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D. Pharma One Liners
Revision of Pharmacology, some basic points (one liners)
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Pharmaceutics useful terms and definitions (oneLiner Questions)
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Autonomic Nervous System.
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Health Education and Community Pharmacy important terms | One Liners
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Most Important Exam Oriented Questions on Immunity and Immunological products | Pharmacy Exams
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Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy Important Questions (one liners)
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D. Pharma Practice MCQs
Question 1 of 743
Q.1 Alupent is common brand name for-
- Isoprenaline
- Phenylephrine
- Orciprenaline
- Terbutaline
Answer ✔ (b) Phenylephrine
Explanation: Orciprenaline is also known as metaproterenol, is a bronchodilator.
Question 2 of 743
Q.2 Which of these hypnotic possess a muscle relaxant property?
- Paraldehyde
- Phenobarbitone
- Barbitone
- Diazepam
Answer ✔ (d) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam possesses anticonvulasant and skeletal muscle relaxant activity.
Question 3 of 743
Q.3 Paracetamol is excreted as-
- Glucuronide
- Deacetylated product
- Hydroxy derivatives
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Glucuronide
Explanation: Paracetamol is metabolised in the liver (90-95%) and?excreted?in the urine mainly as the glucuronide and sulphate conjugates. less than 5% is excreted as unchanged paracetamol.
Question 4 of 743
Q.4 Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-
- α - receptor
- α and β receptor
- β receptor
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) β receptor
Explanation: Ephinephrine is also known as adrenaline hormone and neurotransmitter. Cardiovascular action of epinephrine is mediated through β receptor.
Question 5 of 743
Q.5 Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-
- Genetic variation
- Idiosyncracy
- Teratogenic effect
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic variation
Explanation: Isoniazid is given in the treatment of TB. Also known as isonicotinylhydrazine. In Africans Metabolism of Isoniazid is slow due genetic variations.
Question 6 of 743
Q.6 Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-
- inhibiting the enzyme
- blocking the receptor
- acting on cell membrane
- non-specific drug action
Answer ✔ (c) acting on cell membrane
Explanation: Phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative, class 1B anti-arrythmic. It act on cell membrane by sodium channel blockade.
Question 7 of 743
Q.7 Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-
- sublingual route
- Oral route
- Intravenous route
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual route
Explanation: Isosorbide Dinitrate is used to prevent chest pain (angina attacks). It works by relaxing and widening blood vessels so blood can flow more easily to the heart. These tablets will not treat an angina attack that has already begun. They may be also used to control heart failure. generally taken as sublingual route (below the tongue) for quick absorption and action in emergency.
Question 8 of 743
Q.8 Methotrexate is a -
- Enzyme inhibitor
- Receptor blocker
- Alkylating agent
- Anti-metabolic
Answer ✔ (d) Anti-metabolic
Explanation: Methotrexate is used in cancer, autoimmune diseases and ectopic pregnancy.
Question 9 of 743
Q.9 Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?
- Tetracycline
- Bacitracin
- Paramomycin
- tobramycin
Answer ✔ (c) Paramomycin
Explanation: Paromomycin is an antimicrobial used to treat a number of parasitic infections including amebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis, and tapeworm infection. It is a first-line treatment for amebiasis or giardiasis during pregnancy. Otherwise it is generally a second line treatment option. It is used by mouth, applied to the skin, or by injection into a muscle.
Question 10 of 743
Q.10 Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-
- Nematodes
- Cestodes
- Trematodes
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Cestodes
Explanation: Niclosamide is a tenacide in the antihelmintic family especially effective against cestodes.
Question 11 of 743
Q.11 Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?
- Amantadine
- Idoxuridine
- Acyclovir
- Haymycin
Answer ✔ (d) Haymycin
Explanation: Haymycin is a polyene antimycotic agent.
Question 12 of 743
Q.12 Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-
- Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
- Inhibiting protein synthesis
- Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
Explanation: Amphotericin B id often used for treatment of systemic fungal nfections.
Question 13 of 743
Q.13 Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-
- Penicillin
- Cephalosporin
- Sulphonamides
- Erythromycin
Answer ✔ (c) Sulphonamides
Explanation: Stevens- Johnson syndrom affects the skin and mucus membrane and these is the common side effects of sulphonamides.
Question 14 of 743
Q.14 Penicillinase resistance penicillin include-
- Penicillin G
- Penicillin V
- Cloxacilline
- Ampicilline
Answer ✔ (c) Cloxacilline
Explanation: Cloxacillin used against staphylococci that produce β- lactamase.
Question 15 of 743
Q.15 Which one of the antibacterial agent is effective against typhoid fever?
- Chloramphenicol
- Penicillin
- Teracycline
- Sulphathiazole
Answer ✔ (a) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Typhoid fever is also called pathogenic fever. Chloramphenicol is a second line agent in the treatment of tetracycline resistant cholera.
Question 16 of 743
Q.16 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-
- Tryptophan
- 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid
- 5-hydroxytryptamine
- Indole
Answer ✔ (c) 5-hydroxytryptamine
Explanation: On decarboxylation, 5-HT gives 5-Hydroxtryptamine (serotonin).
Question 17 of 743
Q.17 Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-
- CNS stimulant
- Vasoconstriction
- Increase in blood pressure
- Release of histamine
Answer ✔ (a) CNS stimulant
Explanation: Morphine is an opiod analgesic, it acts directly on the CNS.
Question 18 of 743
Q.18 Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-
- Atenolol
- Atorvastatin
- Propranalol
- Digoxin
Answer ✔ (b) Atorvastatin
Explanation: Atorvastatin is primarily used for lowering blood cholesterol for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Question 19 of 743
Q.19 Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-
- Tuberculosis
- Diarrhoea
- inflammation and boils
- Leprosy
Answer ✔ (c) inflammation and boils
Explanation: Inchthamol is used for treating some skin disease including eczema and psoriasis.
Question 20 of 743
Q.20 Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-
- Cytosine nucleoside
- Guanosine nucleoside
- Thymidine nucleoside
- Adenine nucleoside
Answer ✔ (b) Guanosine nucleoside
Explanation: Famciclovir is used for the treatment of various herpes virus infections, most commonly for herpes zoster.
Question 21 of 743
Q.1 Vginal sponge, means of family planning belongs to-
- Physical method
- Chemical method
- Hormonal method
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (a) Physical method
Explanation: Vaginal sponge is a methos of delivering a spermicide in cervix and vagina. It provides physical barrier between ovum and sperm.
Question 22 of 743
Q.2 Mala - D (oral pills) contains which of the following hormone?
- Oestrogen
- Progestogen
- Both (a) and (b)
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Mala -D is a combined oral contraceptive pill with the low estrogen and progestogen content which provides good control on menstrual cycle.
Question 23 of 743
Q.3 Water borne disease is-
- Tuberculosis
- cholera
- measles
- influenza
Answer ✔ (b) cholera
Explanation: Cholera is a water borne disease. This infects intestine and caused by Vibrio cholra.
Question 24 of 743
Q.4 In diphtheria the causetive organism affects-
- upper respiratory tract
- Intestine
- brain
- lungs
Answer ✔ (a) upper respiratory tract
Explanation: Diphteria is a upper respiratory tract infectious disease caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin (poison). It is the toxin that can cause people to get very sick. Diphtheria bacteria spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing.
Question 25 of 743
Q.5 Elisa test is used for diagnosis of-
- Tuberculosis
- Typhoid
- AIDS
- Rabies
Answer ✔ (c) AIDS
Explanation: The Elisa test is used to determine to know antibodies related too certain infection conditions. Elisa test is used for AIDS Diagnosis.
Question 26 of 743
Q.6 In liver, Glucose is stored as-
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Sucrose
- Lactose
Answer ✔ (b) Glycogen
Explanation: Glucose is stored in liver as glycogen, which is multibranched polysachharide. Glucose is the monomer unit of Glycogen. Starch, Sucrose and Lactose are borken down to glucose in the process of digestion. Fructose is also isomerised to glucose.
Question 27 of 743
Q.7 The reserve food material of a plant is-
- Cellulose
- Starch
- Glucose
- Pectine
Answer ✔ (a) Cellulose
Explanation: Cellulose is the reserve food material of plants. It is atype of biofuel produced from lignocelluloses.
Question 28 of 743
Q.8 Measles is caused by-
- Variola virus
- Rubeola virus
- Varicella zoster
- Herpes virus
Answer ✔ (b) Rubeola virus
Explanation: Maesles is caused by rubella virus. It is an infectious disease of respiratory system, immune system, and skin caused by virus especially paromyxo virus.
Question 29 of 743
Q.9 Removal of disease from universe is-
- Eradication
- Prevention
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Answer ✔ (a) Eradication
Explanation: Eradication of infectious disease is the reduction of the global prevalence in the humans or animals host to zero.
Question 30 of 743
Q.10 Chlorhexidine is used as-
- Disinfectant
- Bacteriostatic
- Antiseptic
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Antiseptic
Explanation: Chlorhexidine salt dissociates and releases negative charged ions at the physiological pH. It is active against the both gram positive and gram negative microorganisms.
Question 31 of 743
Q.11 Malaria is transmitted through -
- Female culex musquito
- Female housefly
- Female anopheles mosquito
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Female anopheles mosquito
Explanation: Female anopheles mosquito spreads malaria and its parasite traget liver to mature and reproduce.
Question 32 of 743
Q.12 The Popular IUCD is-
- Condom
- Copper T
- Foam tablet
- Cream
Answer ✔ (b) Copper T
Explanation: An intrauterine device (IUD or coil) is a small contraceptive device, often t-shaped containing erither copper or levonorgestrel, which is inserted into the uterus.
Question 33 of 743
Q.13 The intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron is-
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin A
Answer ✔ (a) Vitamin B12
Explanation: Vitamin B12 is the intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron (determines how much iron is needed for a healthy blood and cells).It is important for normal blood cells and nerves. Vitamin C Improves the absorption of iron from stomach. follates (vitamin B9 ) needed for the formation of helathy blood cells (RBCs).
Question 34 of 743
Q.14 Which of the following has the highest amount of polyunsaturated fatty acid?
- sunflower oil
- Ground nut oil
- Palm Oil
- Soyabean oil
Answer ✔ (a) sunflower oil
Explanation: Sunflower oil is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids used as an emollient.
Question 35 of 743
Q.15 Which of the following is the carbohydrate of animal origin?
- Glucose
- Sucrose
- starch
- Glycogen
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen is the animal origin carbohydrate, it is multibranched polysachhride.
Question 36 of 743
Q.16 How much retinol is equal to one I.U.?
- 0.3 mcg
- 0.6 mcg
- 1.2 mcg
- 2 mcg
Answer ✔ (a) 0.3 mcg
Explanation: Retinol is a diterpenoid, other form of vitamin A. Deficiency of Retinol (Vitamin A) causes night blindness. 1 international unit (I.U.) of retinol contains 0.3 mcg of retinol.
Question 37 of 743
Q.17 leprosy mainly affects-
- muscles and bones
- nerves and skin
- testes and eye
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: leprosy mainly affects skin and nerves leading to the disfunction of eyes, bones, muscles nd othe sensary organs.
Question 38 of 743
Q.18 Which is not a live attenuated vaccine?
- BCG
- OPV
- measles
- pertusis
Answer ✔ (d) pertusis
Explanation: Pertussis vaccine is a vaccine that protects against whooping cough. There are two main types: whole-cell vaccines and acellular vaccines.
Question 39 of 743
Q.19 In general, which foods are considered to be high in vitamin K and should be avoided in large amounts when on warfarin dose?
- Citrus fruits
- Dairy products
- bread and cereals
- Green leafy vegatables
Answer ✔ (d) Green leafy vegatables
Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are nutritional power houses filled with vitamins, minerals, and polynutrients.
Question 40 of 743
Q.20 Tocoferol also known as-
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin K
Answer ✔ (b) Vitamin E
Explanation: Tocoferols and tocotrienols are related compounds have vitamin activity and known as vitamin E compounds. These are fat soluble antioxidants and also have many other functions in the body.
Question 41 of 743
Q.1 The term transactions in business referes to-
- Exchange of goods
- goods and services
- transfer of goods
- Goods and sale
Answer ✔ (c) transfer of goods
Explanation: Transaction referes to transfer of goods. The buyer and seller often involved in the exchange of items of value such as goods, information, services and money.
Question 42 of 743
Q.2 Channel of distribution is zero level in-
- Manufacturers → physician → consumer
- Manufacturer → wholesaler → physician → patient
- Manufacturer → retailer → patient
- Manufacturer → patient
Answer ✔ (d) Manufacturer → patient
Explanation: zero level channels have no intermediates.
Question 43 of 743
Q.3 Type of relationship of street vendor is-
- small scale fixed retailer
- large scale retailer
- Itinerant retailer
- Pertinent retailer
Answer ✔ (c) Itinerant retailer
Explanation: The trem itinerant retailer shall include person selling goods door to door as well as person selling goods from a mobile cart, trailer or similar devices.
Question 44 of 743
Q.4 OTC drugs are-
- Ethical drugs
- Prescription drugs
- Ethical and prescription drugs
- non-prescription drugs
Answer ✔ (d) non-prescription drugs
Explanation: OTC drugs are over the counter medicines, sold directly to a consumer wothout a prescripton.
Question 45 of 743
Q.5 Safety stock is used for -
- For protection of store from fire or thefts
- As an insuarance claim during emergency
- for emergency to meet unforeseen demands
- to increase the market value of product
Answer ✔ (c) for emergency to meet unforeseen demands
Explanation: safety stock is also known as buffer stock and its is used in emergency to meet extra demands.
Question 46 of 743
Q.6 ICICI stands for -
- Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
- Inductrial and Commercial Investment Corporation of India
- Indian Corporation of Investments and Commercial Institution
- Industrial Corporation of Investment and Credit Income
Answer ✔ (a) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
Explanation: ICICI stands for Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India.
Question 47 of 743
Q.7 Which one of the following will not apear as source of fund in flow statement?
- Increase in share capital
- increase in working capital
- increase in secured loans
- funds from operation
Answer ✔ (b) increase in working capital
Explanation: Increase in working capital will not appear as source of fund in flow statement.
Question 48 of 743
Q.8 Inventories comprise of-
- Raw material
- General store machinery
- Finished products
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Inventory refers to the goods and material that a business holds for the ultimate purpose of resale/repair.
Question 49 of 743
Q.9 A leader who permits the members of the group to do whatever they want to do whatever they want to do may be classified into-
- Democratic leader
- Laissez - Faire leader
- Herzberg leader
- social leader
Answer ✔ (b) Laissez - Faire leader
Explanation: The Laissez - Faire leadership style is where all the rights and powers to make decision is fully given to the worker.
Question 50 of 743
Q.10 Advertisement and salesmanship help to remove the-
- Hindrance of place
- Hindrance of persons
- Hindrance of finance
- Unawareness
Answer ✔ (d) Unawareness
Explanation: advertisement and salesmanship help to remove the unawareness.
Question 51 of 743
Q.11 Business is an-
- non-economic activity
- economic activity
- both economic and non-economic activity
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) economic activity
Explanation: Business is also known as Enterprise or a firm. It is an economic activity.
Question 52 of 743
Q.12 Partners who are neither entitled to take part in the management nor do they invest and get a share of profits are-
- silent partners
- Prtners by estoppel
- Nominal partner
- Limited partner
Answer ✔ (a) silent partners
Explanation: Silent partners do not involved in a business.
