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D. Pharma
In India, Diploma in Pharmacy is an entry-level tertiary pharmacy credential. It is obtained following two-year of training. Students can enroll in the course after successfully completing higher secondary education in science stream with physics, chemistry and either biology or maths as subjects. source : Wikipedia
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pharmacy exams
11 May 2021
Definition of Tablets (oral unit dosage form), types of Tablets, advantages and disadvantages of Tablets, compression of Tablets, manufacturing , ma...
pharmacy exams
13 May 2021
Packaging is the one of the factor to which stability of drug is depends during its storage.So a proper packaging required for pharmaceuticals. This...
solotutes
24 May 2021
Water and minerals are play major role in the processes of life. Minerals are divided into two types in human body 1. Principal elements (Macromineral...
30 Nov -0001
histamine and antihistamine drugs...
Notes All ❱
solotutes
9 Jan 2022
The prescriptions are generally written in English language but Latin words and abbreviations are frequently used in order to save time. So it becomes...
prakash joshi
5 Nov 2020
There are some common drugs used in gynecology. Here is the list of drugs starting from "m" commonly used in obstetrics and gynecological conditio...
prakash joshi
11 Nov 2020
Endocrine glands are the ductless glands which pour their secretions directly into the bloodstream. secretions are called as Hormones. human end...
solotutes
12 Jun 2020
Some of drugs or chemicals are fatal to embryo development. Those drugs and chemical substances which produce deviations and abnormalities in the ...
prakash joshi
11 May 2021
Advantages and disadvantages of tablet in manufacturing, Dosage calculation, unit Dosage form, cost, packaging of Tablets, transportation and dispensi...
pharmacy exams
22 Mar 2021
Blood is specialized fluid connective tissue, transports nutrition, water and oxygen to various tissues and organs. circulates in closed vessels. sl...
pharmacy exams
11 May 2021
Tablets are classified according to their route of administration or function. Tablets are Classified as oral ingested Tablets, Tablets for oral cavit...
prakash joshi
14 May 2021
Pharmaceutical containers are divided according to their utility i.e. well closed container for solid items for transportation, tightly closed conta...
pharmacy exams
19 May 2021
Classification of antimicrobials is based on their type of action on microbes kill or reduce the number, spectrum of activity i.e can work on specif...
prakash joshi
16 Apr 2020
Vitamin A, D, E, And K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamin A is unsaturated primary alcohol (Retinol). Structurally it is related to the plant pigment c...
prakash joshi
13 Jun 2021
Prodrugs are generally the esters or amides of parent drug, and are useful in improving the solubility, stability, bioavailability of drugs, masking...
12 Jul 2021
Antihistamines are drugs which treat rhinitis and other allergies. Typically people take antihistamines as a cheap , generic, over-the-counter medicin...
One Liners All ❱
Practice (MCQs) All ❱
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Q.1 WHAT IS FALSE NEUROTRANSMITTER
- DOPAMINE
- NOR EPINEPHRINE
- METHYL DOPA
- SEROTONIN
Answer ✔ (c) METHYL DOPA
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Q.2 WEIGHT LOSS IS MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF WHICH ANTIDIABETIC DRUG?
- PIOGLITAZONE
- METFORMIN
- GLIPIZIDE
- GLIMEPRIDE
Answer ✔ (b) METFORMIN
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Q.3 DRUG USED IN INDUCE LABOUR
- OXYTOCIN
- VASOPRESSIN
- NIFEDIPINE
- SALBUTAMOL
Answer ✔ (a) OXYTOCIN
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Q.4 MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF CHLORPROMAZINE?
- PALPITATION
- DRYNESS OF MOUTH
- PARKINSONISM
- DIABETES
Answer ✔ (c) PARKINSONISM
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Q.5 DRUG USED IN ANAPHYLATIC SHOCK?
