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D. Pharma

In India, Diploma in Pharmacy is an entry-level tertiary pharmacy credential. It is obtained following two-year of training. Students can enroll in the course after successfully completing higher secondary education in science stream with physics, chemistry and either biology or maths as subjects. source : Wikipedia

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Lessons/Tutorials All ❱

Histamine And Antihistamine Drugs

pharmacy infoline  
30 Nov -0001   

histamine and antihistamine drugs...

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Processing of Tablets (solid doses form) | Pharmaceutics

pharmacy exams  
11 May 2021   

Definition of Tablets (oral unit dosage form), types of Tablets, advantages and disadvantages of Tablets, compression of Tablets, manufacturing , ma...

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Packaging of Pharmaceuticals | Pharmaceutics Revision

pharmacy exams  
13 May 2021   

Packaging is the one of the factor to which stability of drug is depends during its storage.So a proper packaging required for pharmaceuticals. This...

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Water and Mineral Metabolism | Biochemistry notes

solotutes  
24 May 2021   

Water and minerals are play major role in the processes of life. Minerals are divided into two types in human body 1. Principal elements (Macromineral...

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Notes All ❱

Fat Soluble Vitamins: Vitamin A, D, E, And K

prakash chandra  
16 Apr 2020   

Vitamin A, D, E, And K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamin A is unsaturated primary alcohol (Retinol). Structurally it is related to the plant pigment c...

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Teratogenecity of drugs

solotutes  
12 Jun 2020   

Some of drugs or chemicals are fatal to embryo development. Those drugs and chemical substances which produce deviations and abnormalities in the ...

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Commonly used drugs in Obstetric and Gynaecological conditions (starting with

prakash chandra  
5 Nov 2020   

There are some common drugs used in gynecology. Here is the list of drugs starting from "m" commonly used in obstetrics and gynecological conditio...

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Human Endocrine Glands and Their Hormones

prakash chandra  
11 Nov 2020   

Endocrine glands are the ductless glands which pour their secretions directly into the bloodstream. secretions are called as Hormones. human end...

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Blood | Functions and Composition of Blood

pharmacy exams  
22 Mar 2021   

Blood is specialized fluid connective tissue, transports nutrition, water and oxygen to various tissues and organs. circulates in closed vessels. sl...

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Advantages and Disadvantages of Tablets as Pharmaceutical Dosage Form

prakash chandra  
11 May 2021   

Advantages and disadvantages of tablet in manufacturing, Dosage calculation, unit Dosage form, cost, packaging of Tablets, transportation and dispensi...

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Different types of Tablets (solid dosage form)

pharmacy exams  
11 May 2021   

Tablets are classified according to their route of administration or function. Tablets are Classified as oral ingested Tablets, Tablets for oral cavit...

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Types of Containers used for the Packaging of Pharmaceutical Products

prakash chandra  
14 May 2021   

Pharmaceutical containers are divided according to their utility i.e. well closed container for solid items for transportation, tightly closed conta...

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Classification of antimicrobial drugs according to their type of action, spectrum of activity and mechanism of action

pharmacy exams  
19 May 2021   

Classification of antimicrobials is based on their type of action on microbes kill or reduce the number, spectrum of activity i.e can work on specif...

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What are Prodrugs? Properties, Examples and Applications | Pharmacy Notes

prakash chandra  
13 Jun 2021   

Prodrugs are generally the esters or amides of parent drug, and are useful in improving the solubility, stability, bioavailability of drugs, masking...

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MCQs on antihistamines | medicinal chemistry | by pharmacy infoline

pharmacy infoline  
12 Jul 2021   

Antihistamines are drugs which treat rhinitis and other allergies. Typically people take antihistamines as a cheap , generic, over-the-counter medicin...

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Latin Terms and Abbreviations Commonly Used in Prescription Writing

solotutes  
9 Jan 2022   

The prescriptions are generally written in English language but Latin words and abbreviations are frequently used in order to save time. So it becomes...