Question 53 of 743
Q.13 The oldest form of business organisation is-
- Joint stock company
- Sole Proprietorship
- Partnership
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Sole Proprietorship
Explanation: Sole or single properietorship is considered as the simplest as well as the oldest form of business ownership.
Question 54 of 743
Q.14 The buying and selling of pharmaceuticals items for making profit is called-
- Trading
- Commerce
- Direct service
- Miscellaneous
Answer ✔ (a) Trading
Explanation: Trading is the value added function of the economic process.
Question 55 of 743
Q.15 Warehousing is done to save-
- Time
- Place
- Cost
- Labour requirements
Answer ✔ (b) Place
Explanation: Warehousing is done primarily to save place.
Question 56 of 743
Q.16 The maximum number of members in public limited company is-
- 20
- 30
- 50
- unlimited
Answer ✔ (d) unlimited
Explanation: There is no restriction for maximum number of members in a public limited company.
Question 57 of 743
Q.17 In a mail order business goods are sold on-
- cash
- credit
- both cash and credit
- Instalment basis
Answer ✔ (a) cash
Explanation: In a mail order business goods are sold on cash and it can be done exclusively from home.
Question 58 of 743
Q.18 Coding of items helps in-
- Handling of store items
- Standardization of drug
- Reduction of items
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Handling of store items
Explanation: coding of items helps in handling of store items.
Question 59 of 743
Q.19 The layout of drug store depends upon-
- Pharmacist/proprietor
- Rules specified in shedule N
- Availability of space
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Rules specified in shedule N
Explanation: Schedule N includes list of minimum equipment for the efficient running of a pharmacy.
Question 60 of 743
Q.20 ABC analysis is based on-
- Unit price material
- consumption value of material
- storage value of material
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) consumption value of material
Explanation: ABC analysis is the business term used to define inventory chategorisation technique often used in material management. It is also known as selective inventory control. It depends on consumption value of materials.
Question 61 of 743
Q.21 Which of these data of marketing research is more reliable?
- Primary data
- secondary data
- both primary and secondary data
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Primary data
Explanation: Marketing research is the process or set of process that link the consumers, customers and end users to the marketer through information. Primary data is more reliable for marketing research.
Question 62 of 743
Q.22 Location which attracts the customer for shopping may be termed as-
- Interceptive location
- Geographic location
- Generative Location
- Sucipent location
Answer ✔ (c) Generative Location
Explanation: People are attracted to generative location for the purpose of shopping thus it generates business. E.g. shopping centers, out laying retail stores, full line department stores.
Question 63 of 743
Q.23 Bank provides finance to bussiness for-
- Long term
- Short term
- medium term
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (d) Any of the above
Explanation: finance deals with the allocation of assets. Bank provides finance to the business for various length of time.
Question 64 of 743
Q.24 Fixed rate of divident is given to-
- Equity share holders
- Preference share holders
- Differed shares
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preference share holders
Explanation: Fixed rate of divident is given to preferance share holders.
Question 65 of 743
Q.25 Each transaction has double effect is shown by-
- Dual aspect concept
- Realization concept
- cost concept
- Money measurement concept
Answer ✔ (a) Dual aspect concept
Explanation: dual aspect concept also known as duality principle, it is a fundamental convention of accounting.
Question 66 of 743
Q.26 What is the role of shareholders in a company?
- Owners
- Creditors
- Managers
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Owners
Explanation: shareholders are the owners of the company. They have different percentage of ownership (share).
Question 67 of 743
Q.27 Plant and machinery will appear on-
- Debit side of balance sheet
- Debit side of profit and loss account
- Credit side of balance sheet
- Credit side of profit and loss account
Answer ✔ (a) Debit side of balance sheet
Explanation: In a balance sheet, plant and machinery are placed on the debit side.
Question 68 of 743
Q.28 Buying of items from foreign country is called-
- Export
- Import
- Enteport
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Import
Explanation: Import is buying of items from foreign country.
Question 69 of 743
Q.29 Trial balance helps in preparing-
- Trading account
- profit and loss account
- Balance sheet
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Trial balance checks the sum of debits against the sum of credits.
Question 70 of 743
Q.30 A chemist shop deals only in drugs so it is an example of-
- General store
- Single line store
- Street stall
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Single line store
Explanation: Single line store is also known as speciality store.
Question 71 of 743
Q.1 Proteins are precipitated by-
- water
- sodium hydroxide
- formaldehyde
- Trichloro acetic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Trichloro acetic acid
Explanation: Trichloro aetic acid is widely used in downstream processing of Biological products in order to ccentrate the protein and purify them from vaarious contaminants.
Question 72 of 743
Q.2 The major site of fat digestion is-
- Large intestine
- small intestine
- Kidney
- Liver
Answer ✔ (b) small intestine
Explanation: small intestine, is the major site of fat digestion. Small intestine is the part of GIT where digestionand absorption is takes place.
Question 73 of 743
Q.3 Ninhydrin oxidatively decarboxylates α-amino acids to-
- CO2
- H2O,CO2
- CO2,NH3
- NH3
Answer ✔ (c) CO2,NH3
Explanation: Oxydative decarboxylation reaction reaction is oxidation reaction in which a carboxylate group is removed forming CO2 and NH3.
Question 74 of 743
Q.4 one example of glycoside is-
- Cholesterol
- Sphingomyelin
- Lecithin
- Gangliosides
Answer ✔ (d) Gangliosides
Explanation: Gangliosides belongs to the glycosides. Ganglioside is a molecule composed of glycolipid with one or more sialic acid linked to sugar chain.
Question 75 of 743
Q.5 Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of-
- Succinate
- Fumerate
- Oxaloacetate
- Aspaartate
Answer ✔ (a) Succinate
Explanation: malonate is the competitive inhibitor of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. Malonate binds to the active site of the enzyme without reacting, and so competes with succinate, the usual substrate of the Enzyme.
Question 76 of 743
Q.6 Alkaline phosphate level is increases in which disease?
- Rickets
- Leukemia
- Cardial infection
- Pancreatic deficiency
Answer ✔ (a) Rickets
Explanation: Alkaline phosphate (ALP) is a hydrolase enzyme and responsible for removing phosphate groups from many types of molecules. Bone specific alkaline phosphatase isoenzyme is elevated as a result of increased osteoblastic activity. The highest total ALP values have been attributed to an increased bone isoenzyme level due to Paget disease or rickets/osteomalasia.
Question 77 of 743
Q.7 What are the chief storage sites for manganese in the body?
- Kidney
- Muscles
- Stomach
- Heart
Answer ✔ (a) Kidney
Explanation: Manganese (Mn++) is a trace mineral helps the body to convert protein and fat to energy. It also promotes normal bone growth, helps maintain healthy reproductive, nervous, and immune systems, and is involved in blood sugar regulation.In addition mangnese is involved in blood clotting and the formation of cartilage and lubricating fluid in the joints. Mangnese is predominantly stored in the bones, liver, Kidney, and pancreas.
Question 78 of 743
Q.8 Microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs due to deficiency of-
- Cu++
- CO2
- Zinc
- Iron
Answer ✔ (d) Iron
Explanation: In microcytic anemia the size of red blood cells decreases due to less hemoglobin. deficiency of Iron is the most common cause of microcytic anemia.
Question 79 of 743
Q.9 The first amino acid during protein synthesis is-
- Arginine
- leucine
- valine
- methionine
Answer ✔ (d) methionine
Explanation: Methionine is specified by the codon AUG, which is also known as the start codon. Consequently, methionine is the first amino acid to dock in the ribosome during the synthesis of proteins. Protein synthesis requires the translation of nucleotide sequence into amino acid sequences.
Question 80 of 743
Q.10 Milky type colour of urine is due to the presence of-
- Albumins
- haemoglobin
- Fatty acid
- Nephritis
Answer ✔ (c) Fatty acid
Explanation: milky urine can rarely be due to chyluria (lymph fluid resuting from a communication between the lymphatic system and the urinary tract. The preasence of fatty acids in urine results urinary tract infections. Cloudy or milky urine is a sign of a urinary tract infection, which may also cause a bad smell. Milky urine may also be caused by bacteria, crystals, fat, white or red blood cells, or mucus in the urine
Question 81 of 743
Q.11 FAD and FMN are coenzyme form of-
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Ascorbic acid
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Riboflavin
Explanation: Riboflavin (vitamin B2) is a cofactor that can carry one or two eletrons. It is a component of two major coenzymes FAD and FMN.
Question 82 of 743
Q.12 Which monosaccharide unit constitutes Milk Sugar?
- Galactose and glucose
- 2 galactose units
- 2 glucose units
- Fructose and galactose
Answer ✔ (a) Galactose and glucose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide suger composed of galactose and glucose. 2.8% lactose is found in sugar and also called as milk sugar.
Question 83 of 743
Q.13 The sugars formed as a result of sucrose digestion are-
- Fructose and glucose
- maltose and glucose
- glucose and glucose
- galactose and glucose
Answer ✔ (a) Fructose and glucose
Explanation: Fructose is a simple monosaccharide, it bonded to glucose to form the disaccharide, sucrose. Frucrose and glucose have the same molecular formula but Fructose is a ketose sugar anf glucose is a aldose sugar.
Question 84 of 743
Q.14 The processing of blood clotting is initiated by-
- Prothrombin
- Fibrinogen
- Thrombin
- Thromboplastin
Answer ✔ (a) Prothrombin
Explanation: Prothrombin is used to determine the clotting tendency of blood in the measure of warfarin dosage, liver damage and vit K status.
Question 85 of 743
Q.15 Intracellular substance present in connective tissue is-
- Fatty in nature
- Muco polysaccharide
- Protein
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Muco polysaccharide
Explanation: Heparin is present as intracellular sustance in connectice tissue is a mucopolysacchride. Orther polyscaharides associated with connective tissue are Hyluronic acid and chondriotin sulphuric acid.
Question 86 of 743
Q.16 Multiple forms of same enzymes are called-
- Coenzyme
- Apoenzymes
- Isoenzymes
- Haloenzymes
Answer ✔ (c) Isoenzymes
Explanation: Enzymes that are differ from amino acid sequence but catalyze the same chemical reaction are known as Isoenzymes.
Question 87 of 743
Q.17 Treatment of glycogen with iodine shows which colour?
- Violet
- Green
- Red
- Yellow
Answer ✔ (c) Red
Explanation: The colour depends on the 3D structure of the polysaccharide. Starch is coiled structure which turns blue with iodine solution, whereas glycogen which is a branched molecule turns red/brown with iodine solution.
Question 88 of 743
Q.18 Which alcohol is a constituent of flavin coenzyme?
- inositol
- xylitol
- Ribitol
- Mannitol
Answer ✔ (c) Ribitol
Explanation: Ribitol is a crystalline pentose alcohol formed by the reduction of ribose. It is naturally occuring from the plants and also contribute the structure of riboflavin and flavin mononuleotide.
Question 89 of 743
Q.19 In TCA, oxaloacetate is formed from-
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- succinate
- Malate
Answer ✔ (d) Malate
Explanation: In TCA (tricarboxylic acid ) cycle in the presence of enzyme malate-dehydrogenase, malate is converted to oxaloacetate. Again oxaloacetate reacts with acetyle CoA and cycle continues. Total 30 ATPs fromed from TCA in each reaction of glycolysis (Glycolysis generates two molecules of Acetyle CoA).
Question 90 of 743
Q.20 Net ATPs formed in the β oxidation of palmitic acid?
- 100
- 30
- 50
- 129
Answer ✔ (d) 129
Explanation: Palmitic acid (16 + 1 carbons) is a fatty acid and it can form 8 acetyl CoA units. For this it must complete 7 cycles of β oxidation ( each cycle removes 2 carbon atoms from fatty acid chain in the form of acetyl CoA). Each cyce of beta oxidation generates 5 ATPs. Each TCA cycle generates 12 ATPs (from acetyl CoA).
Total 7 cycles of beta oxidation = 7 × 5 = 35 ATPs.
Total 8 cycles of TCA = 8 × 12 = 96 ATPs. total ATPs = 96 +35 = 131.
2 ATP molecues utiised in the β-oxidation. net molecules obtained from palmitic acid →129 ATPs.
Question 91 of 743
Q.21 Edman's reagent is chemically-
- Phenyl isothiocyanate
- Phenyl chloride
- Phenyl bromide
- Aniline
Answer ✔ (a) Phenyl isothiocyanate
Explanation: Phenylisothiocyanate (PITC) enables the sequential degradation of amino acid in a polypeptide chain.
Question 92 of 743
Q.22 The main ring structure is present in tryptophan is-
- Indole
- imidazole
- furan
- thiophane
Answer ✔ (a) Indole
Explanation: Tryptophan consists of Indole ring.
Question 93 of 743
Q.23 Double helix structure of DNA was proposed by-
- Lewis
- Chargaff's
- James Watson and crick
- Mandel
Answer ✔ (c) James Watson and crick
Question 94 of 743
Q.24 The smallest amino acid is-
- Alanine
- Glycine
- Valine
- Phenylalanine
Answer ✔ (b) Glycine
Explanation: Glycine is the smallest amino acid with only H as its residue.
Question 95 of 743
Q.25 Xanthine is converted to uric acid in the presence of enzyme-
- Xanthine oxidase
- xanthine reductase
- xanthine transferase
- xanthine isomerase
Answer ✔ (a) Xanthine oxidase
Explanation: by the action of xanthine oxidase enzyme, xanthine converted to uric acid.
Question 96 of 743
Q.26 Pantohenic acid is also known as-
- vitamin B1
- vitamin B5
- vitamin B2
- Vitamin B12
Answer ✔ (b) vitamin B5
Explanation: Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) is a water soluble vitamin of B-complex class.
Question 97 of 743
Q.27 Cholesterol is one of the important factor in the synthesis of-
- Bile acids
- hormones
- vitamin D
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Cholesterol is important for the biosynthesis of Bile acids, hormones, and vitamin D.
Question 98 of 743
Q.28 The cyclic fatty acid, Chaulmoogric acid is used in the treatment of-
- T.B.
- ulcers
- Leprosy
- Goiter
Answer ✔ (c) Leprosy
Explanation: Chalmoogric is a tree in acanthaceae family, the oil from its seeds have been widely used for the treatment of leprosy (a disease caused by bacteria) in the Indian and chinese traditional medicines.
Question 99 of 743
Q.29 Cynocobalamine is the metabolic effect of-
- Bacillus pumulis
- Streptomyces griseus
- Bacillus subtilis
- Bacillus sterothermophilus
Answer ✔ (b) Streptomyces griseus
Explanation: Streptomyces griseus is a species of bacteria. It is gram positive bacterium and was the source of industrial production of vitamin B12.
Question 100 of 743
Q.30 Menke's disease is related to-
- deficiency of sulphur
- deficiency of zinc
- defect in transport of copper
- defect in transport of zinc
Answer ✔ (c) defect in transport of copper
Explanation: Mnkel's disease (MNK) is also called copper transport disease, steely hair disease, kinky hair disease, is a disorder that affects copper level in the body, leading to copper deficiency. It is an x-linked recessive disorder, and is therefore considerably more common in males.