- EPINEPHRINE
- ADRENALINE
- BOTH A AND B
- ATROPINE
Answer ✔ (c) BOTH A AND B
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Q.1 Containers meant for storage of injectables are made of
- Lime-soda glass
- Type II glass
- Neutral glass
- Type I and II glass
Answer ✔ (d) Type I and II glass
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Q.2 Air tight sealed containers are used for
- Tablets
- Injectables
- Capsules
- Liquid preparations
Answer ✔ (b) Injectables
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Q.3 Hydraulic resistance test is performed on glass in order to find out
- Mechanical strength
- Quality
- Alkali liberated by it
- Limit of Alkalinity liberated by it
Answer ✔ (d) Limit of Alkalinity liberated by it
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Q.4 Collapsible tubes made from lead is not used for pharmaceutical packaging due to
- Inferior metal
- Risk of lead poisoning
- Soft in nature
- Not good in appearance
Answer ✔ (b) Risk of lead poisoning
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Q.5 Ball Mills work on the principle of
- Impact
- Attrition
- Crushing
- Impact and attrition
Answer ✔ (d) Impact and attrition
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Q.6 The output of size reduction of material in a machine depends on
- Chemical nature
- Physical character
- Bulk density
- Material structure
Answer ✔ (c) Bulk density
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Q.7 Roller mill works on the principle of
- Impact
- Attrition
- Compression
- Compression and attrition
Answer ✔ (d) Compression and attrition
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Q.8 Give the name of the mill in which no wear occurs
- Ball mill
- Edge runner mill
- Fluid energy mill
- Roller mill
Answer ✔ (c) Fluid energy mill
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Q.9 The efficiency of a ball mill is maximum at
- Low speed
- 2/3rd of speed
- High speed
- Very high speed
Answer ✔ (b) 2/3rd of speed
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Q.10 Sulphur glass is prepared from soda glass by treating it's surface with -
- Sulphur
- Sulphur dioxide
- Sodium sulphate
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation: soda glass surface is treated with either Sulphur dioxide or ammonium sulphate to prepare sulphured glass.
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Q.1 When businesses organisations owned and controlled by a single person it is…
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership firms
- Co operative society
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
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Q.2 .. . Encourage self-employment.
- Sole proprietorship
- Co operative society
- Partnership firms
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
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Q.3 The highest secrecy can be maintained in
- Sole proprietorship
- Co operative society
- Partnership firms
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
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Q.4 Limited scope of expansion is the disadvantage of…
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership firms
- Co operative society
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
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Q.5 The oldest form of business organisation is….
- Partnership
- Joint hindu family
- Sole Proprietorship
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Partnership
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Q.6 In which of the following forms of business organization, registration is compulsory…
- Partnership firm
- Sole proprietorship
- Joint-stock company
- All of them
Answer ✔ (b) Sole proprietorship
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Directions:
Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …
- Elixirs
- Vehicles
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Vehicles
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Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…
- Syrups
- Spirits
- Injections
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Spirits
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Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….
- Syrups
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
- Tinctures
Answer ✔ (d) Tinctures
Explanation: A tincture is typically an extract of plant or animal material dissolved in ethanol. Solvent concentrations of 25–60% are common, but may run as high as 90%. In chemistry, a tincture is a solution that has ethanol as its solvent
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Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …
- Gels
- Liniments
- Poultice
- Pessaries
Answer ✔ (d) Pessaries
Explanation: A pessary is a prosthetic device inserted into the vagina for structural and pharmaceutical purposes. It is most commonly used to treat stress urinary incontinence to stop urinary leakage, and pelvic organ prolapse to maintain the location of organs in the pelvic region
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Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..
- Pharmacopoeia
- Prescribed books
- Prescription
- Reference book
Answer ✔ (a) Pharmacopoeia
Explanation: A pharmacopoeia, pharmacopeia, or pharmacopoea, in its modern technical sense, is a book containing directions for the identification of compound medicines, and published by the authority of a government or a medical or pharmaceutical society. Descriptions of preparations are called monographs.
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Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: A parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebiasis infection is most common in tropical areas with untreated water. It spreads through drinking or eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been washed in contaminated local water.
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Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Helminthiasis, also known as worm infection, is any macroparasitic disease of humans and other animals in which a part of the body is infected with parasitic worms, known as helminths. There are numerous species of these parasites, which are broadly classified into tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms.