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One Liners All ❱

Practice (MCQs) All ❱

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Q.1 Containers meant for storage of injectables are made of

  • Lime-soda glass
  • Type II glass
  • Neutral glass
  • Type I and II glass


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Q.2 Air tight sealed containers are used for

  • Tablets
  • Injectables
  • Capsules
  • Liquid preparations


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Q.3 Hydraulic resistance test is performed on glass in order to find out

  • Mechanical strength
  • Quality
  • Alkali liberated by it
  • Limit of Alkalinity liberated by it


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Q.4 Collapsible tubes made from lead is not used for pharmaceutical packaging due to

  • Inferior metal
  • Risk of lead poisoning
  • Soft in nature
  • Not good in appearance


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Q.5 Ball Mills work on the principle of 

  • Impact
  • Attrition
  • Crushing
  • Impact and attrition


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Q.6 The output of size reduction of material in a machine depends on 

  • Chemical nature
  • Physical character
  • Bulk density
  • Material structure


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Q.7 Roller mill works on the principle of

  • Impact
  • Attrition
  • Compression
  • Compression and attrition


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Q.8 Give the name of the mill in which no wear occurs

  • Ball mill
  • Edge runner mill
  • Fluid energy mill
  • Roller mill


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Q.9 The efficiency of a ball mill is maximum at

  • Low speed
  • 2/3rd of speed
  • High speed
  • Very high speed


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Q.10 Sulphur glass is prepared from soda glass by treating it's surface with -

  • Sulphur
  • Sulphur dioxide
  • Sodium sulphate
  • None of the above


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Q.1 When businesses organisations owned and controlled by a single person it is…

  • Sole proprietorship
  • Partnership firms
  • Co operative society
  • All of them


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Q.2 .. . Encourage self-employment.

  • Sole proprietorship
  • Co operative society
  • Partnership firms
  • All of them


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Q.3 The highest secrecy can be maintained in

  • Sole proprietorship
  • Co operative society
  • Partnership firms
  • All of them


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Q.4 Limited scope of expansion is the disadvantage of…

  • Sole proprietorship
  • Partnership firms
  • Co operative society
  • All of them


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Q.5 The oldest form of business organisation is….

  • Partnership
  • Joint hindu family
  • Sole Proprietorship
  • All of them


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Q.6 In which of the following forms of business organization, registration is compulsory…

  • Partnership firm
  • Sole proprietorship
  • Joint-stock company
  • All of them


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Directions:





Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …

  • Elixirs
  • Vehicles
  • Emulsions
  • Mixtures


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Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…

  • Syrups
  • Spirits
  • Injections
  • Mixtures


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Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….

  • Syrups
  • Emulsions
  • Mixtures
  • Tinctures


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Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …

  • Gels
  • Liniments
  • Poultice
  • Pessaries


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Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..

  • Pharmacopoeia
  • Prescribed books
  • Prescription
  • Reference book


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Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .

  • Amoebiasis
  • Helminthiasis
  • Antiemetics
  • None of them


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Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....

  • Amoebiasis
  • Helminthiasis
  • Antiemetics
  • None of them


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Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…

  • Local anaesthetic
  • Analgesics
  • Anthelmintics
  • Antiemetics


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Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…

  • Local anaesthetic
  • Antiemetics
  • General anaesthetic
  • Analgesics


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Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .

  • Purgatives
  • Antiemetics
  • Tranquilizers
  • Adsobent


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Q.1 An institution of community health is…

  • Hospital
  • Industries
  • Educational institutions
  • None of them


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Q.2 Functions of modern hospitals include…

  • Doctors & nurses receive training
  • Lowers the incidence of disease
  • Raises the quality of care & standards of medical practice
  • All of them


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Q.3 DGHS stands for…. . .