Question 101 of 743
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Question 102 of 743
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Question 103 of 743
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Question 104 of 743
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Question 105 of 743
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Question 106 of 743
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Question 107 of 743
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 108 of 743
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Question 109 of 743
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Question 110 of 743
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Question 111 of 743
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Question 112 of 743
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Question 113 of 743
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 114 of 743
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Question 115 of 743
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Question 116 of 743
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Question 117 of 743
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Question 118 of 743
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Question 119 of 743
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Question 120 of 743
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Question 121 of 743
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Question 122 of 743
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
Question 123 of 743
Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Question 124 of 743
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Question 125 of 743
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Question 126 of 743
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Question 127 of 743
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Question 128 of 743
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Question 129 of 743
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Question 130 of 743
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Question 131 of 743
Q.1 The term 'Pharmacognosy' was coined by-
- Pelletier
- Sertuener
- Stars and Otto
- Seydler
Answer ✔ (d) Seydler
Explanation: In 1811 seydler used the term in his work titled Analects Pharma Cognostica.
Question 132 of 743
Q.2 The source of Indian acacia is-
- Acacia arabica
- Gelidium amansii
- Astragalus gummifur
- Sterculia urens
Answer ✔ (a) Acacia arabica
Explanation: Acacia contains gallic acid, catechin, chlorogenic acid and gallolyated falvan-3,4-diole.
Question 133 of 743
Q.3 Ashwagandha is common name for-
- Wthania somniferum
- Holarrhena antidysentrica
- Bacopa moneira
- Centella asiatica
Answer ✔ (a) Wthania somniferum
Explanation: Withania somnifera, Indian ginseng is a plant in Solanaceae or nightshade family.
Question 134 of 743
Q.4 Quinine and quinidine is differ in-
- Chemical structure
- solubility
- In rotating the plane of polarized light
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) In rotating the plane of polarized light
Explanation: Quinine is levo isomer while quinidine is dextro isomer.
Question 135 of 743
Q.5 Cinchona belongs to family-
- Rutaceae
- Apocynaceae
- Rubiaceae
- Lauraceae
Answer ✔ (c) Rubiaceae
Explanation: Cinchona is a genus of about 38 species in the family Rubiaceae.
Question 136 of 743
Q.6 Which one of these is called a Indian tobacco?
- Lobelia
- Nicotina
- Cocca leaves
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Lobelia
Explanation: Lobelia is also called Indian Tobacco is used as herbal remedy for respiratory condition such as asthma, bronchitis.
Question 137 of 743
Q.7 Sarpagandha is related to-
- Rauwolfia
- Arjuna
- Nux-vomica
- Physostigma
Answer ✔ (a) Rauwolfia
Explanation: Rauwolfia serpentina, commonly known as Indian Snak root or sarpagandha, contain ajmaline, reserpine extra.
Question 138 of 743
Q.8 Deadly night shade plant is related to-
- Hyoscyamus niger
- Datura stramonium
- Belladonna
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Belladonna
Explanation: Atropa belladonna, commonly known as deadly night shade, is a perennial herbaceous plants in the family Solanaceae.
Question 139 of 743
Q.9 Which one of these reagent is used to indicate the presence of emetine?
- Picric acid
- Potassium chlorate
- potassium bismuth iodide
- Iodine in pottassium iodide solution
Answer ✔ (b) Potassium chlorate
Explanation: Emetine is shaken with water and small amount of HCL. To the filtrate pottasium chlorate is added. It goves a yellow colour changing to red.
Question 140 of 743
Q.10 Nux-vomica seed belongs to the family-
- Rubiaceae
- Loganiaceae
- Papaveraceae
- Apocynaceae
Answer ✔ (b) Loganiaceae
Explanation: Nux-vomica is also known as poison nut and quaker buttons.
Question 141 of 743
Q.11 Which one of these alkaloids is volatile in nature?
- Narcotine
- Papaverine
- Nicotine
- Thebaine
Answer ✔ (a) Narcotine
Explanation: Due to volatile nature of narcotine it is extracted out by steam distillation process.
Question 142 of 743
Q.12 Keller-Killiani test is specified for-
- Aglycon part of digitalis glycosides
- Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
- Both Glycon and Aglycon part
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
Explanation: Cardiac glycoside + CH3COOH + H2SO4 +FeCl3 → brown colour.
Question 143 of 743
Q.13 which one of these is adulterant of digitalis leaves?
- Verbasscum thapsus
- Digitalis lutea
- Digitalis thapsi
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Verbasscum thapsus
Explanation: The leaves of Verbascum thapsus belonging to the family Scrophulareae are usually mixed with digitalis leaves which may be identified and distinguised by the abundant presence of huge woody and branched candelabra trichomes. Pemula vulgaris is another adultrant.
Question 144 of 743
Q.14 Revand chini is common name for-
- Aloe
- Rhubarb
- Cascara
- Cinnamon
Answer ✔ (b) Rhubarb
Explanation: Revand Chini is the common name for Rhubarb (Rheum emodi) in Hindi language.
Question 145 of 743
Q.15 Amylum is synonym for-
- starch
- cellulose
- sodium alginate
- isaphgol mucilage
Answer ✔ (a) starch
Explanation: The word 'starch' means to stiffen. The 'amylum' is dried from greek greek word 'amylon' means not ground at a mill.
Question 146 of 743
Q.16 The marmelosin is constituent of-
- Agar
- Acacia gum
- Bael
- Karaya gum
Answer ✔ (c) Bael
Explanation: Bael contains shikimmianine, lupeol, cineol, marmelosin, etc.
Question 147 of 743
Q.17 Urginea maritimma is used as-
- Purgative
- Astringent
- Cardiotonic
- Anti-infective
Answer ✔ (c) Cardiotonic
Explanation: due to presence of Scillarene B, it is used as cardiotonic. It also has diuretic and expectorant actions.
Question 148 of 743
Q.18 Vasaka is used as-
- Expectorant
- sedative
- stimulant
- cardiac tonic
Answer ✔ (a) Expectorant
Explanation: vasaka shows bonchodilatory activity due to presence of alkaloids vasicine and vasicinone.
Question 149 of 743
Q.19 Camphor is obtained from which plant?
- Eucalyptus globulus
- Cinnammonnum camphora
- Chenopodium ambrosoids
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Cinnammonnum camphora
Explanation: Camphor is obtained from the wood of Camphor laurel (Cinnammonnum camphora).
Question 150 of 743
Q.20 Cymbopogon citratus belongs to the family-
- Graminae
- Lauraceae
- Myrtaceae
- Rubiaceae
Answer ✔ (a) Graminae
Explanation: Cymbopogon citratus, commony known as lemon grass, is tropical plants from southeast Asia. It belongs to the family Graminae or poaceae.
Question 151 of 743
Q.21 Terpentine oil contains mainly-
- citral
- α-pinene
- Limonene
- Phellandrene
Answer ✔ (b) α-pinene
Explanation: Terpentine oil contains mainly terpenes, alpha-pinene and beta-pinene with lesser amounts of camphene dipentene and terpinolene.
Question 152 of 743
Q.22 Peppermint oil is synonym for-
- Mentha oil
- Chenopodium oil
- Cardamom oil
- Lemon oil
Answer ✔ (a) Mentha oil
Explanation: Mentha oil obtained by steam distillation of mentha arensis leaves.
Question 153 of 743
Q.23 Which part of the Dill fruit contains oil?
- Entire fruit
- Endosperm
- Vittae
- Mericarp
Answer ✔ (c) Vittae
Explanation: Dill fruits are oval compressed, winged about one tenth wide, with three longitudinal ridges on the bark and three dark lines or oil cells (vittae) between them and two on the flat surface.
Question 154 of 743
Q.24 Pale and black catechu are differentiated on the basis of presence/ absence of-
- Catechin
- Quercetin
- Gambier fluorecin
- Gums
Answer ✔ (c) Gambier fluorecin
Explanation: Alcoholic extract of the drug when treated with NaOH and light petrolium ether, Pale catechu shows green fluorescence due to the presence of Gambier fluorecin.
Question 155 of 743
Q.25 Triterpenoid saponins are present in-
- Arjuna Bark
- Black catechu
- Bahera
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Arjuna Bark
Explanation: The terpenoidal saponins are arjunic acid, arjunolic acid, and arjugenins.
Question 156 of 743
Q.26 Pungency of chilies is due to the presence of?
- Capsaicin
- Capsanthin
- Carotene
- Pungent protein
Answer ✔ (a) Capsaicin
Explanation: pungency is due to the group of coumpounds named capsicinoids.
Question 157 of 743
Q.27 Turmeric possess saffron colour due to presence of-
- Curcumin
- Turmerone
- Curcumens
- Phellandrene
Answer ✔ (a) Curcumin
Explanation: Turmeric contains group of compounds called curcuminoids, which includes curcumin (diferucoylmehane), dimethoxycurcumin, and bisdimethoxycurcumin. Curcumin impart saffron colour to it.
Question 158 of 743
Q.28 Free cinnamic acid is present in-
- Colophony
- Storax
- Asafoetida
- Balsam of tolu
Answer ✔ (d) Balsam of tolu
Explanation: The balsam contains a fairly large amount of benzyl and cinnamylester of benzoic acid and cinnamic acid.
Question 159 of 743
Q.29 Bees wax mainly contains-
- Palmitin
- Myricin
- Stearin
- Cerotic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Myricin
Explanation: Myricin is present in beeswax.
Question 160 of 743
Q.30 Silk fibres obtained from-
- seeds of goissypium
- Cacoons of Bombyx mori
- Synthetic source
- Corchorus cupsularin
Answer ✔ (b) Cacoons of Bombyx mori
Explanation: Silk is natural protein fiber, some forms of which can be wooven into textiles. The best known type of silk is obtained from cocoons of larvae of the mulberry silkworm, Bombyx mori.
Question 161 of 743
Q.1 Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:
- Sterility test
- Active ingredient
- Clarity test
- Pyrogen test
Answer ✔ (d) Pyrogen test
Explanation: Ophthalmic solutions are evaluated for Sterility, Clarity and Active ingredients not for Pyrogen testing
Question 162 of 743
Q.2 Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form
- Diclofenace
- Nicotine
- Carbamazepine
- Fentanyl
Answer ✔ (c) Carbamazepine
Explanation: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug and not suitable for controlled release dosage form
Question 163 of 743
Q.3 Kries test is related to
- Skin sensitivity studies
- Identification test of resin
- Rancidity index
- Identification test of aloin
Answer ✔ (c) Rancidity index
Explanation: Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.
Question 164 of 743
Q.4 Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to
- Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
- Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
- Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
- Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory
Answer ✔ (a) Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
Explanation: Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first line medication for treatment of tuberculosis.
Question 165 of 743
Q.5 Which one of the following drug's tablet should be stored in the closely tight container to prevent loss of potency?
- Phenytoin
- Propranolol
- Nitroglycerine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Nitroglycerine
Explanation: nitroglycerine is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid most commonly produced by treating glycerol with white fuming nitric acid. It should be protected form light and air exposure.
Question 166 of 743
Q.6 Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is
- Nordiazepam
- Oxazepam
- Demoxipam
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Demoxipam
Explanation: Demoxipam is a benzodiazipine derivative. it has anticonvulsant properties.
Question 167 of 743
Q.7 Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the
- Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
- Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
- Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
- Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis
Answer ✔ (c) Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
Explanation: Aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus (lemon grass) are used in soaps, beauty products, insect repellents etc.
Question 168 of 743
Q.8 Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of
- Obsessive-compulsive disorders
- Schizophrenia
- Anxiety
- Mania
Answer ✔ (c) Anxiety
Question 169 of 743
Q.9 Praracetamol is a derivative of:
- p-amino phenol
- Aryl acetic acid
- Aryl propionic acid
- Anthranilic acid
Answer ✔ (a) p-amino phenol
Question 170 of 743
Q.10 Efficiency of ball mill depends on
- Rotational speed
- Density of balls
- Volume occupied by the balls
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 171 of 743
Q.11 Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation
- Flow properties
- Chemical stability
- Therapeutic effectiveness
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 172 of 743
Q.12 The phosphate antiviral agent is
- Ribavirin
- Didanosine
- Ganciclovir
- Foscarnet
Answer ✔ (d) Foscarnet
Question 173 of 743
Q.13 side effect of drugs is arise due to its intraction to cellular molucules other than the target. these effect can be minimized by their:
- specificity
- Solubility
- Affinity
- Hydrophobicity
Answer ✔ (a) specificity
Question 174 of 743
Q.14 Which statement is not correct about levodopa?
- In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
- It is a prodrug
- Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
- Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Answer ✔ (d) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Question 175 of 743
Q.15 Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is
- Ethyle cellulose
- cellulose acetate
- cellulose nitrate
- cellulose acetobutyrate
Answer ✔ (c) cellulose nitrate
Question 176 of 743
Q.16 Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?
- Phosphoramide mustard
- Acrolein
- Aldophosphamide
- 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide
Answer ✔ (a) Phosphoramide mustard
Question 177 of 743
Q.17 The pH of tears is about
- 6.0
- 8.0
- 7.4
- 9.0
Answer ✔ (c) 7.4
Question 178 of 743
Q.18 Food poisoning is caused by :
- Clostridium tetani
- Clostridium welchi
- Clostridium botulinium
- Clostridium septicum
Answer ✔ (c) Clostridium botulinium
Question 179 of 743
Q.19 Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?
- Horse
- Pigeon
- Rabbit
- Chicken
Answer ✔ (c) Rabbit
Question 180 of 743
Q.20 Geiger muller counter is used in :
- UV specroscopy
- Ionisation methods
- IR spectroscopy
- NMR spectroscopy
Answer ✔ (b) Ionisation methods
Question 181 of 743
Q.21 Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by
- Trihexyphenidyl
- Levodopa
- Selegiline
- Amantadine
Answer ✔ (a) Trihexyphenidyl
Question 182 of 743
Q.22 As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to
- Schedule L
- Shedule X
- Shedule R
- Shedule O
Answer ✔ (b) Shedule X
Question 183 of 743
Q.23 Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of
- Pinus leaf
- Peppermint leaf
- Clove buds
- Rose marry
Answer ✔ (b) Peppermint leaf
Question 184 of 743
Q.24 The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a
- Primary amine
- Secondary amines
- Tertiary amines
- Quarternary amines
Answer ✔ (b) Secondary amines
Question 185 of 743
Q.25 Hardness of water is expressed in
- mL
- Dynes
- ppm
- Mhos
Answer ✔ (c) ppm
Question 186 of 743
Q.26 Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by
- Gas
- Moist heat
- Radiation
- Dry heat
Answer ✔ (c) Radiation
Question 187 of 743
Q.27 Chlorophyll test is positive in
- Male fern
- Clove
- Rhubarb
- Pale catechu
Answer ✔ (d) Pale catechu
Question 188 of 743
Q.28 Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may
- Increases the toxicity
- Decreases bitterness
- Decreses potency
- Increases water solubility
Answer ✔ (c) Decreses potency
Question 189 of 743
Q.29 A process of sepration of molecules through the use of semi-permeable membrane is known as
- Osmosis
- Dialysis
- Seiving
- Diffusion
Answer ✔ (b) Dialysis
Question 190 of 743
Q.30 Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet
- Deaggregation
- Diffusion
- Disintegration
- Dissolutuin
Answer ✔ (c) Disintegration
Question 191 of 743
Q.31 Fenbufen is used in
- TB
- Plague
- Dengu
- Inflammation
Answer ✔ (d) Inflammation
Question 192 of 743
Q.32 The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of
- Honey
- Canthrites
- Shellac
- Colchicine
Answer ✔ (b) Canthrites
Question 193 of 743
Q.33 Tragacanth in water is associated with
- Plastic flow
- Pseudoplatic flow
- Dialatant flow
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Pseudoplatic flow
Question 194 of 743
Q.34 Antioxidants are added in lipstics to
- Impart pleasant ordour
- Staining of lips
- Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
- Prevent rancidity
Answer ✔ (d) Prevent rancidity
Question 195 of 743
Q.35 Borntrager test is used to identification of
- Senna
- Squill
- Cinchona
- Digitalis
Answer ✔ (a) Senna
Question 196 of 743
Q.36 Plasma protiens act as
- Reserve protiens
- Immunoglobulins
- Buffers
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Buffers
Question 197 of 743
Q.37 Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ
- Brain
- Liver
- Skeletal muscle
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (b) Liver
Question 198 of 743
Q.38 An example of protien denaturation is
- Dissolving sugar in water
- Metabolism of meat
- Heating milk
- Heating egg
Answer ✔ (d) Heating egg
Question 199 of 743
Q.39 An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as
- Isomerases
- Transferases
- Hydrolysases
- Oxydoreductases
Answer ✔ (a) Isomerases
Question 200 of 743
Q.40 The constituent of essential oil is
- Polyterpenoid
- Tetraterpenoid
- mono and sesquiterpenoid
- Triterpenoid
Answer ✔ (c) mono and sesquiterpenoid
Question 201 of 743
Q.41 Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?