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Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…
- Local anaesthetic
- Analgesics
- Anthelmintics
- Antiemetics
Answer ✔ (c) Anthelmintics
Explanation: Anthelmintics or antihelminthics are a group of antiparasitic drugs that expel parasitic worms and other internal parasites from the body by either stunning or killing them and without causing significant damage to the host. They may also be called vermifuges or vermicides
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Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…
- Local anaesthetic
- Antiemetics
- General anaesthetic
- Analgesics
Answer ✔ (a) Local anaesthetic
Explanation: A local anesthetic is a medication that causes absence of pain sensation. In the context of surgery, a local anesthetic creates an absence of pain in a specific location of the body without a loss of consciousness, as opposed to a general anesthetic
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Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .
- Purgatives
- Antiemetics
- Tranquilizers
- Adsobent
Answer ✔ (a) Purgatives
Explanation: Laxatives, purgatives, or aperients are substances that loosen stools and increase bowel movements. They are used to treat and prevent constipation. Laxatives vary as to how they work and the side effects they may have
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Q.1 An institution of community health is…
- Hospital
- Industries
- Educational institutions
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Hospital
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Q.2 Functions of modern hospitals include…
- Doctors & nurses receive training
- Lowers the incidence of disease
- Raises the quality of care & standards of medical practice
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.3 DGHS stands for…. . .
- Director General of health services
- Director General of habitual services
- Director General of health society
- Decorum General of health services
Answer ✔ (a) Director General of health services
Explanation: The Directorate General of Health Services (Dte.GHS) is a repository of technical knowledge concerning Public Health, Medical Education and Health Care. It is an attached organisation of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. The Dte.GHS is headed by Director General of Health Services (DGHS), an officer of Central Health Services, who renders technical advice on all medical and public health matters to Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Q.4 At the central government level, the health delivery system in the Constitution of India is…
- Union ministry of health & family welfare
- Ministry of health
- DGHS
- Health ministry welfare
Answer ✔ (a) Union ministry of health & family welfare
Explanation: The Minister of Health and Family Welfare holds cabinet rank as a member of the Council of Ministers
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Q.5 DHO stands for …
- District health officer
- District hazard officer
- District medical offence
- District medical officer
Answer ✔ (a) District health officer
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Q.6 The consumption of a drug apart from medical needs or in unnecessary quantities is…
- Drug misuse
- Drug habituation
- Drug abuse
- Drug addiction
Answer ✔ (c) Drug abuse
Explanation: Excessive use of psychoactive drugs, such as alcohol, pain medications or illegal drugs. It can lead to physical, social or emotional harm.
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Q.7 The use of drugs for purposes for which they are unsuited even their appropriate use but in improper dosage is … .
- Drug misuse
- Drug abuse
- Drug addiction
- Drug habituation
Answer ✔ (a) Drug misuse
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Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:
- Is more painful
- Produces faster response
- Is unsuitable for depot preparations
- Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Answer ✔ (b) Produces faster response
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Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by
- Passive diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Pinocytosis
Answer ✔ (a) Passive diffusion
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Directions:
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach
- Hyoscine hydrobromide
- Morphine sulfate
- Diclofenac sodium
- Quinine dihydrochloride
Answer ✔ (c) Diclofenac sodium
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Directions:
Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
- Nature of the base used in the formulation
- Lipid solubility of the drug
- Molecular weight of the drug
- Site of application
Answer ✔ (b) Lipid solubility of the drug
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Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
- Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
- Is incompletely absorbed
- Is freely water soluble
- Is completely absorbed
Answer ✔ (b) Is incompletely absorbed
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Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of
- Highly plasma protein bound drugs
- Depot preparations
- Highly lipid soluble drugs
- Poorly lipid soluble drugs
Answer ✔ (c) Highly lipid soluble drugs
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Q.7 High plasma protein binding
- Increases volume of distribution of the drug
- Generally makes the drug long acting
- Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
- Minimises drug interactions
Answer ✔ (b) Generally makes the drug long acting
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Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug
- Enalapril
- Menapril
- Thiazine
- Penicillin
Answer ✔ (a) Enalapril
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Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of
- Tolerance
- Physical dependence
- Psychological dependence
- Idiosyncrasy
Answer ✔ (a) Tolerance
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Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
- Plasma protein binding
- Lipid solubility
- Degree of ionization
- Rate of tubular secretion
Answer ✔ (a) Plasma protein binding
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Directions:
Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves
- Sweat glands
- Ciliary muscle
- Iris muscles
- Splenic capsule
Answer ✔ (b) Ciliary muscle
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Directions: .
Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut
- Nitric oxide (NO)
- Adenosine
- Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
- Kallidin
Answer ✔ (d) Kallidin
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Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site
- Neuromuscular junction
- Postganglionic parasympathetic
- Adrenal medulla
- Autonomic ganglia
Answer ✔ (b) Postganglionic parasympathetic
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Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is
- Bethanechol
- Butyrylcholine
- Methacholine
- Benzoylcholine
Answer ✔ (a) Bethanechol
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Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is
- Colon
- Gastric fundus
- Bladder trigone
- Major bronchi
Answer ✔ (c) Bladder trigone
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Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for
- Glaucoma
- Paralytic ileus
- Urinary retention
- Infection
Answer ✔ (a) Glaucoma
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Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme
- Neostigmine
- Edrophonium
- Physostigmine
- Dyflos
Answer ✔ (b) Edrophonium
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Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase
- Edrophonium
- Dyflos
- Tacrine
- Neostigmine
Answer ✔ (d) Neostigmine
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Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that
- It produces less muscarinic side effects
- It is more potent orally
- It is longer acting
- It does not have any direct action on NM receptor
Answer ✔ (c) It is longer acting
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Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is
- Canal of Schlemm
- Ciliary body
- Ciliary muscle
- Sphincter pupillae muscle
Answer ✔ (d) Sphincter pupillae muscle
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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
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Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
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Q.1 Skin or bone is an example of what level of organization
- organ
- macromolecule
- cell
- tissue
Answer ✔ (a) organ
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Q.2 Which one of the following traits is not a characteristic of life shared by all organisms?
- growth
- circulation
- photosynthesis
- digestion
Answer ✔ (c) photosynthesis
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Q.3 Which of the following is the most complex level of organization?
- macromolecule
- organ
- organ system
- organelle
Answer ✔ (c) organ system
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Q.4 The ______________ of the body includes the head, neck, and trunk
- dorsal cavity
- axial portion
- appendicular portion
- ventral cavity
Answer ✔ (b) axial portion
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Q.5 The _____________ cavity is the portion enclosed by the pelvic bones
- abdominopelvic
- abdominal
- thoracic
- pelvic
Answer ✔ (d) pelvic
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Q.6 The lungs are covered by a membrane called the _____
- parietal pleura
- visceral pleura
- parietal pericardium
- peritoneum
Answer ✔ (b) visceral pleura
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Q.7 The ______________ system includes all the glands that secrete hormones.
- muscular
- endocrine
- nervous
- lymphatic
Answer ✔ (b) endocrine
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Q.8 A ______________ section divides the body into right and left portions.
- sagittal
- coronal
- transverse
- oblique
Answer ✔ (a) sagittal
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Q.9 Anatomy is a term that means the study of _____.
- physiology
- human functions
- morphology
- cell functions
Answer ✔ (c) morphology
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Q.10 A study dealing with the explanations of how an organ works would be an example of _____
- anatomy
- physiology
- cytology
- teleology
Answer ✔ (b) physiology
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Q.1 Which of the following includes the other terms?
- systm
- cell
- organ
- tissue
Answer ✔ (a) systm
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Q.2 Which of the following terms means the same as ventral in humans?
- posterior
- anterior
- dorsal
- medial
Answer ✔ (b) anterior
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Q.3 The chin can be described as being on the _____ surface of the skull.
- inferior
- lateral
- superior
- ventral
Answer ✔ (a) inferior
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Q.4 Which of the following terms cannot be properly paired?
- cranial, skull
- nasal, buccal
- orbital, eyes
- frontal, forehead
Answer ✔ (b) nasal, buccal
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Q.5 Which term refers to the back of the knee?