  • Director General of health services
  • Director General of habitual services
  • Director General of health society
  • Decorum General of health services


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Q.4 At the central government level, the health delivery system in the Constitution of India is…

  • Union ministry of health & family welfare
  • Ministry of health
  • DGHS
  • Health ministry welfare


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Q.5 DHO stands for …

  • District health officer
  • District hazard officer
  • District medical offence
  • District medical officer


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Q.6 The consumption of a drug apart from medical needs or in unnecessary quantities is…

  • Drug misuse
  • Drug habituation
  • Drug abuse
  • Drug addiction


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Q.7 The use of drugs for purposes for which they are unsuited even their appropriate use but in improper dosage is … .

  • Drug misuse
  • Drug abuse
  • Drug addiction
  • Drug habituation


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Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:

  • Is more painful
  • Produces faster response
  • Is unsuitable for depot preparations
  • Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction


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Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by

  • Passive diffusion
  • Facilitated diffusion
  • Active transport
  • Pinocytosis


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Directions:

Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach

  • Hyoscine hydrobromide
  • Morphine sulfate
  • Diclofenac sodium
  • Quinine dihydrochloride


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Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is

  • Nature of the base used in the formulation
  • Lipid solubility of the drug
  • Molecular weight of the drug
  • Site of application


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Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug

  • Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
  • Is incompletely absorbed
  • Is freely water soluble
  • Is completely absorbed


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Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of

  • Highly plasma protein bound drugs
  • Depot preparations
  • Highly lipid soluble drugs
  • Poorly lipid soluble drugs


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Q.7 High plasma protein binding

  • Increases volume of distribution of the drug
  • Generally makes the drug long acting
  • Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
  • Minimises drug interactions


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Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug

  • Enalapril
  • Menapril
  • Thiazine
  • Penicillin


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Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of

  • Tolerance
  • Physical dependence
  • Psychological dependence
  • Idiosyncrasy


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Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its

  • Plasma protein binding
  • Lipid solubility
  • Degree of ionization
  • Rate of tubular secretion


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Directions:

Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves

  • Sweat glands
  • Ciliary muscle
  • Iris muscles
  • Splenic capsule


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Directions: .

Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut

  • Nitric oxide (NO)
  • Adenosine
  • Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
  • Kallidin


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Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site

  • Neuromuscular junction
  • Postganglionic parasympathetic
  • Adrenal medulla
  • Autonomic ganglia


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Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is

  • Bethanechol
  • Butyrylcholine
  • Methacholine
  • Benzoylcholine


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Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is

  • Colon
  • Gastric fundus
  • Bladder trigone
  • Major bronchi


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Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for

  • Glaucoma
  • Paralytic ileus
  • Urinary retention
  • Infection


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Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme

  • Neostigmine
  • Edrophonium
  • Physostigmine
  • Dyflos


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Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase

  • Edrophonium
  • Dyflos
  • Tacrine
  • Neostigmine


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Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that

  • It produces less muscarinic side effects
  • It is more potent orally
  • It is longer acting
  • It does not have any direct action on NM receptor


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Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is

  • Canal of Schlemm
  • Ciliary body
  • Ciliary muscle
  • Sphincter pupillae muscle


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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that

  • It has additional α1 blocking property
  • It is a selective βS1 blocker
  • It does not undergo first pass metabolism
  • All of the above


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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties

  • Celiprolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Carvedilol
  • Acebutolol


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Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion

  • Atenolol
  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Dompirol


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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker

  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Esmolol
  • Propalol


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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol

  • Raynaud’s disease
  • Infection
  • Heart attack
  • Epilepsy


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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men

  • Albendazole
  • Mebendazole
  • Cocaine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure

  • Doxazosin
  • Alprostadil
  • Tamsulosin
  • Yohimbine


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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by

  • Adrenergic α1 agonists
  • Adrenergic α1 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 agonists


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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is

  • Tolazoline
  • Desmopressin
  • Ergotamine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP

  • Noradrenaline
  • Mephentermine
  • Isoxsuprine
  • Oxymetazoline


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Q.1 Skin or bone is an example of what level of organization

  • organ
  • macromolecule
  • cell
  • tissue


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Q.2 Which one of the following traits is not a characteristic of life shared by all organisms?