- Hydralazine and atenolol
- Metochlopramide and levodopa
- Quinidine and digoxine
- Furosemide and lithium carbonate
Answer ✔ (a) Hydralazine and atenolol
Explanation: hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker
Question 202 of 743
Q.42 Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of
- Purine
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Pyrimidine
Answer ✔ (a) Purine
Question 203 of 743
Q.43 Active immunity is induced by
- Placental transfer of antibodies
- Infection
- Injection of gamma-globulins
- Injection of antibodies
Answer ✔ (b) Infection
Question 204 of 743
Q.44 HIV infection can be clinical controlled with
- Ribavirin
- Ganciclovir
- Stavudine
- Acyclovir
Answer ✔ (c) Stavudine
Explanation: stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor
Question 205 of 743
Q.45 An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is
- Lidocain
- Disipyramide
- Phenytoin
- Amiodarone
Answer ✔ (c) Phenytoin
Question 206 of 743
Q.46 Drug of choice for thyroid storm is
- Carbimazole
- Radioactive iodine
- Propyl thiouracil
- Centimizone
Answer ✔ (c) Propyl thiouracil
Explanation: Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.
Question 207 of 743
Q.47 The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are
- Lysosomes
- Nucleolus
- Ribosomes
- Golgi's bodies
Answer ✔ (a) Lysosomes
Question 208 of 743
Q.48 The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is
- Propranolol
- Prazocine
- Dexamphetamine
- Diazepam
Answer ✔ (c) Dexamphetamine
Question 209 of 743
Q.49 Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year
- 1985
- 1996
- 2007
- 2015
Answer ✔ (c) 2007
Question 210 of 743
Q.50 List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule
- M
- N
- A
- R
Answer ✔ (b) N
Question 211 of 743
Q.1 Which drug from these is a schedule G drug?
- Cimetidine
- Allopurinol
- L-Asparginase
- Ketoprofen
Answer ✔ (c) L-Asparginase
Explanation: Schedule G contains drugs which shall be taken only under medical supervision. Drugs of this schedule must be labelled 'to be used only under medical supervision'.
Question 212 of 743
Q.2 Bromhexin HCL is a -
- Sch. G drug
- Sch. H drug
- Sch. X drug
- Sch. W drug
Answer ✔ (b) Sch. H drug
Explanation: Bromhexin is a prescription drug, included in schedule H, shall be prescribed by RMP.
Question 213 of 743
Q.3 'Magic remedies Act' was passed in -
- April 1954
- May 1950
- October 1948
- June 1959
Answer ✔ (a) April 1954
Explanation: Drugs and magic remedies act was passed on 1st april, 1954. Objectives of drugs and magic remedies act is to control the advertisement of drugs which claiming for having magical properties to cure a disease.
Question 214 of 743
Q.4 Drug Ferrous Sulphate is covered in schedule -
- G
- H
- X
- W
Answer ✔ (d) W
Explanation: schedule W includes list of drugs that shall be marketed under generic names only.
Question 215 of 743
Q.5 Which disease is not included in schedule J ?
- AIDS
- Obesity
- Diabetes
- Tuberculosis
Answer ✔ (d) Tuberculosis
Explanation: Tuberculosis can be cured by taking antitubercular drugs under medical supervision and prevented by vaccination, so it is not included in schedule J.
Question 216 of 743
Q.6 Life period of whole human blood is
- 21 days
- 21 months
- 2 days
- 30 days
Answer ✔ (a) 21 days
Explanation: Life period of human RBCs is 21 days. The blood should be stored in temperature between 4℃ to 6℃.
Question 217 of 743
Q.7 The term 'cool place' means -
- Temperature between 2℃ to 8℃
- Temperature between 4℃ to 6℃
- Temperature not exceeding 25℃
- Temperature between 10℃ to 25℃
Answer ✔ (d) Temperature between 10℃ to 25℃
Explanation: Cool place : temperature between 10 to 25 ℃
Cold place : temperature not exceeding 8℃.
Question 218 of 743
Q.8 List of drugs that shall be marketed under generic names only included in schedule -
- H
- X
- G
- W
Answer ✔ (d) W
Explanation: Schedule W includes name of drugs that shall be marketed under their generic names only.
Example of drugs are : Ferrous sulphate, Aspirin and it's salts, Analgin, Chlorpromazine, Piperazine etc.
Question 219 of 743
Q.9 Schedule D of Drug and Cosmetic act is related to
- List of prescription drugs
- List of exempted from the certain provisions related to the manufacturing of drugs
- Standards for surgical dressings
- List of drugs exempted from the provisions of import of drug
Answer ✔ (d) List of drugs exempted from the provisions of import of drug
Question 220 of 743
Q.10 Penalty for use of government analyst report for advertisement is-
- ₹ 5000
- ₹ 2500
- ₹ 1000
- ₹ 500
Answer ✔ (d) ₹ 500
Explanation: Penalties For using the report of a government analyst for advertising any drug is a fine of ₹ 500/- on first conviction .
And on subsequent conviction imprisonment upto 10 years, or fine or both
Question 221 of 743
Q.11 Poisonous drugs are covered in
- Schedule F
- Schedule E
- Schedule Y
- Schedule X
Answer ✔ (b) Schedule E
Explanation: schedule E contains poisonous Drugs.
Sch. E 1 contains poisonous substances under ayurvedic , sidha and Unani system of medicine.
Question 222 of 743
Q.12 Minimum requirements for grant of licence to procure blood components from whole human blood is give in which schedule?
- F1
- F(i)
- F(ii)
- F2
Answer ✔ (c) F(ii)
Question 223 of 743
Q.13 Schedule F2 of Drug and Cosmetic act is related to -
- Standards for opthalmic preparations
- Standards for surgical dressings
- Standards for sterilized umbilical tapes
- Standards for disinfectant fluids
Answer ✔ (b) Standards for surgical dressings
Explanation: Sch. F2 - Standard for surgical dressings.
Sch. F3 - Standards for sterilized umbilical tapes.
Sch. FF - Standards for opthalmic preparations.
Sch O - Standards for disinfectant fluids.
Question 224 of 743
Q.14 Which no. of form should be used for application for grant of license to sell, stock or distribute Drug?
- Form 8
- Form 19
- Form 12 A
- Form 10
Answer ✔ (b) Form 19
Explanation: Form 19 is required for applying a license for retail pharmacy.
Question 225 of 743
Q.15 The Pharmacy Council of India is constituted by the:
- Central government
- State government
- Cabinet health minister
- Legislative assembly
Answer ✔ (a) Central government
Question 226 of 743
Q.16 The Insecticide act was passed in the year -
- 1968
- 1960
- 1965
- 1967
Answer ✔ (a) 1968
Explanation: The Insecticide act was passed in the year 1968.
Question 227 of 743
Q.17 If a Cosmetic contains a colour which is not prescribed, is called -
- Spurious
- Misbranded
- Adulterated
- Narcotic
Answer ✔ (b) Misbranded
Explanation: If a Cosmetic contains a colour not prescribed is deemed to be misbranded
Question 228 of 743
Q.18 Which of the following are prohibited to be imported?
- Toilet preparation
- Misbranded drugs
- Unani drugs
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Misbranded drugs
Explanation: misbranded drugs can not be imported.
Question 229 of 743
Q.19 The President of PCI is:
- Elected by its members
- Nominated by health secretary
- Elected by registered pharmacist
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Elected by its members
Explanation: The members of PCI elect their President.
Question 230 of 743
Q.20 In case of the schedule X drugs the prescription should be in:
- Duplicate
- Triplicate
- Only one copy
- 5 copies
Answer ✔ (b) Triplicate
Explanation: The prescription of schedule X Drug should be in triplicate to maintain proper records for pharmacy, patient and RMP.
Question 231 of 743
Q.21 Import of drugs in India through sea and air both is allowed in which of the following places?
- Chennai
- Kolkata
- Mumbai
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: Import of drugs in India through sea and air both are allowed in Chennai, Kolkata, and Mumbai.
Question 232 of 743
Q.22 The Joint State Council has
- 3-5 registered pharmacists
- 5-10 registered pharmacists
- 1-9 registered pharmacists
- 4-9 registered pharmacists
Answer ✔ (a) 3-5 registered pharmacists
Explanation: The joint state council has 3-5 registered pharmacists from each state.
Question 233 of 743
Q.23 What is the punishment, when any person obstructing an inspector to exercise his duty?
- Imprisonment upto 6 months or fine upto Rs. 1000 or both
- Imprisonment upto 1 yrs or fine upto Rs. 5000 or both
- Imprisonment upto 5 yrs or fine upto Rs. 10000 or both
- Imprisonment upto 3 yrs or fine upto Rs. 5000 or both
Answer ✔ (a) Imprisonment upto 6 months or fine upto Rs. 1000 or both
Explanation: Any person willfully obstructing a Drug Inspector in the exercise of the powers conferred on him by or under this Act or any rules made thereunder shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine not exceeding 1000 rupees, or with both.
Question 234 of 743
Q.24 The committee that advises the D.T.A.B and various governments is :
- D.C.C.
- D.E.C.
- D.C.I.
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) D.C.C.
Explanation: DCC (Drug consultative committee) advices the DTAB ( Drug Technical Advisory Board ).
Question 235 of 743
Q.25 Manufacture without bond licences are issued by -
- Excise Commissioner
- Drug Inspector
- Government Analyst
- Registrar
Answer ✔ (a) Excise Commissioner
Explanation: Excise commissioner issues licenses for non bonded manufacturing.
Question 236 of 743
Q.1 one pound apothecary is equivalent to
- 7000 grains
- 6375 grains
- 5760 grains
- 480 grains
Answer ✔ (a) 7000 grains
Explanation: The apothecary system of weights is the hystorical system of masss unit i.e pounds and grains. 1 pound (lb) is equivalent to 7000 grains.
Question 237 of 743
Q.2 Ampoules generally contain
- Single dose parentral product
- multiple dose parental product
- Two or three doses
- none of these
Answer ✔ (a) Single dose parentral product
Explanation: Ampoules are hermatically seales, and contain only single dose parentrals.
Question 238 of 743
Q.3 Plasticizers are added in plastic to provide
- Flexibility
- heat stability
- Mechanical strength
- none of these
Answer ✔ (a) Flexibility
Explanation: plasticisers are additives to that increase the plasticity (flexibility) or fluidity of the material.
Question 239 of 743
Q.4 Which mill is used for size reduction of fibrous material?
- Roller mill
- Hammer mill
- Ball mill
- cutter milll
Answer ✔ (d) cutter milll
Explanation: Size reduction is a process of reducing substance to smaller particles. Cutter mill is used for fibrous material.
Question 240 of 743
Q.5 Ball mill works on the principle of
- Impact
- Compression
- Attrition
- Attrition and impact
Answer ✔ (d) Attrition and impact
Explanation: Ball mill works on the both princilpes of Attrition and impact.
Question 241 of 743
Q.6 Micrometrics deals with the study of
- Powders
- Micropores
- small particles
- metric system of measurements
Answer ✔ (c) small particles
Explanation: Micrometrics is a science and technology of small particles.
Question 242 of 743
Q.7 Which filter is used for bacterial filtration?
- Filter paper
- Sintered glass filter
- Membrane filter
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) Membrane filter
Explanation: Membrane sepration process operates without heating. Membrane filters are made up of cellulose nitrate which is highly flammable compound.
Question 243 of 743
Q.8 The extraction process, in which crude drug is kept in contact with menstrum is called
- infusion
- maceration
- percolation
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) maceration
Explanation: Macretion is also a wine making process n which raw, dried or preserved fruit or vegetables are soaked in a liquid to softened the food or absorb the flavour of the liquid.
Question 244 of 743
Q.9 Belladonne tincture is prepared by percolation due to its
- Nature of crude drug
- therapeutic value of drug
- chemical properties of constituents
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) therapeutic value of drug
Explanation: Belladona tincture primary used in diarrohea and visceral pain. It contains active substance to get high yield it is isolated by percolation process.
Question 245 of 743
Q.10 Drug and menstrum ratio of tincture is
- 1 : 3
- 1 : 4
- 1 : 10
- 1 : 2
Answer ✔ (b) 1 : 4
Explanation: A tincture is an alcoholic extract of plant or animal material or solution of such or of a low volatile substance containing 1 part of material in 4 parts of alcoholic solution (menstrum).
Question 246 of 743
Q.11 Fractional distillation is carried out for seprating
- miscible liquids
- Immiscible liquids
- Volatile oils
- hormones
Answer ✔ (a) miscible liquids
Explanation: Fractional distillation is a process of seprating two or more liquids from a solution by heating the solution. As different liquids vaporise at different tempratures.
Question 247 of 743
Q.12 In which dryer, drying takes place at very low temprature?
- Sublimation dryer
- Vacuum dryer
- Fluidized bed dryer
- Rotatory dryer
Answer ✔ (a) Sublimation dryer
Explanation: The sublimation of the product is done at -20°ree; C temperature.
Question 248 of 743
Q.13 Sera are used to provide
- Artificial passive immunity
- Artificial active immunity
- Natural passive immunity
- none of these
Answer ✔ (a) Artificial passive immunity
Explanation: Artificial passive immunity is aquired through transfer of antibodies or activated T-cells from an immune host and it short lived. Passive immunity can occurs naturally when material antibodies are transferred to the fetus through placenta.
Question 249 of 743
Q.14 The lack of ability to resist infection is
- susceptibility
- Tolerance
- Virulence
- none of these
Answer ✔ (a) susceptibility
Explanation: In epidemiology, A susceptible indivisual is member in a population who is at risk of becoming infected by a disease.