- popliteal
- pelvic
- pedal
- perineal
Answer ✔ (a) popliteal
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Q.6 Which types of neurons are likely to increase muscular activities?
- bipolar neurons
- inhibitory neurons
- sensory neurons
- accelerator neurons
Answer ✔ (d) accelerator neurons
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Q.7 When a neuron reaches action potential, it depolarizes and repolarizes in an amount of time on the order of _____________
- seconds
- miliseconds
- microseconds
- nanoseconds
Answer ✔ (b) miliseconds
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Q.8 Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?
- the mitochondria
- the nucleus
- peripheral proteins
- the endoplasmic reticulum
Answer ✔ (a) the mitochondria
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Q.9 In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glucose take place?
- lysosomes
- ribosome
- mitochondria
- dna
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondria
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Q.10 Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules?
- Ribosomes
- Mesosomes
- Goglgi apparatus
- Lysosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Lysosomes
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Q.1 BID in pharmaceutical terms refers to which of the following?
- Twice a day
- Thrice a day
- Twice a week
- After two days
Answer ✔ (a) Twice a day
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Q.2 Latin term "Infricandus" means the following dosage form,
- to be spread on
- to be applied on
- to be inhaled
- to be rubbed on
Answer ✔ (d) to be rubbed on
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Q.3 Latin term "inhalateur" means the following
- to be inhaled
- to be taken
- to be swalloed
- to be injected
Answer ✔ (a) to be inhaled
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Q.4 Latin term "Utendus" means the following
- to be dissolved
- to be used
- to be discarded
- to be inhaled
Answer ✔ (b) to be used
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Q.5 Latin term "talis / tales / talia" means the following
- such
- as
- after
- before
Answer ✔ (a) such
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Q.6 Latin term "mitte" means the following
- inject
- give
- send
- take
Answer ✔ (c) send
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Q.7 hora somni meaning
- at bedtime
- at sunrise
- after meal
- at meal
Answer ✔ (a) at bedtime
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Q.8 Latin shortform for "three times a day" is
- b.i.d.
- t.i.d.
- f.i.d
- h.s.
Answer ✔ (b) t.i.d.
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Q.9 "ante cibum" refer to
- with milk
- after meal
- before meal
- with water
Answer ✔ (c) before meal
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Q.10 "oculus sinister" is used to indiacate
- right eye
- left eye
- right ear
- left ear
Answer ✔ (b) left eye
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Q.1 To identify the emulsion type, which of the following tests are conducted?
- Conductivity test
- Sedimentation test
- Tensile strength
- Bioadhesion
Answer ✔ (a) Conductivity test
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Q.2 Which of the following is not used as an emulsifying agent?
- Finely divided solids
- Surfactant
- Hydrophilic colloid
- Electrolytes
Answer ✔ (d) Electrolytes
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Q.3 Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?
- Cream
- Solution
- Paste
- Gel
Answer ✔ (b) Solution
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Q.4 Generally pastes contain
- Very low percentage of insoluble solids
- Low percentage of insoluble solids
- High percentage of insoluble solids
- soluble solids
Answer ✔ (c) High percentage of insoluble solids
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Q.5 In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used generally?
- Water removable bases
- Absorption base
- Hydrocarbon base
- Oily base
Answer ✔ (a) Water removable bases
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Q.6 In the preparation of cold creams, which types of bases are used generally?
- Fatty base
- Hydrocarbon base
- Water removable bases
- Absorption base
Answer ✔ (d) Absorption base
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Q.7 Water soluble bases are also known as
- Greasy ointment bases
- Greaseless ointment bases
- Water removable base
- None of them
Answer ✔ (b) Greaseless ointment bases
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Q.8 A suppository is generally intended for use in
- Rectum
- Ear
- Nose
- Mouth
Answer ✔ (a) Rectum
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Q.9 .Vaginal suppositories also called as
- Simple suppositories
- Bougies
- Pessaries
- Soft tablet
Answer ✔ (c) Pessaries
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Q.10 Which of the following method is used to manufacture suppositories
- Compression molding
- Dissolution
- Sterilisation
- Disinfection
Answer ✔ (a) Compression molding
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Q.1 Who is the father of medicine………
- Luther
- Hippocrates
- Pastuer
- Bohr
Answer ✔ (b) Hippocrates
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Q.2 The first edition of IP was published in …
- 1955
- 1965
- 1975
- 1985
Answer ✔ (a) 1955
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Q.3 The seventh edition of IP was published in …
- 2011
- 2012
- 2013
- 2014
Answer ✔ (d) 2014
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Q.4 The “Pharmacy Act” came in force in ….
