Q.1. Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:

1. Sterility test
2. Active ingredient
3. Clarity test
4. Pyrogen test

Answer: (d) Pyrogen test
Explanation: Ophthalmic solutions are evaluated for Sterility, Clarity and Active ingredients not for Pyrogen testing

Q.2. Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form

1. Diclofenace
2. Nicotine
3. Carbamazepine
4. Fentanyl

Answer: (c) Carbamazepine
Explanation: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug and not suitable for controlled release dosage form

Q.3. Kries test is related to

1. Skin sensitivity studies
2. Identification test of resin
3. Rancidity index
4. Identification test of aloin

Answer: (c) Rancidity index
Explanation: Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.

Q.4. Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to

1. Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
2. Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
3. Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
4. Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory

Answer: (a) Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
Explanation: Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first line medication for treatment of tuberculosis.

Q.5. Which one of the following drug's tablet should be stored in the closely tight container to prevent loss of potency?

1. Phenytoin
2. Propranolol
3. Nitroglycerine
4. All of these

Answer: (c) Nitroglycerine
Explanation: nitroglycerine is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid most commonly produced by treating glycerol with white fuming nitric acid. It should be protected form light and air exposure.

Q.6. Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is

1. Nordiazepam
2. Oxazepam
3. Demoxipam
4. All of these

Answer: (c) Demoxipam
Explanation: Demoxipam is a benzodiazipine derivative. it has anticonvulsant properties.

Q.7. Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the

1. Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
2. Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
3. Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
4. Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis

Answer: (c) Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
Explanation: Aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus (lemon grass) are used in soaps, beauty products, insect repellents etc.

Q.8. Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of

1. Obsessive-compulsive disorders
2. Schizophrenia
3. Anxiety
4. Mania

Answer: (c) Anxiety

Q.9. Praracetamol is a derivative of:

1. p-amino phenol
2. Aryl acetic acid
3. Aryl propionic acid
4. Anthranilic acid

Answer: (a) p-amino phenol

Q.10. Efficiency of ball mill depends on

1. Rotational speed
2. Density of balls
3. Volume occupied by the balls
4. All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

Q.11. Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation

1. Flow properties
2. Chemical stability
3. Therapeutic effectiveness
4. All of these

Answer: (d) All of these

Q.12. The phosphate antiviral agent is

1. Ribavirin
2. Didanosine
3. Ganciclovir
4. Foscarnet

Answer: (d) Foscarnet

Q.13. side effect of drugs is arise due to its intraction to cellular molucules other than the target. these effect can be minimized by their:

1. specificity
2. Solubility
3. Affinity
4. Hydrophobicity

Answer: (a) specificity

Q.14. Which statement is not correct about levodopa?

1. In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
2. It is a prodrug
3. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
4. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential

Answer: (d) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential

Q.15. Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is

1. Ethyle cellulose
2. cellulose acetate
3. cellulose nitrate
4. cellulose acetobutyrate

Answer: (c) cellulose nitrate

Q.16. Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?

1. Phosphoramide mustard
2. Acrolein
3. Aldophosphamide
4. 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide

Answer: (a) Phosphoramide mustard

Q.17. The pH of tears is about

1. 6.0
2. 8.0
3. 7.4
4. 9.0

Answer: (c) 7.4

Q.18. Food poisoning is caused by :

1. Clostridium tetani
2. Clostridium welchi
3. Clostridium botulinium
4. Clostridium septicum

Answer: (c) Clostridium botulinium

Q.19. Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?

1. Horse
2. Pigeon
3. Rabbit
4. Chicken

Answer: (c) Rabbit

Q.20. Geiger muller counter is used in :