Question 250 of 743
Q.15 Tablet is film coated with
- cellulose acetate phthalate
- Cellulose
- Hydroxy propyle methyle cellulose
- carboxy methyle cellulose
Answer ✔ (c) Hydroxy propyle methyle cellulose
Explanation: Hdroxy propyle methyle cellulose is also known as Hypromellose.
Question 251 of 743
Q.16 Which one of these substance can be directly compressed into tablet?
- Paracetamol
- Aspirin
- Indomethacin
- Salicylic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Aspirin
Explanation: Aspirin also known as acetyl salicylic acid, can directly compressed into tablet.
Question 252 of 743
Q.17 Slugging is related to
- Wet granulation
- Mixing
- Dry granulation
- Filling of the die
Answer ✔ (c) Dry granulation
Explanation: Dry granulation process creates granules by light compacting of the powder blend under low pressure.
Question 253 of 743
Q.18 The solution of potassium permangnate is filterd through
- Filter paper
- Whatman filter paper
- cotton wool
- Glass wool
Answer ✔ (d) Glass wool
Explanation: Potassium permangnate is act as an antiseptic and also a strong oxidising agent. Due to oxydising nature it can affect paper, cotton etc.
Question 254 of 743
Q.19 Water attack test is is used to identify the alkalinity in:
- Type I glass
- Type II glass
- Type III glass
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Type II glass
Explanation: Water attack test is used for Type II glass.
Question 255 of 743
Q.20 Saccharin sodium is used as :
- colouring agent
- Sweetening agent
- Flavouring agent
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Sweetening agent
Explanation: Saccharin sodium is a artificial sweetner.
Question 256 of 743
Q.1 Aromatic spirit of ammonia is -
- Antidote
- Expectorant
- Respiratory stimulant
- Astringent
Answer ✔ (c) Respiratory stimulant
Explanation: Aromatic spirit of ammonia is a respiratory stimulant. It is used to treat or prevent fainting.
Question 257 of 743
Q.2 Most widely used anticaries agent is-
- sodium bicarbonate
- sodium carbonate
- sodium fluoride
- acacia
Answer ✔ (c) sodium fluoride
Explanation: Fluoride as sodium fluoride or stannous fluoride is used as anticaries agent.
Question 258 of 743
Q.3 Acid-base theory was given by-
- Lewis
- Hamilton
- John
- Raman
Answer ✔ (a) Lewis
Explanation: Acid-base theory was given by Gilbert N Lewis.
Question 259 of 743
Q.4 Caustic soda is synonym of-
- NaOH
- HCl
- CaCO7
- I2
Answer ✔ (a) NaOH
Explanation: Caustic soda is synonym for sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
Question 260 of 743
Q.5 Hydrochloric Acid (HCl ) is used in-
- Diarrhea
- Hyperacidity
- Achlorhydria
- Fever
Answer ✔ (c) Achlorhydria
Explanation: HCl is used in acid deficiency achlorhydria.
Question 261 of 743
Q.6 The colour of the cylinder of nitrous oxide is-
- Red
- Blue
- Black
- Orange
Answer ✔ (b) Blue
Explanation: Nitrous oxide (laughing gas) is used as anesthatic agent in dentistry and supplied in blue coloured cylinders.
Question 262 of 743
Q.7 A gas used for fumigation is-
- Nitrogen oxide
- Ethylene
- Oxygen
- Sulphur dioxide
Answer ✔ (d) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation: sulphure dioxide (SO2) is a fumigating gas.
Question 263 of 743
Q.8 Antimony potassium tartarate is used as-
- Antidote
- Emetic
- Astringent
- Buffer
Answer ✔ (b) Emetic
Explanation: Emetics are used to induce vomiting. Antimony potassium tartarate syrup of Ipecac and CuSO4 are used as emetics.
Question 264 of 743
Q.9 Amchlor is a synonym of-
- Ammonium chloride
- Sodium chloride
- Potassium chloride
- Ammonium hydroxide
Answer ✔ (a) Ammonium chloride
Explanation: Ammonium chloride is also known as Amchlor, used as diuretic and expectorant.
Question 265 of 743
Q.10 Iodine dissolves in water with the addition of-
- Sodium chloride
- Sulphur
- Potassium iodide
- Calcium carbonate
Answer ✔ (c) Potassium iodide
Explanation: potassium Iodide (KI) forms KI3 (polyiodides) with I2. KI3 is soluble in water.
Question 266 of 743
Q.11 Antidote used in Cyanide poisoning is-
- Sodium chloride
- Potassium iodide
- sodium thiosulphate
- sodium bicarbonate
Answer ✔ (c) sodium thiosulphate
Explanation: sodium thiosulphate, amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite etc. are used in cyanide poisoning.
Question 267 of 743
Q.12 Unit of measurement of radioactivity is-
- Curie
- Cm
- Litre
- Gm
Answer ✔ (a) Curie
Explanation: The unit of radioactivity is Curie and BcQurel.
Question 268 of 743
Q.13 Which of the following particles have no charge and mass?
- α- particles
- β-particles
- γ-particles
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) γ-particles
Explanation: γ particles have no charge and mass. They have lowest ionising power among the three particles.
Question 269 of 743
Q.14 Milk of magnesia is a common name for-
- Suspension of magnesium oxide
- suspension of magnesium hydroxide
- suspension of magnesium carbonate
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) suspension of magnesium hydroxide
Explanation: suspension of magnesium hydroxide is known as milk of magnesia. It is used as laxative and antacid.
Question 270 of 743
Q.15 Epsom salt is-
- Sodium sulphate
- Potassium sulphate
- Magnesium sulphate
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Magnesium sulphate
Explanation: Magnesium sulphate is commonly known as epsom salt. It is used both externallyas in aches and pains and internally as saline laxative.
Question 271 of 743
Q.16 Brine is a concentrated solution of-
- sodium hydroxide
- sodium chloride
- Potassium chloride
- Potassium carbonate
Answer ✔ (b) sodium chloride
Explanation: Solution of table salt is known as Brine.
Question 272 of 743
Q.17 Tincture of iodine is -
- Strong iodine solution
- weak iodine solution
- Aqueous iodine solution
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) weak iodine solution
Explanation: Tincture of iodine (2 - 7%) is an antiseptic. It is also called weak iodine solution.
Question 273 of 743
Q.18 Ammonium chloride is dried by-
- Heating to constant weight
- Keeping in air
- Drying over desicant
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drying over desicant
Explanation: ammonium chloride is dried over a desicant. Direct heating decomposes ammonium chloride to ammonia and HCl.
Question 274 of 743
Q.19 Which one of these is used to treat dandruff?
- Sulphur
- Selenium sulphide
- yellow mercuric oxide
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Selenium sulphide
Explanation: Selenium sulphide is used as antifungal agent in treating dandruff.
Question 275 of 743
Q.20 Alum is added to bacterial toxins and toxoids to-
- increase activity
- precipitation of protein
- Reduce toxicity
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) increase activity
Explanation: Alum is used in vaccines to increase the activity.
Question 276 of 743
Q.21 What is calamine?
- Zinc oxide
- Zinc oxide with traces of magnesium oxide
- Zinc oxide with traces of ferric oxide
- Zinc carbonate
Answer ✔ (c) Zinc oxide with traces of ferric oxide
Explanation: Calamine is a mixture of zinc oxide with 0.5% ferric oxide. It is used as anti-pruritic agent.
Question 277 of 743
Q.22 Which one of these is a major cation in intracellular fluid?
- Potassium
- Sodium
- magnesium
- calcium
Answer ✔ (a) Potassium
Explanation: Potassium is a major intracellular cation and sodium is a major extracellular cation.
Question 278 of 743
Q.23 Titrant used in the assay of ferrous sulphate I.P.1996 is-
- Potassium parmangnate
- cerric ammonium sulphate
- sulphuric acid
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) cerric ammonium sulphate
Explanation: Ferrous sulphate is assayed with cerric ammonium sulphate (redox titration I.P. 1996).
Question 279 of 743
Q.24 The lead acetate cotton wool is used in limit test for arsenic to-
- Make the arsine gas
- Develop the yellow colour
- Trap the hydrogen sulphide gas
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Trap the hydrogen sulphide gas
Explanation: Lead acetate wool or paper are used to trap hydrogen sulphide gas which may be involved along with arsine gas. The hydrogen sulphide gas also react with mercuric chloride paper to give yellow colour.
Question 280 of 743
Q.25 Limit tests are performed in-
- Flask
- Test Tube
- Nesslar cylinder
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Nesslar cylinder
Explanation: Nesslar cylinder also known as colour comprison cylinders are used to perform limit tests.
Question 281 of 743
Q.26 Silver nitrate should be stored in-
- clean, dry white bottles
- lead free white bottle
- amber colourd bottle
- neutral glass bottle
Answer ✔ (c) amber colourd bottle
Explanation: Silver nitrate should be protected from light. So must be stored in amber coloured bottles.
Question 282 of 743
Q.27 The drug commonly used to prevent sepsis in severe burn cases is-
- sulfamethoxazole
- silversulphadiazine
- Salazopyrine
- Sulfadiamidine
Answer ✔ (b) silversulphadiazine
Explanation: Silver sulphadiazine (silvadine) is a topical antibacterial used as topical cream or burns (antiseptic cream).
Question 283 of 743
Q.28 Which of the following is used as cryotherepeutic agent?
- Calcium carbide
- Liquid nitrogen
- calcium cyanamide
- sodium nitrite
Answer ✔ (b) Liquid nitrogen
Explanation: Liquid nitrogen is used as cryotherapeutic agent for removing malignant skin lesions such as warts and keratosis.
Question 284 of 743
Q.29 which of the following is used in the eye treatment in minor infections?
- Ammoniated mercury
- Yellow mercuric oxide
- Potassium permangnate
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Yellow mercuric oxide
Explanation: a very low concentration of HgO is used in eye infections.
Question 285 of 743
Q.30 which of the following is used as Rust inhibitor?
- Sodium nitrite
- liquid nitrogen
- Calcium carbide
- sodium thiosulphate
Answer ✔ (a) Sodium nitrite
Explanation: sodium nitrite is an effective rust inhibitor and is used as an additive in industrial greases.
Question 286 of 743
Q.1 The peptide bond in proteins is detected by
- Biuret test
- formaldehyde
- Million test
- water
Answer ✔ (a) Biuret test
Explanation: In the presence of peptides, a copper (ii) ion forms violet coloured complexes in alkali solutions.
Question 287 of 743
Q.2 Which is the smallest amino acid?
- Glycine
- Alanine
- Valine
- Phenylalanine
Answer ✔ (a) Glycine
Explanation: Glycine is the smallest amino acid with only 'H' as the residue.
Question 288 of 743
Q.3 Vitamin A is related to:
- β-ionone
- α-ionone
- δ-ionone
- ɣ-ionone
Answer ✔ (a) β-ionone
Explanation: Vitamin A is composed of β -ionone ring (cyclohexenyl) to which polyisoprenoid side chain is attached.
Question 289 of 743
Q.4 Vitamins that bind to Ca++ ATPase in intestinal cells is:
- Vitamin B1
- Vitamin B2
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
Answer ✔ (d) Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D is fat soluble responsible for enhancing intestinal absoption of calcium, Iron, Magnesium, Phosphate and zinc.
Question 290 of 743
Q.5 Regular use of isoniazid as antitubercular drug causes deficiency of:
- Vitamin B2
- vitamin B6
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin B1
Answer ✔ (b) vitamin B6
Explanation: Isoniazid causes depletion of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxin).
Question 291 of 743
Q.6 Sakaguchi's test is specified to:
- Glycine
- Arginine
- Tryptophan
- Tyrosine
Answer ✔ (b) Arginine
Explanation: Sakaguch's test is used to detect the Arginine in proteins. The guanidine group in arginine reacts with sakaguch's reagent to form red coloured complex.
Question 292 of 743
Q.7 Which Enzyme is useful for the clinical diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
- Lipase
- Amylase
- Creatinine phosphokinase
- Both A and B
Answer ✔ (d) Both A and B
Explanation: Acute pancreatitis is sudden swelling and inflammation of the pancreas. It is due to the billiary tract disease, heavy alcohol, idiopathic causes.
Question 293 of 743
Q.8 Which enzyme catalyse the linking of two compounds?
- Transferase
- Isomerase
- Ligase
- Lyases
Answer ✔ (c) Ligase
Explanation: Ligase is an enzyme that can catalyse the joining of two large molecules by forming a chemical bond.
Question 294 of 743
Q.9 Enzyme Reaction kinetics are governed by:
- Michaelis theory
- Menten theory
- Michaellis and Menten theory
- Noyes and Whitney theory
Answer ✔ (c) Michaellis and Menten theory
Explanation: Mechellis and Menten theory is one of the best models of enzyme kinetics. The models take the form of an equation describing the rate of enzymatic reaction , relating reaction rate, concentration of the substrate.
Question 295 of 743
Q.10 What is the source of carbon atoms in Cholesterol?
- Acetyl-CoA
- Lanosterol
- Squalene
- Mevalonic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Acetyl-CoA
Explanation: Acetyl-CoA is an important molecule in metabolism used in many biochemical reactions.
Question 296 of 743
Q.11 The Enzymes of HMP pathway are located in:
- Cytosol
- Adipose tissue
- Heart
- Intestine
Answer ✔ (a) Cytosol
Explanation: Cytosol is the liquid found inside cells. It is seprated into compartment by membranes. For example Mitochondrial matrix, seprates the mitochondrion into many compartments.
Question 297 of 743
Q.12 The citrate is converted into isocitrate via cis-aconitase by the enzyme:
- Cutrate synthase
- aconitase
- isocitrate dehydrogenate
- malate dehydrogenase
Answer ✔ (b) aconitase
Explanation: Aconitase is an enzyme that catalyse the sterio-specific isomerisation of citrate to isocitrate in the tricarboxylic acid cycle
Question 298 of 743
Q.13 In Glycolysis under anaerobic condition, there is a net gain of:
- 4 ATP
- 3 ATP
- 2 ATP
- 1 ATP
Answer ✔ (c) 2 ATP
Question 299 of 743
Q.14 Which is the major pathway/cycle for removal of amonia in brain?
- Glutamine pathway
- Kreb's Henseleit cycle
- Urea synthesis pathway
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Glutamine pathway
Question 300 of 743
Q.15 The disease albinism is related to:
- defect of tyrosine metabolism
- defect of phenylealanine metabolism
- defect related to melanin biosynthesis
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) defect related to melanin biosynthesis
Explanation: Albinism is the rare group of genetic desorder that causes the skin, hair, eyes to have little or no colour.
Question 301 of 743
Q.16 Knoop's beta oxidation is related to:
- oxidation of fatty acids
- oxidation of acetyl Coenzyme
- oxidation of keto-bodies
- oxidation of uric acid
Answer ✔ (a) oxidation of fatty acids
Question 302 of 743
Q.17 The normal level of calcium in blood plasma is:
- 20-40 mg/ 100ml
- 30-40 mg/100 ml
- 9-11 mg/100 ml
- 100mg/100 ml
Answer ✔ (c) 9-11 mg/100 ml
Explanation: the calcium is present plasma of blood in concentration of 9 to 11mg per 100ml
Question 303 of 743
Q.18 Xanthine oxidase contains:
- Zinc
- Molybdenum
- cobalt
- magnesium
Answer ✔ (b) Molybdenum
Question 304 of 743
Q.19 Barfoed's reagent is a solution of:
- copper sulphate
- copper acetate in acetic acid
- cupric tartrate
- cupric nitrate
Answer ✔ (b) copper acetate in acetic acid
Explanation: Barfoed's reagent is used for detection of monosachrides in carbohydrate, based on the reaction of copper acetate to copper oxide.