- 1947
- 1948
- 1949
- 1950
Answer ✔ (b) 1948
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Q.5 Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was established in …..
- 1947
- 1948
- 1949
- 1950
Answer ✔ (c) 1949
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Q.6 What is USP?
- The United States Pharmacology
- The United States Pharmacopoeia
- The United States Pharmcy
- The United States Pharmacy Department
Answer ✔ (b) The United States Pharmacopoeia
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Q.7 Drugs converted to suitable form are known as
- Dosage form
- Excipients
- API
- Diluents
Answer ✔ (a) Dosage form
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Q.8 Simple syrup is a saturated solution of…
- Fructose
- Mannose
- Glucose
- Sucrose
Answer ✔ (d) Sucrose
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Q.9 When two or more drugs are used in combination to increase the pharmacological action, the phenomenon is known as ………
- Potentisation
- Combination
- Synergism
- Antagonism
Answer ✔ (c) Synergism
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Q.10 When the action of the drug is opposed by the other drug, the the phenomenon is known as
- Antagonism
- Synergism
- Opposition
- Potentisation
Answer ✔ (a) Antagonism
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Q.1 Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
- haemopoiesis
- haemostasis
- peristalsis
- glycogenolysis
Answer ✔ (a) haemopoiesis
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Q.2 In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?
- canaliculi
- osteons
- lacunae
- lamellae
Answer ✔ (c) lacunae
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Q.3 Which bone is most superior?
- cervical vertebra
- patella
- manubrium
- occipital bone
Answer ✔ (d) occipital bone
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Q.4 What is a “trochanter”?
- projection that forms part of an articulation
- part of a femur
- groove in which lies a tendon
- a feature of the pelvis
Answer ✔ (b) part of a femur
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Q.5 One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?
- Haemopoiesis
- Haematuria
- Haemostasis
- Haemolysis
Answer ✔ (a) Haemopoiesis
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Q.6 Where do osteocytes reside?
- In lamellae
- In lacunae
- In trabeculae
- In endosteum
Answer ✔ (b) In lacunae
D. Pharma • Human Anatomy and Physiology • B. Pharma
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Q.7 Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?
- hyoid
- sesamoid
- sphenoid
- ethmoid
Answer ✔ (b) sesamoid
D. Pharma • Human Anatomy and Physiology • B. Pharma
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Q.8 Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?
- The mandible
- The sphenoid
- The maxilla
- The hyoid
Answer ✔ (a) The mandible
D. Pharma • Human Anatomy and Physiology • B. Pharma
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Q.9 What are the bones of the fingers known as?
- carpals
- phalanges
- short bones
- metacarpals
Answer ✔ (b) phalanges
D. Pharma • Human Anatomy and Physiology • B. Pharma
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Q.10 Which of the following comprise seven bones?
- Cranial bones
- Carpals
- Lumbar vertebrae
- Cervical vertebrae
Answer ✔ (d) Cervical vertebrae
D. Pharma • Human Anatomy and Physiology • B. Pharma
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Q.1 The process occurring in the presence of oxygen is called… ..
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
D. Pharma • Biochemistry • B. Pharma • General Science • Class 12th • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.2 The process occuring in the absence of oxygen is called… .
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
D. Pharma • Biochemistry • B. Pharma • General Science • Class 12th • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.3 Enzymatic hydrolysis of major nutrients in GIT to yield their simpler components is .....