  • growth
  • circulation
  • photosynthesis
  • digestion


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Q.3 Which of the following is the most complex level of organization?

  • macromolecule
  • organ
  • organ system
  • organelle


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Q.4 The ______________ of the body includes the head, neck, and trunk

  • dorsal cavity
  • axial portion
  • appendicular portion
  • ventral cavity


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Q.5 The _____________ cavity is the portion enclosed by the pelvic bones

  • abdominopelvic
  • abdominal
  • thoracic
  • pelvic


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Q.6 The lungs are covered by a membrane called the _____

  • parietal pleura
  • visceral pleura
  • parietal pericardium
  • peritoneum


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Q.7 The ______________ system includes all the glands that secrete hormones.

  • muscular
  • endocrine
  • nervous
  • lymphatic


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Q.8 A ______________ section divides the body into right and left portions.

  • sagittal
  • coronal
  • transverse
  • oblique


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Q.9 Anatomy is a term that means the study of _____.

  • physiology
  • human functions
  • morphology
  • cell functions


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Q.10 A study dealing with the explanations of how an organ works would be an example of _____

  • anatomy
  • physiology
  • cytology
  • teleology


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Q.1 Which of the following includes the other terms?

  • systm
  • cell
  • organ
  • tissue


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Q.2 Which of the following terms means the same as ventral in humans?

  • posterior
  • anterior
  • dorsal
  • medial


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Q.3 The chin can be described as being on the _____ surface of the skull.

  • inferior
  • lateral
  • superior
  • ventral


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Q.4 Which of the following terms cannot be properly paired?

  • cranial, skull
  • nasal, buccal
  • orbital, eyes
  • frontal, forehead


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Q.5 Which term refers to the back of the knee?

  • popliteal
  • pelvic
  • pedal
  • perineal


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Q.6 Which types of neurons are likely to increase muscular activities?

  • bipolar neurons
  • inhibitory neurons
  • sensory neurons
  • accelerator neurons


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Q.7 When a neuron reaches action potential, it depolarizes and repolarizes in an amount of time on the order of _____________

  • seconds
  • miliseconds
  • microseconds
  • nanoseconds


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Q.8 Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?

  • the mitochondria
  • the nucleus
  • peripheral proteins
  • the endoplasmic reticulum


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Q.9 In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glucose take place?

  • lysosomes
  • ribosome
  • mitochondria
  • dna


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Q.10 Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules?

  • Ribosomes
  • Mesosomes
  • Goglgi apparatus
  • Lysosomes


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Q.1 BID in pharmaceutical terms refers to which of the following? 

  • Twice a day
  • Thrice a day
  • Twice a week
  • After two days


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Q.2 Latin term "Infricandus" means the following dosage form,

  • to be spread on
  • to be applied on
  • to be inhaled
  • to be rubbed on


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Q.3 Latin term "inhalateur" means the following

  • to be inhaled
  • to be taken
  • to be swalloed
  • to be injected


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Q.4 Latin term "Utendus" means the following

  • to be dissolved
  • to be used
  • to be discarded
  • to be inhaled


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Q.5 Latin term "talis / tales / talia" means the following

  • such
  • as
  • after
  • before


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Q.6 Latin term "mitte" means the following

  • inject
  • give
  • send
  • take


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Q.7 hora somni meaning

  • at bedtime
  • at sunrise
  • after meal
  • at meal


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Q.8 Latin shortform for "three times a day" is

  • b.i.d.
  • t.i.d.
  • f.i.d
  • h.s.


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Q.9 "ante cibum" refer to

  • with milk
  • after meal
  • before meal
  • with water


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Q.10 "oculus sinister" is used to indiacate

  • right eye
  • left eye
  • right ear
  • left ear


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Q.1 To identify the emulsion type, which of the following tests are conducted?

  • Conductivity test
  • Sedimentation test
  • Tensile strength
  • Bioadhesion


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Q.2 Which of the following is not used as an emulsifying agent?

