ross Island
- Great Nicobar
- Pulomilo Island
Answer ✔ (c) Great Nicobar
Explanation: The Great Nicobar is the biggest island in the Nicobar group of Island.
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Q.4 Which of the following is the biggest island in the Andaman group of Islands?
- Middle Andaman
- Ross Island
- Saddle Peak
- Pulomilo Island
Answer ✔ (a) Middle Andaman
Explanation: Middle Andaman is the biggest island in the Andaman group of Island.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.5 Which of the following states of India has the longest Coastline?
- Maharashtra
- Gujarat
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Kerala
Answer ✔ (b) Gujarat
Explanation: Gujarat has the longest coastline of 1600 Km.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.6 How many Coastal States are there in India?
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 12
Answer ✔ (b) 9
Explanation: India's Coastline touches 09 States-Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.7 How many Coastal Union Territories of India?
- 2
- 4
- 3
- 5
Answer ✔ (b) 4
Explanation: There are 4 Coastal Union Territories- Daman & Diu, Puducherry, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and Lakshadweep Islands.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.8 What is the Length of Coastline of mainland in India?
- 1000 Km
- 6000 Km
- 6100 Km
- 4200 Km
Answer ✔ (c) 6100 Km
Explanation: The length of coastline of mainland India is 6100 Km.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.9 Which of the following coastal plain is formed by the alluvial deposits of the Sabarmati, Mahi and numerous tiny streams?
- Gujarat Coastal Plain
- West Coastal Plain
- Karnataka Coastal Plain
- East Coastal Plain
Answer ✔ (a) Gujarat Coastal Plain
Explanation: Gujarat Coastal Plain is formed by the alluvial deposits of the Sabarmati, Mahi and numerous tiny parallel consequent streams whose process of formation is still continuing.
General Awareness (GA) • SSC CHSL • Geography of India • Competitive Exams (SSC, DSSSB, UPSC, RRB, CET, and State Boards) • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.1 Which company won the Indian GREEN ENERGY AWARD 2021?
- Sterling & Wilson Pvt Ltd
- TVS Motor company
- Cleanmax Energy India Pvt Ltd
- BHEL
Answer ✔ (b) TVS Motor company
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.2 Which country tested new ballistic missile in 2021?
- North Korea
- South America
- Chaina
- Brazil
Answer ✔ (a) North Korea
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.3 Which country started the first maritime dialogue with India?
- Japan
- Taiwan
- Britain
- South Korea
Answer ✔ (c) Britain
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.4 Where will the 52nd International Film Festival of India be held?
- Uttar Pradesh
- Maharashtra
- Goa
- Tamil Nadu
Answer ✔ (c) Goa
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.5 What is the rank of India in the Global Food Security Index 2021?
- 17
- 72
- 71
- 27
Answer ✔ (c) 71
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.6 Who is winner of The Purple Cap Award in IPL 2021?
- Harshad mahal
- Virat Kohli
- Pacer Kagiso Rabada
- Harshal Patel
Answer ✔ (d) Harshal Patel
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.7 Which is the first state in the India to approve the wildlife action plan?
- Maharastra
- Karnataka
- Chhattisgarh
- Punjab
Answer ✔ (a) Maharastra
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.8 In which country the first case of covid-19 delta variant AY 4.2 was found?
- China
- Italy
- Israel
- England
Answer ✔ (c) Israel
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.9 Which become the world's first film to be shot in space
- Star Wars
- The Challenge
- Finch
- Moonfall
Answer ✔ (b) The Challenge
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.10 Which state started CM Ration Aapke Dwar Yojana?
- Delhi
- Madhya Pradesh
- Assam
- Arunachal Pradesh
Answer ✔ (b) Madhya Pradesh
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.11 With which country India signed agreement for cooperation in mining and steel sector?
- Israel
- Kazakhstan
- Armenia
- Russia
Answer ✔ (d) Russia
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.12 Who won the Earthshot Award 2021 [ Echo Oscar Award] ?
- Vidyut Mohan
- Neeraj Chopra
- Vinisha Umashankar
- Jhon Khahekwa
Answer ✔ (a) Vidyut Mohan
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.13 World Statistics Day date?
- 12 March
- 6 December
- 20 October
- 17 September
Answer ✔ (c) 20 October
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.14 Who topped the list of most influential actors released by Forbes?
- Priyanka Chopra
- Deepika Padukone
- Rashmika Mandana
- Anushka Shetty
Answer ✔ (c) Rashmika Mandana
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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Q.15 How many crore rupees fined by RBI on standard chartered Bank?
- 9.5 crore
- 75 crore
- 1.95 crore
- 22.5 crore
Answer ✔ (c) 1.95 crore
Current Affairs • SSC Combined Graduate Level (SSC CGL)
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