RCH + 2Cu2+ + 2 H2O → RCOOH + 2Cu2O + NH+
Question 305 of 743
Q.20 The risk factor for atherosclerosis is related to:
- Chylomicron
- VLDL
- HDL
- VLDL and LDL
Answer ✔ (d) VLDL and LDL
Explanation: LDL diposits excess cholesterol in the walls of blood vessels, so it is also called bad cholesterol.
Question 306 of 743
Q.21 The precursor for Vitamin D is:
- Fatty acid
- Sterol
- Cholesterol
- Lipid
Answer ✔ (c) Cholesterol
Explanation: Several forms of vitamin D exists. The two major forms are vitamin D2 or ergocalciferol and vitamin D3 or Cholecalciferol.
Question 307 of 743
Q.22 Glutathione is:
- Dipeptide
- Tripeptide
- Cyclic peptide
- Polypeptide
Answer ✔ (b) Tripeptide
Explanation: Glutathione is an important anti-oxidant in plants, animals, fungi and some bacteria. It is a tripeptide with a gamma peptide linkage between the carboxyl groups.
Question 308 of 743
Q.23 Bial's Reagent is a solution of:
- Alpha napthol in alcohol
- Phenol in 30% HCL
- Orcinol in 30% HCL
- Orcinol in 30% HCL + ferric chloride
Answer ✔ (d) Orcinol in 30% HCL + ferric chloride
Explanation: Bial's test is achemical test for the presence of pentose. It contains 0.4 g of orcinol, 200ml of conc. HCL and 0.5 m of 10% solution of ferric chloride.
Question 309 of 743
Q.24 Fluorosis is caused by the excess intake of:
- Copper
- Calcium
- Zinc
- Fluorine
Answer ✔ (d) Fluorine
Explanation: It is developemental disturbance in enamel caused by excessive exposure to high concentration of fluorine intake.
Question 310 of 743
Q.25 Mutarotation is:
- change in structure
- change in cyclic structure
- change in optical rotation
- none of above
Answer ✔ (c) change in optical rotation
Explanation: Mutarotation is the change in the optical rotation that occurs by epimerization. The optical rotation of the solution depends on the optical rotation of each anomer and their ratio in the solution.
Question 311 of 743
Q.1 Basal metabolic rate is related to -
- Surface area
- Height
- Body weight
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: Basal metabolic rate is the rate of energy expenditure by human and animal at rest and is measured in kJ per hour per kg body mass.
Question 312 of 743
Q.2 Which enzyme does not act on dietary proteins?
- Elastase
- Hydrolase
- Trypsin
- Chymotrypsin
Answer ✔ (b) Hydrolase
Explanation: Hydrolase is an enzyme that catalyse the hydrolysis of a chemical bond.
Question 313 of 743
Q.3 LH is required for -
- Follicular growth
- Menstruation
- Fertilization
- Tubular motility
Answer ✔ (a) Follicular growth
Explanation: LH (Luteinising hormone) is secreted by basophil cells of anterior pituitary gland and it is responsible for the complete development of follicle to secretary stage and secretion of oestrogen. In addition it also stimulates the formation of Corpus luteum. In males the LH stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secret testosterone.
Question 314 of 743
Q.4 which of the following is called as hormone of abundance?
- Insulin
- Adrenaline
- Somatostatin
- Glucagon
Answer ✔ (a) Insulin
Explanation: Insulin increases the abundance of growth hormone receptors in liver and adipose tissue. Insulin is also responsible for lipid metabolism, in adipose tissue insulin increases fatty acid synthesis.
Question 315 of 743
Q.5 which hormone causes contraction of the gall bladder?
- Secretin
- Gastrin
- Bradykinin
- Cholecystokinin
Answer ✔ (d) Cholecystokinin
Explanation: Cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone of Gastrointestinal system, responsible for stimulating the digestion of fat and protein.
Question 316 of 743
Q.6 pH of CSF is -
- 7.13
- 7.33
- 7.23
- 7.40
Answer ✔ (b) 7.33
Explanation: CSF is cerebrospinal fluid. It is clear, slightly alkaline fluid with a specific gravity of 1.005 and pH of 7.33, consisting of water, mineral salts, glucose, plasma proteins, leukocytes, and small amounts of creatinine and urea.
Question 317 of 743
Q.7 Iron is stored in -
- R.E. cells
- Plasma
- Erythrocytes
- All of these
Answer ✔ (a) R.E. cells
Explanation: Iron is stored in lever in the form of ferritin in reticuloendothelial (R.E.) cells. The RES (reticuloendothelial system) is responsible for the synthesis of iron from dead cells (RBCs) and storage for the excess of iron.
Question 318 of 743
Q.8 Prostaglandin secretion is maximum in -
- Urine
- Amniotic fluid
- Saliva
- Semen
Answer ✔ (d) Semen
Explanation: Semen is a seminal fluid which may contain spermatozoa. It is a major component of male ejaculation. Prostaglandins also secreted with semen on ejaculation in males, in females pristagandins produces during the menstruation and realeased with the menstrual fluid causing abdominal cramps (pain).
Question 319 of 743
Q.9 Turner syndrome caused by -
- Presence of only one X chromosome
- Presence of only Y chromosome
- Presence of XXY chromosome
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Presence of only one X chromosome
Explanation: Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder also known as Gonadal dysgenesis. It is due to the absence or partially absence of second sex chromosome (monosomy of X chrosome) in females.
Question 320 of 743
Q.10 Name the hormone involved in regulation of calcium?
- Growth hormone
- Thyroid hormone
- Insulin hormone
- PTH (parathyroid hormone)
Answer ✔ (d) PTH (parathyroid hormone)
Explanation: The main function of PTH is to increase blood calcium level. The secretion of Parathyroid hormone is regulated by blood calcium levels. Parathormone and calcitonin are also responsible for mauntaining the normal blood calcium levels.
Question 321 of 743
Q.11 Name the receptor which detects pressure sensation?
- Chemoreceptor
- Thermoreceptor
- Baroreceptor
- Mechanoreceptor
Answer ✔ (c) Baroreceptor
Explanation: Baroreceptor are the sensors located in the blood vessels.
Question 322 of 743
Q.12 Which receptor is responsible for pain?
- Chemoreceptor
- Thermoreceptor
- Nocireceptor
- Baroreceptor
Answer ✔ (c) Nocireceptor
Explanation: Nocireceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron that respond to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal chord and brain.
Question 323 of 743
Q.13 Which hormone acts via tyrokinase receptors?
- Steroid hormones
- Thyroid hormone
- Insulin hormone
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Insulin hormone
Explanation: Tyrokinase receptors are the high affinity cell surface receptors for many polypeptide growth factor, cytokines and hormones.
Question 324 of 743
Q.14 Which part of CNS controls respiration?
- Medulla
- Spinal cord
- Cerebellum
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Medulla
Explanation: Medulla Oblongata is the lower half of the brain stem and it controls the respiration by activating the muscles for breathing mechanism.
Question 325 of 743
Q.15 What is micturition?
- Discharge of blood
- Discharge of urine
- Discharge of semen
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Discharge of urine
Explanation: Micturition is the urination of urine from the urinary bladder.
Question 326 of 743
Q.16 Spermatozoa are formed in
- Vasa deference
- Prostate gland
- Seminal vesicles
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (d) None of the above
Explanation: Spermatozoa are formed in seminiferous tubules inside the testes. travels through vasa deference and medium for ejaculation provided by seminal vesicles by secreting an alkaline fluid semen.
Question 327 of 743
Q.17 Progesterone is secreted by
- Corpus leteum
- Testis
- Ovary
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Ovary
Explanation: Progesterone is hormone which regulates conception and pregnancy. Produced by ovary, placenta and adrenal glands.
Question 328 of 743
Q.18 Lysosomes are also known as -
- Power house of cell
- Protien factories
- Suicidal bags
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Suicidal bags
Explanation: Lysosomes are cellular organelle that contain hydrolase enzyme that breaks down waste material and cellular debris.
Question 329 of 743
Q.19 Sarcolemma is a covering of
- Nerve fibre
- Muscle fibre
- Collagen fibre
- Cartilage
Answer ✔ (b) Muscle fibre
Explanation: Sarcolemma is also called as myolemma , is a outer membrane of stratified muscle fibre.
Question 330 of 743
Q.20 Lungs are covered by
- Pericardium
- Pleura
- Sclera
- Myocardium
Answer ✔ (b) Pleura
Explanation: Pleura is an exceedingly delicate serous membrane and is arranged in the form of a closed invaginated sac.
Question 331 of 743
Q.21 How many pairs of spinal nerves are in humans?
- 12
- 13
- 25
- 31
Answer ✔ (d) 31
Explanation: Spinal nerve is referred to as mixed nerve which carries motor, sensory and autonomic signals between spinal cord and body. total 31 pairs of spinal nerves are in humans.
Question 332 of 743
Q.22 The structural and functional unit of brain is?
- Nephrone
- Neuron
- Myosites
- Synapse
Answer ✔ (b) Neuron
Explanation: Neuron is an electrically excitable cell that process and transmit information through electrical and chemical signal.
Question 333 of 743
Q.23 What is embolism?
- Breaking of blood clot
- Stoping of blood clot
- Movement of blood clot in vessels
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Movement of blood clot in vessels
Explanation: Embolism is a fat globules or a gas bubble in a the bloodstream.
Question 334 of 743
Q.24 which one is a iron transporter in the blood?
- Hemosiderin
- Transferrin
- Mosiderin
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Transferrin
Explanation: Iron is released into the plasma to be recirculated by carrier protein called transferrin.
Question 335 of 743
Q.25 The deposition of sodium urate crystals in joints leads to disease -
- Arthritis
- Inflammation
- Gout
- Calculi
Answer ✔ (c) Gout
Explanation: Gout is the disorder of purine metabolism and occurs when its final metabolite uric acid crystallises to form monosodium urate crystals in joints, tendons and surrounding tissues and trigger a local immune inflammatory reaction.
Question 336 of 743
Q.1 Endocardium is the layer of
- kidney
- lung
- heart
- stomach
Answer ✔ (c) heart
Explanation: Endocardium is the innermost layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart
Question 337 of 743
Q.2 The reserve pacemaker is
- AV node
- SA node
- Bundle of his
- purkinje fibre
Answer ✔ (a) AV node
Explanation: When SA node fails to generate impulse then AV node becomes the pacemaker and generates impulse 40-60 impulse/min. hence AV node is called the reserve pacemaker of heart.
Question 338 of 743
Q.3 The peritonium is a
- Outer covering of elementary tract in abdomen
- outer covering of thorax
- inner covering of rectum
- None of Above
Answer ✔ (a) Outer covering of elementary tract in abdomen
Explanation: Peritoneum is the serous membrane that term the lining of the abdomen cavity
Question 339 of 743
Q.4 Parotids glands are present in
- Stomach
- mouth
- Pharynx
- Intestine
Answer ✔ (b) mouth
Explanation: Parotid gland is a major salivary gland in humans.
Question 340 of 743
Q.5 Succus entericus is related to
- Pancreatic Juice
- Intestinal juice
- Enzymes present in stomach
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Intestinal juice
Explanation: Succus entericus (intestinal juice) is secreted by mucous glands of intestine. It neutralizes hydrochloric acid coming from stomach.
Question 341 of 743
Q.6 Which one of these glands has both endocrine and exocrine function?
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Parotid gland
- Thyroid gland
Answer ✔ (b) Pancreas
Explanation: Exocrine secretion of Pancreas helps in digestion of food and the endocrine function are secretion of insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin.
Question 342 of 743
Q.7 C-shaped hyaline cartilages are present in
- Larynx
- Trachea
- Pharynx
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Trachea
Explanation: Cartilage ring in trachea needs to be C-shaped so that large mass of food can pass through oesophagous during swallowing and large mass of air pass through trachea.
Question 343 of 743
Q.8 Tonsils are present in
- Pharynx
- Larynx
- Pancreas
- Liver
Answer ✔ (a) Pharynx
Explanation: The palatine tonsils and nasophareangeal tonsils are lymphoepithelial tissues near oropharynx and nasopharynx.
Question 344 of 743
Q.9 Accumulation of carbon dioxide gas in lungs is called
- Anoxia
- Asphyxia
- Anorexia
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Asphyxia
Explanation: Asphyxia is a condition in which extreme decrease of oxigen in body accompanied by increase in CO2 that leads to death and loss of conciousness and loss of pulse.
Question 345 of 743
Q.10 The basic unit of kidney is
- Glmerulus
- Nephron
- Loop of henley
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Nephron
Explanation: Nephron is the basic structural and function unit of kidney.
Question 346 of 743
Q.11 Glucose reabsorption takes place mainly in:
- Distal convulated tubules
- Collecting duct
- Proximal convulated tubule
- Loop of henley
Answer ✔ (c) Proximal convulated tubule
Explanation: Reabsoption of glucose occurs in PCT (proximal convulated tubules) regardless of concentration gradient via secondary active transport. It is reabsorbed sodium transporter medium.
Question 347 of 743
Q.12 The Hormone concerned with the basic metabolic rate is
- Thyroxin
- Pratharmone
- Arenaline
- Calcitonin
Answer ✔ (a) Thyroxin
Explanation: Thyroxin increases basal metabolic rate. It increases body heat production by increasing oxygen consumption and rates of ATP production. It causes lipid and carbohydrate metabolism.
Question 348 of 743
Q.13 Melatonin is secreted by
- Thymus gland
- Adenophysis
- Pineal gland
- Adrenal gland
Answer ✔ (c) Pineal gland
Explanation: Melatonin is hormone secreted by pineal gland. It helps to regulate body circadian rhythm and other hormones in body as well.
Question 349 of 743
Q.14 Tetany is related to
- Hypoparathyroidism
- Hypocalcemia
- Both (a) and (b)
- None of above
Answer ✔ (b) Hypocalcemia
Explanation: Tetany is an involuntary contraction of muscles. It occurs due to Hypocalcemia.
Question 350 of 743
Q.15 The Upper jaw bone is
- Ethmoid
- Maxilla
- Mandible
- Hyoid
Answer ✔ (b) Maxilla
Explanation: The maxilla form the upper jaw and the major portion of the palate. The upper set of teeth are fixed in it.
Question 351 of 743
Q.16 The shoulder joint is a type of:
- Hinge Joint
- Ball and socket joint
- Pivot joint
- Gliding joint
Answer ✔ (b) Ball and socket joint
Explanation: Also known as humero-scapular joint. It is a type of Ball and socket joint (most flexible and movable joint).
Question 352 of 743
Q.17 Vestibule is present in
- External ear
- Internal ear
- Middle ear
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Internal ear
Explanation: Main function of vestibule is to provide balance.
Question 353 of 743
Q.18 Which cranial nerve is attached with the eye?
- 2nd
- 4th
- 6th
- 8th
Answer ✔ (a) 2nd
Explanation: 2nd nerve is also called optic nervewhich transmits visual information.