  • Finely divided solids
  • Surfactant
  • Hydrophilic colloid
  • Electrolytes


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Q.3 Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?

  • Cream
  • Solution
  • Paste
  • Gel


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Q.4 Generally pastes contain

  • Very low percentage of insoluble solids
  • Low percentage of insoluble solids
  • High percentage of insoluble solids
  • soluble solids


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Q.5 In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used generally?

  • Water removable bases
  • Absorption base
  • Hydrocarbon base
  • Oily base


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Q.6 In the preparation of cold creams, which types of bases are used generally?

  • Fatty base
  • Hydrocarbon base
  • Water removable bases
  • Absorption base


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Q.7 Water soluble bases are also known as

  • Greasy ointment bases
  • Greaseless ointment bases
  • Water removable base
  • None of them


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Q.8 A suppository is generally intended for use in

  • Rectum
  • Ear
  • Nose
  • Mouth


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Q.9 .Vaginal suppositories also called as

  • Simple suppositories
  • Bougies
  • Pessaries
  • Soft tablet


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Q.10 Which of the following method is used to manufacture suppositories

  • Compression molding
  • Dissolution
  • Sterilisation
  • Disinfection


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Q.1 Who is the father of medicine………

  • Luther
  • Hippocrates
  • Pastuer
  • Bohr


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Q.2 The first edition of IP was published in …

  • 1955
  • 1965
  • 1975
  • 1985


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Q.3 The seventh edition of IP was published in …

  • 2011
  • 2012
  • 2013
  • 2014


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Q.4 The “Pharmacy Act” came in force in ….

  • 1947
  • 1948
  • 1949
  • 1950


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Q.5 Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was established in …..

  • 1947
  • 1948
  • 1949
  • 1950


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Q.6 What is USP?

  • The United States Pharmacology
  • The United States Pharmacopoeia
  • The United States Pharmcy
  • The United States Pharmacy Department


D. PharmaPharmaceuticsB. Pharma

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Q.7 Drugs converted to suitable form are known as

  • Dosage form
  • Excipients
  • API
  • Diluents


D. PharmaPharmaceuticsB. Pharma

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Q.8 Simple syrup is a saturated solution of…

  • Fructose
  • Mannose
  • Glucose
  • Sucrose


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Q.9 When two or more drugs are used in combination to increase the pharmacological action, the phenomenon is known as ………

  • Potentisation
  • Combination
  • Synergism
  • Antagonism


D. PharmaPharmaceuticsB. Pharma

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Q.10 When the action of the drug is opposed by the other drug, the the phenomenon is known as

  • Antagonism
  • Synergism
  • Opposition
  • Potentisation


D. PharmaPharmaceuticsB. Pharma

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Q.1 Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

  • haemopoiesis
  • haemostasis
  • peristalsis
  • glycogenolysis


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.2 In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?

  • canaliculi
  • osteons
  • lacunae
  • lamellae


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.3 Which bone is most superior?

  • cervical vertebra
  • patella
  • manubrium
  • occipital bone


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.4 What is a “trochanter”?

  • projection that forms part of an articulation
  • part of a femur
  • groove in which lies a tendon
  • a feature of the pelvis


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.5 One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?

  • Haemopoiesis
  • Haematuria
  • Haemostasis
  • Haemolysis


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.6 Where do osteocytes reside?

  • In lamellae
  • In lacunae
  • In trabeculae
  • In endosteum


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.7 Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?

  • hyoid
  • sesamoid
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.8 Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?

  • The mandible
  • The sphenoid
  • The maxilla
  • The hyoid


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.9 What are the bones of the fingers known as?

  • carpals
  • phalanges
  • short bones
  • metacarpals


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.10 Which of the following comprise seven bones?

  • Cranial bones
  • Carpals
  • Lumbar vertebrae
  • Cervical vertebrae


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyB. Pharma

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Q.1 The process occurring in the presence of oxygen is called… ..

  • Anaerobic
  • Aerobic
  • Glycogenic
  • Microaerophilic


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.2 The process occuring in the absence of oxygen is called… .