- Fermentation
- Deglutition
- Glycolysis
- Digestion
Answer ✔ (d) Digestion
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Q.4 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Glucogenic amino acids
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Directions:
Q.5 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into ketone bodies are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (c) Ketogenic amino acids
D. Pharma • Biochemistry • B. Pharma • General Science • Class 12th • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.6 The water soluble fuels which are overproduced during fasting or in untreated diabetes mellitus are called… . .
- Melanin bodies
- Ketone bodies
- Glucose bodies
- Citrate bodies
Answer ✔ (b) Ketone bodies
D. Pharma • Biochemistry • B. Pharma • General Science • Class 12th • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.7 Energy yielding anaerobic breakdown of glucose yielding lactate, ethanol with some other products is… . ..
- Protein fermentation
- Fat metabolism
- Glucose fermentation
- Nucleic acid fermentation
Answer ✔ (a) Protein fermentation
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Q.8 The biosynthesis of carbohydrates from simpler, non carbohydrate precursors is… . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Gluconeogenesis
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Q.9 An oxidative pathway of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as…
- Phosphogluconate pathway
- Pentose phosphate pathway
- Hexose monophosphate pathway
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.10 The process of breakdown of glycogen to blood glucose is … . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenesis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogenolysis
D. Pharma • Biochemistry • B. Pharma • General Science • Class 12th • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.1 Which of the following is not an aspect of the pathophysiology in disease
- Morphological changes
- Therapeutic treatment
- Causes
- Pathogenesis
Answer ✔ (b) Therapeutic treatment
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Q.2 Which of the following is a cell death
- Apoptosis
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenesis
- Lipolysis
Answer ✔ (a) Apoptosis
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Q.3 Which of the following is physical agent of cell injury?
- Dil. HCl
- Hypoxia
- Viruses
- Hot Surface
Answer ✔ (d) Hot Surface
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Q.4 Hypoxia is occurs in following condition except
- Anaemia
- Thyroid disease
- Carbon monoxide poisoning
- Lung disease
Answer ✔ (b) Thyroid disease
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Q.5 Iatrogenic causes means
- Cell injury by Pharmacist
- Cell injury by Nurse
- Cell injury by Physician
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Cell injury by Physician
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Q.6 Adaptation means reversible change in
- Functions of cell
- Size of cell
- Phenotype of cell
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.7 Which of the above is not a cellular adaptation?
- Hyperplasia
- Hypertrophy
- Hypoplasia
- Metaplasia
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoplasia
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Q.8 Ischemia causes following except
- Increase Cytosolic Calcium
- Detachment of Ribosome
- Decrease in activity of Na pump
- Increase Anaerobic Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (a) Increase Cytosolic Calcium
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Q.9 Loss of Calcium Homeostasis leads to
- Decrease ATP Production
- Nuclear Damage
- Membrane Damage
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.10 Cell mediated immunity is derived from
- T cells
- Monocytes
- Eosinophils
- B cells
Answer ✔ (a) T cells
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Q.1 Redness in inflammation is occur due to
- Vasodilation
- migration of leukocytes
- Increase hydro static pressure
- Vasoconstriction
Answer ✔ (a) Vasodilation
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Q.2 Swelling in inflammation is also called
- Vasodilation of blood vessels in dermis
- Infiltration of neutrophil
- Edema
- Ischemia
Answer ✔ (c) Edema
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Q.3 The edema is most likely the result of
- Increased vascular permeability
- Increased arterial hydrostatic pressure
- Vasodilation
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.4 The cell which lost ability to proliferate is called
- Stable
- Labile
- Permanant
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Stable
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Q.5 Which of the following factors are delay the healing process?
- Movement
- Infection
- Poor blood supply
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.6 EGF stands for
- Edema growth factor
- Enzyme growth factor
- Energy growth factor
- Epithelial growth factor
Answer ✔ (d) Epithelial growth factor
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Q.7 Prostaglandins (PGs) are
- LOX pathway product
- Cytokinines
- Vasoactiveamines
- COX pathway product
Answer ✔ (d) COX pathway product
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Q.8 CD8+ cell is also called
- Cytotoxic T cells
- Helper B cell
- Helper T cell
- Cell None of above
Answer ✔ (a) Cytotoxic T cells
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Q.9 HLA stands for
- Human leukocyte Antigen
- Human leukocyte Antibody
- Human leukocyte Agent
- Human leukotrine Antigen
Answer ✔ (a) Human leukocyte Antigen
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Q.10 What do you mean by autoimmune diseases?