Question 354 of 743
Q.19 Ciliary body in the eye ball is the extension of:
- Sclera
- Choroid
- Retina
- cornea
Answer ✔ (b) Choroid
Explanation: It is a circumferential tissue composed of ciliary muscle and ciliary process.
Question 355 of 743
Q.20 Perkinson's disease is due to lesion in the:
- cerebellum
- basal ganglia
- cerebrum
- hypothalamus
Answer ✔ (b) basal ganglia
Explanation: Perkisan's disease is a degenerative disorder of CNS. Basal ganglia innervated by dopiminergic system are most seriously effected.
Question 356 of 743
Q.21 Hyoglosal cranial nerve is related with:
- Movement of tongue
- Movement of saliva
- Movement of layrynx
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Movement of tongue
Explanation: The hyoglossal cranial nerve is 12th cranial nerve that innervates muscle of tounge.
Question 357 of 743
Q.22 The longest skeletal muscle is
- Biceps
- Quadriceps femoris
- supinator
- sartorius
Answer ✔ (d) sartorius
Explanation: Sartorius is the longest muscle in the human body which crosses both the hip and knee joints.
Question 358 of 743
Q.23 Which Tarsal bone forms the heel of the foot?
- Talus
- Calcaneous
- Navicular
- cuboid
Answer ✔ (b) Calcaneous
Explanation: Calcaneous forms the heel of the foot.
Question 359 of 743
Q.24 The lymph fluid is:
- Colourless
- Reddish
- Light brown
- Pinkish
Answer ✔ (a) Colourless
Explanation: Lymph fluid contains white blood cells. It is fluid that circulates throughout the lymphatic system.
Question 360 of 743
Q.25 What is autocrine?
- Local hormones
- Steroids
- Biogenic amines
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Local hormones
Explanation: Autocrine is cell signelling process, molecules act on the same cell which produces them.
Question 361 of 743
Q.1 License for chemist shop is issued by:
- Drug Controller of India
- Custom collector
- State Drug Authority
- Director of health services
Answer ✔ (c) State Drug Authority
Explanation: State Drug authority issues license for chemist shop.
Question 362 of 743
Q.2 The Magic remedies act was passed in the year:
- 1954
- 1944
- 1920
- 1935
Answer ✔ (a) 1954
Explanation: The Magic remedies act was passed in the year 1954 and it came in the force in 1955. magic remedies are the different things like Kavachas, Talisman, Smoke, Mantras etc.
Question 363 of 743
Q.3 Cure for cancer is an example for following advertisement:
- Prohibited
- Exempted
- Bonafide
- Permitted
Answer ✔ (a) Prohibited
Explanation: Advertisements related to cure for cancer are strictly prohibited.
Question 364 of 743
Q.4 advertisements of prescription drugs are meant for:
- Physician
- Distributor
- Patient
- Retail Pharmacy
Answer ✔ (a) Physician
Explanation: Advertisements of prescription drugs are meant for physicians.
Question 365 of 743
Q.5 List of Ayurvedic poison is related to shedule
- E
- F and F1
- E1
- G
Answer ✔ (c) E1
Explanation: Shedule E1 is the list of ayurvedic poisons
Question 366 of 743
Q.6 Import of drug for personal use contain average dose up to:
- 200
- 150
- 100
- no limit
Answer ✔ (c) 100
Explanation: 100 doses may be imported for personal use.
Question 367 of 743
Q.7 The Records for the drugs having date of expiry should be preserved for a period of atleast:
- 5 years
- 2 years
- 1 year
- 6 months
Answer ✔ (b) 2 years
Explanation: the record of expiry drugs should be preserved for atleast 2 years.
Question 368 of 743
Q.8 Spurious' drugs means:
- Imitations
- Substitutes
- Resembled drugs
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Spurious drug means
i)the drug has been substituted wholly or in part by another drug or substance.
ii) It is an imitation.
Question 369 of 743
Q.9 Example of shedule G drug is:
- Tetracycline
- Glibenclamide
- Ibuprofen
- Paracetamol
Answer ✔ (b) Glibenclamide
Explanation: Glibenclamide is also known as Glyburide, covered in shedule G.
Question 370 of 743
Q.10 Biologicals are tested at:
- Mumbai
- Kilkata
- Chennai
- Kasauli
Answer ✔ (d) Kasauli
Explanation: Biologicals are tested at Kasauli.
Question 371 of 743
Q.11 A 20 weeks pregnancy can be terminated with the consent of:
- Doctor holding MBBS degree
- Doctor holding M.D. degree
- Gynecologist
- Two registered medical practitionars
Answer ✔ (d) Two registered medical practitionars
Explanation: Consent of two RMPs is required for determination of pregnancy between 12 to 20 weeks.
Question 372 of 743
Q.12 License for the Manufacture of medicinal and toilet preparation in bond are issued by:
- Custom collector
- Excise Commissioner
- Central Government
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Excise Commissioner
Explanation: Excise commissioner issues license for manufacture of medicinal and toilet preparation.
Question 373 of 743
Q.13 Opium straw include all parts except:
- Flower
- Stem
- Seed
- Root
Answer ✔ (c) Seed
Explanation: seeds are not considered opium straw
Question 374 of 743
Q.14 Shedule N indicates
- Drug used under medical supervision
- drugs marketed under generic names only
- Minimum equipments needed for retail pharmacy
- Life period of drugs
Answer ✔ (c) Minimum equipments needed for retail pharmacy
Explanation: Minimum equipments needed for reatail pharmacy are given in shedule N.
Question 375 of 743
Q.15 Which one of these disease does not belongs to Shedule J
- Leucoderma
- Diabetes
- Glaucoma
- Diphtheria
Answer ✔ (d) Diphtheria
Explanation: Diphtheria affects upper respiratory tract and suitable therapy exists for its prevention and cure.
Question 376 of 743
Q.16 D.T.A.B is constituted by:
- State Government
- P.C.I.
- DCTE
- Central government
Answer ✔ (d) Central government
Explanation: DTAB is a Drug Technical Advisory Board, constituted by central government.
Question 377 of 743
Q.17 Which colour is permitted in soaps?
- Phthalocyanine blue
- Citrus red number 2
- Rhodamine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: Different colours are permitted in soaps and shampoos.
Question 378 of 743
Q.18 Which of the following colours is a natural colour?
- Carotene
- Caramel
- Tartrazine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caramel
Explanation: Carotene is a photosynthetic pigment available naturally in plants. Caramel made by heating a variety of sugar, is an artificial colour and also used as flavouring agent. Tartrazine is a synthetic lemon yellow azo dye, used for food colouring.
Question 379 of 743
Q.19 Permission to initiate clinical trials with new drug is obtained by applying in :
- form number 22
- form number 12
- form number 11
- form number 20
Answer ✔ (b) form number 12
Explanation: form 12 is required to get permission to initiate clinical trials for new drugs.
Question 380 of 743
Q.20 Which drug is not shedule C1 drug?
- Digitalis
- Ergot
- Fish liver oil
- Streptomycin
Answer ✔ (d) Streptomycin
Explanation: Streptomycin is a bactericidal antibiotic, used in tuberculosis. It is a shedule H drug.
Question 381 of 743
Q.21 The tablet or capsules of drug specified in shedule X can be marketed in packing not exceeding?
- 200 unit doses
- 150 unit doses
- 100 unit doses
- 250 unit doses
Answer ✔ (c) 100 unit doses
Explanation: The packing sholud not be more than 100 unit doses for shedule X tablets or capsules.
Question 382 of 743
Q.22 Vaccine, Sera, Insulin, Chloramphenicol is included in shedule?
- Shedule C
- Shedule C1
- Shedule E
- Shedule L
Answer ✔ (a) Shedule C
Explanation: Biological products ar included in shedule C.
Question 383 of 743
Q.23 State pharmacy council should have the following no. of elected members?
- 6
- 9
- 5
- 7
Answer ✔ (a) 6
Explanation: six elected members should be in state pharmacy councils.
Question 384 of 743
Q.24 Import of cosmetic intended for use on the eye lash containing coaltar:
- Permitted
- Exempted
- Prohibited
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Prohibited
Explanation: Eye lash containing Coaltar can not be imported.
Question 385 of 743
Q.25 The area of the section to be used as dispensing department shall be not less than
- 4 sq. metres
- 6 sq. metres
- 10 sq. metres
- 8 sq. metres
Answer ✔ (b) 6 sq. metres
Explanation: dispensing part in pharmacy should not be less than 6 sq. m.
Question 386 of 743
Q.1 Which part of prescription contains information regarding the type and quality of dosage form?
- Subscription
- Inscription
- Superscription
- Signature
Answer ✔ (b) Inscription
Explanation: The inscription is also called the body of the prescription, and provides the names and quantities of the chief ingredients of the prescription e.g., tab, cap, suspension, syp.
Question 387 of 743
Q.2 The latin word Pulvis consperus is used for
- Powder
- Paste
- Ointment
- Dusting powder
Answer ✔ (d) Dusting powder
Explanation: Dusting powder is represented by Pulvis consperus.
Question 388 of 743
Q.3 Which one if these ingredients used in dusting powder, should be sterilised?
- Starch
- Kaolin
- Zinc oxide
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Kaolin
Explanation: Kaolin is rich in kaolinite, also called as china clay. It should be free from microbes.
Question 389 of 743
Q.4 Cataplasma is related to -
- Powder
- Poultice
- Cream
- Ointment
Answer ✔ (b) Poultice
Explanation: Poultice is also called cataplasm, is soft moist mass, often heated and medicated to treat inflamed/painful part of the body
Question 390 of 743
Q.5 Lemon spirit is used in the mixtures as -
- Vehicle
- Flavouring agent
- Preservative
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Flavouring agent
Explanation: Lemon spirit is used in mixtures as a flavouring agent to mask the unpleasant taste or odour of active ingredients.
Question 391 of 743
Q.6 what is the w/v percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P. ?
- 66.7
- 75
- 50
- 40
Answer ✔ (a) 66.7
Explanation: As per I.P. simple syrup contains 66.7 % w/v of sucrose.
Question 392 of 743
Q.7 Vehicle present in the linctuses is -
- Syrup
- Aromatic waters
- Water
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Syrup
Explanation: Linctus is meant for cough medicine, and formulated as viscous solution which contains sugar (syrup)
Question 393 of 743
Q.8 The label shake well before use is indicated on the mixture containing -
- Soluble medicaments
- Potent medicament
- Diffusible medicaments
- Miscible liquid
Answer ✔ (c) Diffusible medicaments
Explanation: Shaking is required to disperse the solid medicament in suspension, (diffusible medicament)
Question 394 of 743
Q.9 Paracetamol elixir is magenta red in colour due to presence which colouring agent?
- Tartrazine
- Compound tartrazine
- Amaranth
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Amaranth
Explanation: Amaranth belongs to Amaranthaceae family and closely related to genous celosia. It is a colouring agent and magenta in colour.
Question 395 of 743
Q.10 Which thickening agent is inorganic in nature?
- Acacia
- Compound tragacanth powder
- Bentonite
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Bentonite
Explanation: Bentonite is an absorbent aluminium phyllosilicate, essentially impure clay consisting mostly of montmorillonite.
Question 396 of 743
Q.11 Aqueous alcoholic solution of volatile oil is called?
- Aromatic water
- Elixirs
- Tinctures
- Spirits
Answer ✔ (d) Spirits
Explanation: Spirits are the alcoholic or hydrolytic solution of volatile substances.
Question 397 of 743
Q.12 O/W and W/O type of emulsion can be differentiated by -
- Miscibility test
- Staining test
- Dye test
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: The type of emulsions can be determined by dye and staining test, miscibility test, conductivity test etc.
Question 398 of 743
Q.13 Which is an anionic surfactant?
- Sodium lauryl sulphate
- Glycerol monostearate
- Tetradecyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
- Sorbitan mono oleate
Answer ✔ (a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
Explanation: Sodium lauryl sulphate is an anionic surfactant, and used in many cleaning and hygiene products.
Question 399 of 743
Q.14 The condensed product of oleic acid and ethylene oxide is called -
- Macrogol
- Cetomacrogol
- Polysorbates
- Spans
Answer ✔ (c) Polysorbates
Explanation: Polysorbates are the polymers of ethylene oxide with oleic acid. Also known as tween, canarecel, etc.
Question 400 of 743
Q.15 Name the suspending agent used in calamine lotion?
- ZnO
- Bentonite
- Sodium citrate
- Glycerol
Answer ✔ (b) Bentonite
Explanation: Bentonite is an adsorbents, aluminium phyllosilicate used as stabilizing or suspending agent in calamine lotion.
Question 401 of 743
Q.16 In non-staining iodine ointment, which ingredient is added to bind the iodine?
- Arachis oil
- Yellow soft paraffin
- Methyl salicylate
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Arachis oil
Explanation: Arachis oil is also known as peanut oil. This contains unsaturated fatty acids which combines with iodine.
Question 402 of 743
Q.17 Which fatty base is used in suppositories?
- Witespol
- Massupol
- Cocoa butter
- Soap glycerin base
Answer ✔ (c) Cocoa butter
Explanation: Cocoa butter is also called theobroma oil. It is edible vegetable oil extracted from the cocoa bean and used as base for suppositories.
Question 403 of 743
Q.18 In testosterone propionate injection, vehicle is -
- Apyrogenic water
- Seasome oil
- Polyethylene glycol
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Seasome oil
Explanation: Seasome oil is an edible vegetable oil, used as vehicle for testosterone injection preparation.
Question 404 of 743
Q.19 Which part of pyrogen elevates body temperature?
- Protein
- Lipopolysaccharide
- Lipid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Lipopolysaccharide
Explanation: Pyrogens are endotoxins or lipopolysaccharides, which elevate body temperature.
Question 405 of 743
Q.20 Mineral oil cannot be used as oily vehicle in injection because
- It is toxic
- It is not absorbed in the body
- It is incompatible
- It is not metabolised in body
Answer ✔ (a) It is toxic
Explanation: WHO refers mineral oil as group-1 carcinogens (toxic).
Question 406 of 743
Q.21 If the red blood cells are placed in 5% w/v sodium chloride solution then -
- Hemolysis occurs
- Shrinkage of cell occur
- Cells become more red
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Shrinkage of cell occur
Explanation: 5% w/v solution of sodium chloride is hypertonic solution, i which shrinkage of RBCs occurs. 0.9% w/v solution of NaCl is called isotonic with blood plasma. Above this concentration is hypertonic and below this range hypotonic. In hypertonic solution RBCs gets shrink and in hypotonic solution hemolysis of RBCs occurs.
Question 407 of 743
Q.22 Henderson - Hassel equation is related to
- Buffer solution
- Osmotic pressure
- Absorption
- Dissolution rate
Answer ✔ (a) Buffer solution
Explanation: Buffer solution is used to resist the pH. The Henderson-Hassel equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of a acidity in biological and chemical systems.
Question 408 of 743
Q.23 Hydroxymethyl cellulose is added in eye drops to -
- Enhance viscosity
- Maintain pH
- Provide isotonicity
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Enhance viscosity
Explanation: Hydroxymethyl cellusose is a semisynthetic, inert viscoelastic polymer, used as an opthalmic lubricant and to increase the viscosity of the solution.