  • Anaerobic
  • Aerobic
  • Glycogenic
  • Microaerophilic


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.3 Enzymatic hydrolysis of major nutrients in GIT to yield their simpler components is .....

  • Fermentation
  • Deglutition
  • Glycolysis
  • Digestion


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.4 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .

  • Metagenic amino acids
  • Glucogenic amino acids
  • Ketogenic amino acids
  • Glutamic amino acids


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Directions:

Q.5 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into ketone bodies are called… .

  • Metagenic amino acids
  • Glucogenic amino acids
  • Ketogenic amino acids
  • Glutamic amino acids


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.6 The water soluble fuels which are overproduced during fasting or in untreated diabetes mellitus are called… . .

  • Melanin bodies
  • Ketone bodies
  • Glucose bodies
  • Citrate bodies


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.7 Energy yielding anaerobic breakdown of glucose yielding lactate, ethanol with some other products is… . ..

  • Protein fermentation
  • Fat metabolism
  • Glucose fermentation
  • Nucleic acid fermentation


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.8 The biosynthesis of carbohydrates from simpler, non carbohydrate precursors is… . .

  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenolysis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycogenesis


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.9 An oxidative pathway of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as…

  • Phosphogluconate pathway
  • Pentose phosphate pathway
  • Hexose monophosphate pathway
  • All of them


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

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Q.10 The process of breakdown of glycogen to blood glucose is … . .

  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenesis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycogenolysis


D. PharmaBiochemistryB. PharmaGeneral ScienceClass 12th

134 of 173

Q.1

Which of the following is not an aspect of the pathophysiology in disease

  • Morphological changes
  • Therapeutic treatment
  • Causes
  • Pathogenesis


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.2 Which of the following is a cell death

  • Apoptosis
  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenesis
  • Lipolysis


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Q.3 Which of the following is physical agent of cell injury?

  • Dil. HCl
  • Hypoxia
  • Viruses
  • Hot Surface


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Q.4 Hypoxia is occurs in following condition except

  • Anaemia
  • Thyroid disease
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning
  • Lung disease


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.5 Iatrogenic causes means

  • Cell injury by Pharmacist
  • Cell injury by Nurse
  • Cell injury by Physician
  • None of the above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.6 Adaptation means reversible change in

  • Functions of cell
  • Size of cell
  • Phenotype of cell
  • All of the above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.7 Which of the above is not a cellular adaptation?

  • Hyperplasia
  • Hypertrophy
  • Hypoplasia
  • Metaplasia


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.8 Ischemia causes following except

  • Increase Cytosolic Calcium
  • Detachment of Ribosome
  • Decrease in activity of Na pump
  • Increase Anaerobic Glycolysis


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.9 Loss of Calcium Homeostasis leads to

  • Decrease ATP Production
  • Nuclear Damage
  • Membrane Damage
  • All of the above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.10 Cell mediated immunity is derived from

  • T cells
  • Monocytes
  • Eosinophils
  • B cells


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

144 of 173

Q.1 Redness in inflammation is occur due to

  • Vasodilation
  • migration of leukocytes
  • Increase hydro static pressure
  • Vasoconstriction


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.2 Swelling in inflammation is also called

  • Vasodilation of blood vessels in dermis
  • Infiltration of neutrophil
  • Edema
  • Ischemia


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.3 The edema is most likely the result of

  • Increased vascular permeability
  • Increased arterial hydrostatic pressure
  • Vasodilation
  • All of the above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.4 The cell which lost ability to proliferate is called

  • Stable
  • Labile
  • Permanant
  • All of the above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.5 Which of the following factors are delay the healing process?