1. UV specroscopy
2. Ionisation methods
3. IR spectroscopy
4. NMR spectroscopy

Answer: (b) Ionisation methods

Q.21. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by

1. Trihexyphenidyl
2. Levodopa
3. Selegiline
4. Amantadine

Answer: (a) Trihexyphenidyl

Q.22. As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to

1. Schedule L
2. Shedule X
3. Shedule R
4. Shedule O

Answer: (b) Shedule X

Q.23. Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of

1. Pinus leaf
2. Peppermint leaf
3. Clove buds
4. Rose marry

Answer: (b) Peppermint leaf

Q.24. The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a

1. Primary amine
2. Secondary amines
3. Tertiary amines
4. Quarternary amines

Answer: (b) Secondary amines

Q.25. Hardness of water is expressed in

1. mL
2. Dynes
3. ppm
4. Mhos

Answer: (c) ppm

Q.26. Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by

1. Gas
2. Moist heat
3. Radiation
4. Dry heat

Answer: (c) Radiation

Q.27. Chlorophyll test is positive in

1. Male fern
2. Clove
3. Rhubarb
4. Pale catechu

Answer: (d) Pale catechu

Q.28. Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may

1. Increases the toxicity
2. Decreases bitterness
3. Decreses potency
4. Increases water solubility

Answer: (c) Decreses potency

Q.29. A process of sepration of molecules through the use of semi-permeable membrane is known as

1. Osmosis
2. Dialysis
3. Seiving
4. Diffusion

Answer: (b) Dialysis

Q.30. Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet

1. Deaggregation
2. Diffusion
3. Disintegration
4. Dissolutuin

Answer: (c) Disintegration

Q.31. Fenbufen is used in

1. TB
2. Plague
3. Dengu
4. Inflammation

Answer: (d) Inflammation

Q.32. The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of

1. Honey
2. Canthrites
3. Shellac
4. Colchicine

Answer: (b) Canthrites

Q.33. Tragacanth in water is associated with

1. Plastic flow
2. Pseudoplatic flow
3. Dialatant flow
4. None of these

Answer: (b) Pseudoplatic flow

Q.34. Antioxidants are added in lipstics to

1. Impart pleasant ordour
2. Staining of lips
3. Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
4. Prevent rancidity

Answer: (d) Prevent rancidity

Q.35. Borntrager test is used to identification of

1. Senna
2. Squill
3. Cinchona
4. Digitalis

Answer: (a) Senna

Q.36. Plasma protiens act as

1. Reserve protiens
2. Immunoglobulins
3. Buffers
4. All of these

Answer: (c) Buffers

Q.37. Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ

1. Brain
2. Liver
3. Skeletal muscle
4. Kidney

Answer: (b) Liver

Q.38. An example of protien denaturation is

1. Dissolving sugar in water
2. Metabolism of meat
3. Heating milk
4. Heating egg

Answer: (d) Heating egg

Q.39. An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as

1. Isomerases
2. Transferases
3. Hydrolysases
4. Oxydoreductases

Answer: (a) Isomerases

Q.40. The constituent of essential oil is

1. Polyterpenoid
2. Tetraterpenoid
3. mono and sesquiterpenoid
4. Triterpenoid

Answer: (c) mono and sesquiterpenoid

Q.41. Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?

1. Hydralazine and atenolol
2. Metochlopramide and levodopa
3. Quinidine and digoxine
4. Furosemide and lithium carbonate

Answer: (a) Hydralazine and atenolol
Explanation: hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker

Q.42. Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of

1. Purine
2. Thiamine
3. Riboflavin
4. Pyrimidine

Answer: (a) Purine

Q.43. Active immunity is induced by

1. Placental transfer of antibodies
2. Infection
3. Injection of gamma-globulins
4. Injection of antibodies

Answer: (b) Infection

Q.44. HIV infection can be clinical controlled with

1. Ribavirin
2. Ganciclovir
3. Stavudine
4. Acyclovir

Answer: (c) Stavudine
Explanation: stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor

Q.45. An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is

1. Lidocain
2. Disipyramide
3. Phenytoin
4. Amiodarone

Answer: (c) Phenytoin

Q.46. Drug of choice for thyroid storm is

1. Carbimazole
2. Radioactive iodine
3. Propyl thiouracil
4. Centimizone

Answer: (c) Propyl thiouracil
Explanation: Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.

Q.47. The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are

1. Lysosomes
2. Nucleolus
3. Ribosomes
4. Golgi's bodies

Answer: (a) Lysosomes

Q.48. The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is

1. Propranolol
2. Prazocine
3. Dexamphetamine
4. Diazepam

Answer: (c) Dexamphetamine

Q.49. Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year

1. 1985
2. 1996
3. 2007
4. 2015

Answer: (c) 2007

Q.50. List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule

1. M
2. N
3. A
4. R

Answer: (b) N