- Increase ability to identify between self & non -self
- Decrease ability to identify between self & non -self
- Hypo activity of immune responses
- Hyper activity of immune responses
Answer ✔ (b) Decrease ability to identify between self & non -self
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Q.1 Which of the following Antibody involve in Type-I ypersensitivity reaction?
- IgG
- IgA
- IgE
- IgM
Answer ✔ (c) IgE
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Q.2 Which immunoglobin is react with allergens?
- IgE
- IgM
- IgA
- IgD
Answer ✔ (a) IgE
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Q.3 Rheumatoid Arthritis is a example of
- Type I Hypersnsitivity
- Type II Hypersnsitivity
- Type III Hypersnsitivity
- Type IV Hypersnsitivity
Answer ✔ (c) Type III Hypersnsitivity
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Q.4 Which of the following part of the HIV is bind to CD4 receptor of of T per cell?
- gp120
- gp12000
- gp12
- gp1200
Answer ✔ (a) gp120
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Q.5 HIV AIDS is a ____ disease.
- Autoimmune
- Hyper immunity
- Immunodeficiency
- All of above
Answer ✔ (c) Immunodeficiency
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Q.6 __________ protein transfer thyroxine & retinol.
- TTR
- AL
- APrP
- TLS
Answer ✔ (a) TTR
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Q.7 Which of the following is not a type of cellular adaptation?
- Hypertrophy
- Superplasia
- Hyperplasia
- Atrophy
Answer ✔ (b) Superplasia
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Q.8 The common cause of atrophy are as follows except
- Decreased work load
- Loss of innovation
- Stimulation of endocrine hormone release
- Inadequate nutrition
Answer ✔ (c) Stimulation of endocrine hormone release
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Q.9 Which enzymes are responsible for removal of free radical
- Superoxide dismutase
- Peroxidase
- Catalase
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.10 Cell swelling is a result of
- Decreased protein synthesis
- Decreased lactic acid secretion
- Decreased activity of sodium pump
- Increased glycogen production
Answer ✔ (c) Decreased activity of sodium pump
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Q.1 Salmonella is spread by
- Flies
- Fomites
- Feces
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.2 The occurrence of typhoid is high in following circumstances except
- Comes in contact with infected person
- Use of narrow spectrum antibiotic
- Living with poor sanitation
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotic
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Q.3 The pathogenesis of typhoid fever depends on following except
- Host immunity
- Virulence
- Infectious species
- Volume of organism
Answer ✔ (d) Volume of organism
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Q.4 The typical incubation period of salmonella is _____ days
- 10-14
- 5-8
- 1-2
- 15-20
Answer ✔ (a) 10-14
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Q.5 Which of the following symptom does not appear during first week of infection in typhoid?
- Diarrhoea in children
- Delirium
- Fever
- Myalgia
Answer ✔ (b) Delirium
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Q.6 Which serological test can be used for diagnosis of typhoid fever?
- ELISA
- PCR
- Widal test
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Widal test
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Q.7 Which antibiotic can be employed for treatment of typhoid fever?
- Tetracycline
- Lincosamide
- Azithromycin
- Ciprofloxacin
Answer ✔ (d) Ciprofloxacin
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Q.8 Which of the following drug cannot be given in bacillary dysentery
- Diphenoxylate
- Ciprofloxacin
- Sulfamethoxazole
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Diphenoxylate
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Q.9 In bacillary dysentery usually patient experience symptoms within hours of ingestion of contaminated food and water
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 96 hours
- 72 hours
Answer ✔ (d) 72 hours
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Q.10 Parkinson disease is marked by a lack of which chemical in the brain?
- Serotonin
- Norepinephrine
- GABA
- Dopamine
Answer ✔ (d) Dopamine
D. Pharma • Health Education • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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