  • Movement
  • Infection
  • Poor blood supply
  • All of the above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.6

EGF stands for

  • Edema growth factor
  • Enzyme growth factor
  • Energy growth factor
  • Epithelial growth factor


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.7 Prostaglandins (PGs) are

  • LOX pathway product
  • Cytokinines
  • Vasoactiveamines
  • COX pathway product


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.8 CD8+ cell is also called

  • Cytotoxic T cells
  • Helper B cell
  • Helper T cell
  • Cell None of above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.9 HLA stands for

  • Human leukocyte Antigen
  • Human leukocyte Antibody
  • Human leukocyte Agent
  • Human leukotrine Antigen


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.10 What do you mean by autoimmune diseases?

  • Increase ability to identify between self & non -self
  • Decrease ability to identify between self & non -self
  • Hypo activity of immune responses
  • Hyper activity of immune responses


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.1

Which of the following Antibody involve in Type-I ypersensitivity reaction?

  • IgG
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgM


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.2 Which immunoglobin is react with allergens?

  • IgE
  • IgM
  • IgA
  • IgD


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.3 Rheumatoid Arthritis is a example of

  • Type I Hypersnsitivity
  • Type II Hypersnsitivity
  • Type III Hypersnsitivity
  • Type IV Hypersnsitivity


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.4 Which of the following part of the HIV is bind to CD4 receptor of of T per cell?

  • gp120
  • gp12000
  • gp12
  • gp1200


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.5 HIV AIDS is a ____ disease.

  • Autoimmune
  • Hyper immunity
  • Immunodeficiency
  • All of above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.6 __________ protein transfer thyroxine & retinol.

  • TTR
  • AL
  • APrP
  • TLS


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.7 Which of the following is not a type of cellular adaptation?

  • Hypertrophy
  • Superplasia
  • Hyperplasia
  • Atrophy


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.8 The common cause of atrophy are as follows except

  • Decreased work load
  • Loss of innovation
  • Stimulation of endocrine hormone release
  • Inadequate nutrition


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.9 Which enzymes are responsible for removal of free radical

  • Superoxide dismutase
  • Peroxidase
  • Catalase
  • All of the above


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.10 Cell swelling is a result of

  • Decreased protein synthesis
  • Decreased lactic acid secretion
  • Decreased activity of sodium pump
  • Increased glycogen production


D. PharmaHuman Anatomy and Physiology

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Q.1

Salmonella is spread by

  • Flies
  • Fomites
  • Feces
  • All of the above


D. PharmaHealth Education

165 of 173

Q.2 The occurrence of typhoid is high in following circumstances except

  • Comes in contact with infected person
  • Use of narrow spectrum antibiotic
  • Living with poor sanitation
  • None of the above


D. PharmaHealth Education

166 of 173

Q.3 The pathogenesis of typhoid fever depends on following except

  • Host immunity
  • Virulence
  • Infectious species
  • Volume of organism


D. PharmaHealth Education

167 of 173

Q.4 The typical incubation period of salmonella is _____ days

  • 10-14
  • 5-8
  • 1-2
  • 15-20


D. PharmaHealth Education

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Q.5 Which of the following symptom does not appear during first week of infection in typhoid?

  • Diarrhoea in children
  • Delirium
  • Fever
  • Myalgia


D. PharmaHealth Education

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Q.6 Which serological test can be used for diagnosis of typhoid fever?

  • ELISA
  • PCR
  • Widal test
  • None of the above


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Q.7 Which antibiotic can be employed for treatment of typhoid fever?

  • Tetracycline
  • Lincosamide
  • Azithromycin
  • Ciprofloxacin


D. PharmaHealth Education

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Q.8 Which of the following drug cannot be given in bacillary dysentery

  • Diphenoxylate
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Sulfamethoxazole
  • None of the above


D. PharmaHealth Education

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Q.9 In bacillary dysentery usually patient experience symptoms within hours of ingestion of contaminated food and water

  • 12 hours
  • 24 hours
  • 96 hours
  • 72 hours


D. PharmaHealth Education

173 of 173

Q.10 Parkinson disease is marked by a lack of which chemical in the brain?

  • Serotonin
  • Norepinephrine
  • GABA
  • Dopamine


D. PharmaHealth Education

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