Question 409 of 743
Q.24 Contact lenses are made up of -
- Polyvinyl alcohols
- Chitin
- Polymethyl methacrylate
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Polymethyl methacrylate
Explanation: Contact lenses are made uplp of hard plastic material called PMMA (polymethyl metharate
Question 410 of 743
Q.25 One fluid ounce is equal to
- 30ml
- 20 ml
- 25 ml
- 50 ml
Answer ✔ (a) 30ml
Explanation: One fluid ounce (1 Hoz) is equivalent to 30 ml.
Question 411 of 743
Q.26 Dioctyl sodium sulphosuccinate is used in toothpaste as:
- Sweetening agent
- Surface active agent
- Humectant
- Binder
Answer ✔ (b) Surface active agent
Explanation: Dioctyl sodium sulphosuccinate is used as an emulsifying and dispersing agent (surfactant).
Question 412 of 743
Q.27 Sustained released tablet is designed to -
- Disintegrate slowly in G.I. tract
- Release the medicaments slowly
- Reduce toxic effect
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Release the medicaments slowly
Explanation: Medicaments released over a long period of time from a sustained release tablet.
Question 413 of 743
Q.28 Adhesion of tablet material to a die wall is called
- Mottling
- Sticking
- Picking
- Capping
Answer ✔ (b) Sticking
Explanation: Sticking refers to a tablet material adhering to the die wall.
Question 414 of 743
Q.29 Which one of these is an example of 'ayurvedic drug?
- Arks
- Bhasmas
- Asavas
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: Arks, Asavas, Bhasmas, etc are Ayurvedic preparations .
Question 415 of 743
Q.30 Which machine is used for making soft gelatin capsules?
- Dry cota
- Rotary dye process
- Rotary punch machine
- Press cota
Answer ✔ (b) Rotary dye process
Explanation: Rotary dye process is used for making soft gelatin capsules. Soft gelatin capsules consists of a gelatin based shell surrounding a liquid fill.
Question 416 of 743
Q.1 Type of emulsion produced with bees wax is -
- O/W
- W/O
- Both type
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) W/O
Explanation: Bees wax is used as emulsion stabilizers than agents, used with borax in sodium cerotate in cold cream (W/O) . It is a natural emulgent.
Question 417 of 743
Q.2 An example of physical incompatibility is -
- Milk + water
- Sugar + water
- Camphor + menthol
- Sodium chloride + water
Answer ✔ (c) Camphor + menthol
Explanation: Physical incompatibility accounts to physical changes including liquefaction by mixing of two or more compounds as in eutectic powders like camphor, menthol, thymol etc.
Question 418 of 743
Q.3 Moist granules are dried at
- 50℃
- 90℃
- 80℃
- 60℃
Answer ✔ (a) 50℃
Explanation: To avoid liberation of water of hydration of the drug the moist granules are dried at low temperature (50℃).
Question 419 of 743
Q.4 The latin word Primo mane means -
- Every morning
- Early in the morning
- In the morning
- At night
Answer ✔ (b) Early in the morning
Explanation: Primo mane means 'early in the morning', Mane means 'in the morning'
Question 420 of 743
Q.5 Simple syrup B.P. contains sugar in percenetage is-
- 85%
- 60%
- 75%
- 50%
Answer ✔ (a) 85%
Explanation: Simple syrup, USP and BP contains w/v of 85 to 87% w/v of sugar.
Question 421 of 743
Q.6 Which one of these is present in compound sulphur lotion as wetting agent?
- Talc
- Quillaia tincture
- Zinc oxide
- Sodium citrate
Answer ✔ (b) Quillaia tincture
Explanation: Wetting agents suitable for lotions include quillaia tincture, as used in compound sulphur lotion.
Question 422 of 743
Q.7 Which type of surfactants have both hydrophobic and hydrophilic portion?
- Anionic surfactants
- Cationic surfactants
- Non-ionic surfactants
- Sodium soap
Answer ✔ (c) Non-ionic surfactants
Explanation: Surfactants are compounds that lower the surface tension between liquids or in between liquids and solids. Non ionic surfactants have both hydrophobic and hydrophilic portion.
Question 423 of 743
Q.8 Span 80 is name given to -
- Sorbitan mono laurate
- Sorbitan mono stearate
- Sorbitan mono oleate
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Sorbitan mono oleate
Explanation: span-80 is an emulsifier often used in cosmetics. It is sorbitan mono oleate. Span-20 and span-60 are reffered to as sorbitan mono laureate and sorbitan mono stearate, respectively.
Question 424 of 743
Q.9 Hypodermic injection is given in -
- Subcutaneous tissue
- Deltoid muscle
- Subarachnoid tissue
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Subcutaneous tissue
Explanation: Hypodermic injections like insulin injection are given in subcutaneous tissue.
Question 425 of 743
Q.10 Pharmagel A is obtained by :
- Acid hydrolysis
- Enzymatic hydrolysis
- Basic hydrolysis
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Acid hydrolysis
Explanation: Acid hydrolysis refers hydrolysis via nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Question 426 of 743
Q.11 The temperature at which blood plasma and tears freeze is -
- - 0.122 ℃
- - 0.3 ℃
- - 0.52 ℃
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) - 0.52 ℃
Explanation: The plasma, blood and tears freezing point is 0.52 ℃.
Question 427 of 743
Q.12 Extraction of vegetables drug with cold or boiling water for short time is called
- Tincture
- Infusion
- Percolate
- Spirit
Answer ✔ (b) Infusion
Explanation: Infusion is the process of extracting chemical compounds from plant material such as water or alcohol, by allowing the material to remain suspended in the solvent over time.
Question 428 of 743
Q.13 in capsules ROTOSORT is used for -
- Filling powders into capsules
- Filling pallets into capsules
- Filling liquids into capsules
- Sorting the unfilled capsules
Answer ✔ (d) Sorting the unfilled capsules
Explanation: ROTOSORT is used to seprate unfilled capsules.
Question 429 of 743
Q.14 Lozenges are also known as
- Buccal tablets
- Pessaries
- Troches
- Pastilles
Answer ✔ (a) Buccal tablets
Explanation: Lozenges are small medicated tablets intended to be dissolved slowly in the mouth.
Question 430 of 743
Q.15 Enteric coated tablets are meant for disintegration in -
- Stomach
- Mouth
- Intestine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Stomach
Explanation: Enteric coating is a polymer barrier applied on the oral medication which prevents the disintegration in stomach.
Question 431 of 743
Q.16 Dextrose injection is sterilised by
- Hot air oven
- Autoclave
- Tyndallization
- Pasteurization
Answer ✔ (b) Autoclave
Explanation: Dextrose injection is indicated as a source of water and calories. It is sterilised by autoclaving.
Question 432 of 743
Q.17 Youngs formula for dose calculation is -
- \({Age \ in \ years \over Age \ in \ years + 12} × adult dose\)
- \({Age \over 20} × adult \ dose\)
- Weight of the child in lbs/150 × adult dose
- Age in months / 150 × adult dose
Answer ✔ (a) \({Age \ in \ years \over Age \ in \ years + 12} × adult dose\)
Explanation: Youngs formula is used to calculating doses for children under 12 years of age
Dose of child = \({Age \ in \ years \over Age \ in \ years + 12} × adult dose\)
Question 433 of 743
Q.18 Talc is used in the preparation of aromatic water as a
- Vehicle
- Distributive agent
- Medicament
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Distributive agent
Explanation: Talc is mineral composed of hydrated magnesium silicate. Talc is impregnated with the essential oils, which aids the solution of the oil by causing its division into very small particles.
Question 434 of 743
Q.19 Amorphous forms of drugs are
- Usually less soluble than crystalline forms
- Usually more soluble than crystal form.
- Also called solvents
- Practically insoluble
Answer ✔ (b) Usually more soluble than crystal form.
Explanation: Amorphous forms are also known as non-crystalline forms. This form is more soluble than crystal form.
Question 435 of 743
Q.20 Shrinkage of gel by extrusion of liquid is called -
- Dilatancy
- Plasticity
- Ebullition
- Syneresis
Answer ✔ (d) Syneresis
Explanation: Syneresis is the spontaneous separation or extraction of the solid and liquid component of a gel.
Question 436 of 743
Q.21 In situ salt formation is a technique used in drug therapy to overcome -
- Lack of solubility of salt
- Poor absorption
- Chemical instability
- Complexation problems
Answer ✔ (c) Chemical instability
Explanation: Chemical instability refers to the susceptibility of the chemical to dangerous decomposition.
Question 437 of 743
Q.22 Disposable syringes are made up of -
- Polypropylene
- Transparent polystyrene
- Glass
- Poly tetrachloro ethylene
Answer ✔ (a) Polypropylene
Explanation: Disposable syringes are made up of polypropylene (plastic).
Question 438 of 743
Q.23 Fine droplets of nasal sprays are produced by using -
- Nebuliser
- Atomiser
- Propellent
- Sprayer
Answer ✔ (b) Atomiser
Explanation: Fine droplets of viscous liquids obtained by atomiser.
Question 439 of 743
Q.24 The process of grinding a substance to very fine powder is termed -
- Trituration
- Sublimation
- Percolation
- Levigation
Answer ✔ (d) Levigation
Explanation: Levigation is the process of grinding a substance to very fine powder.
Question 440 of 743
Q.25 The ideal antiseptic concentration of ethyl alcohol is -
- 95%
- 100%
- 70%
- 50%
Answer ✔ (c) 70%
Explanation: Ethyl alcohol in the concentration of 70% v/v acts as an ideal antiseptic agent.
Question 441 of 743
Q.26 Urethral suppositories are also called as -
- Pessaries
- Nasal bougies
- Bougies
- Suppositories
Answer ✔ (c) Bougies
Explanation: Urethral suppositories are called bougies that are pencil shaped and pointed at one end to facilitate insertion into male and female urethra.
Question 442 of 743
Q.27 The substance added to form deflocculated suspensions is -
- Suspending agent
- Wetting agent
- Electrolytes
- Dispersing agents
Answer ✔ (a) Suspending agent
Explanation: Suspending agents like methyl cellulose, cmc, acacia, gelatin, tragacanth, are used to prepare deflocculated suspension.
Question 443 of 743
Q.28 Which is not a mineral hydrocolloid?
- Veegum
- Colloidal silica
- Colloidal alumina
- Tragacanth
Answer ✔ (d) Tragacanth
Explanation: Tragacanth is a natural gum, obtained from the several species of genus astragalus. Veegum is an acidic smectile clay.
Question 444 of 743
Q.29 Number of fluid ounce present in one pint is -
- 15
- 20
- 30
- 40
Answer ✔ (b) 20
Explanation: 1 pint = 20 fluid ounces
Question 445 of 743
Q.30 The symbol ℞ is written in which part of the prescription?
- Inscription
- Superscription
- Subscription
- Signature
Answer ✔ (b) Superscription
Explanation: The symbol ℞ means 'you take' is written before writing the prescription (in superscription).
Question 446 of 743
Q.1 Diflunisal is a diflourophenyl derivative of -
- Acetic acid
- Propionic acid
- Salicylic acid
- Pyrazole
Answer ✔ (c) Salicylic acid
Explanation: Diflunisal is an analgesic drug, a derivative of salicylic acid. Brand name dolobid.
Question 447 of 743
Q.2 Drug used in gout is -
- Ibuprofen
- Oxyphenbutazone
- Indomethacin
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Indomethacin
Explanation: Indomethacin is the drug of choice in gout. It is one among the synthetic drug.
Question 448 of 743
Q.3 Oxyphenbutazone is active metabolite of following -
- Sulphinpyrazole
- Pyrazole
- Phenylbutazone
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Phenylbutazone
Explanation: Phenylbutazone is metabolised in liver to oxyphenebutazone, which also pharmacologically active.
Question 449 of 743
Q.4 Carbomal, used in mild insomnia is a -
- Monoguanide
- Barbiturate
- Monoureides
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Monoureides
Explanation: Carbomol is belongs to the class monoureides and it is used for mild sleep disorder (insomnia).
Question 450 of 743
Q.5 Cocaine is rarely used due to its -
- Toxicity
- Irritatant action
- Toxicity and addiction
- Incompatibility
Answer ✔ (c) Toxicity and addiction
Explanation: Use of cocaine is restricted due to its addiction (habit forming properties)
Question 451 of 743
Q.6 Largactil is a a common name for -
- Prochlorperazine
- Chlorpromazine
- Perphenazine
- Promethazine
Answer ✔ (b) Chlorpromazine
Explanation: Chlorpromazine is belongs to antipsychotic class (dopamine antagonist)
Question 452 of 743
Q.7 Which drug is preferred to give to bed wetted children?
- Amitriptyline
- Imipramine
- Phenelzine
- Isocarboxazide
Answer ✔ (b) Imipramine
Explanation: Imipramine is a Tricyclic antidepressant drug used for bed wetting.
Question 453 of 743
Q.8 Which one of these drug is mono-amine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor?
- Imipramine
- Lithium citrate
- Amitriptyline
- Tranylcypromine
Answer ✔ (d) Tranylcypromine
Explanation: MAO inhibitors are used in depression. They includes tranylcypromine, phenelgine, isocarboxazide, linezolid etc.
Question 454 of 743
Q.9 Caffeine is a -
- 3,7-dimethyl xanthene
- 1,3,7-trimethyl xanthene
- 1,3-dimethyl xanthene
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) 1,3,7-trimethyl xanthene
Explanation: Caffeine is 1,3,7-trimethyl xanthene, theophylline is 1,3-dimethyl xanthene and theobromine is 1,3- dimethyl xanthene.
Question 455 of 743
Q.10 Parkinsonism occurs due to -
- Excess of dopamine
- Depletion of dopamine
- Depletion of epinephrine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Depletion of dopamine
Explanation: The loss of dopamine in brain is cause for parkinson's disease.
Question 456 of 743
Q.11 Naphazoline is used in -
- Asthma
- Hypotension
- Nasal congestion
- Hay fever
Answer ✔ (c) Nasal congestion
Explanation: Naphazoline is a sympathomimetic agent. It is used as nasal decongestion agent.
Question 457 of 743
Q.12 Hyoscine (scopolamine) differs structurally from atropine -
- Hyoscine is not a ester
- Hyoscine is an ester of different alcohol and tropic acid
- Hyoscine possesses epoxide linkage between carbon 6 and 7
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Hyoscine possesses epoxide linkage between carbon 6 and 7
Explanation: Scopolamine and atropine both are tropane alkaloids. Presence of epoxide linkage between carbon 6 and 7 is the structural difference between these two. (See image below)
Question 458 of 743
Q.13 Quinidine acts as antiarrhythmic drug by -
- Calcium channel blockade
- β -receptor blockade
- Sodium channel blockade
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Sodium channel blockade
Explanation: Quinidine is a stereoisomer of quinine. It acts by blocking sodium channels.
Question 459 of 743
Q.14 Propranolol, atenolol, and metoprolol are similar in structure due to possession of-
- Basic nucleus
- Side chain (2-hydroxy-3-isopropylaminopropoxy)
- Alkyl group
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Side chain (2-hydroxy-3-isopropylaminopropoxy)
Explanation: The side chain is same in metaprolol, atenolol, and propranolol. All these three are β -blockers.
Question 460 of 743
Q.15 Mannitol acts as diuretic by-
- Increasing the osmotic pressor in renal tubule
- Increasing the rate if glomerular filtration
- Inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium ion
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Increasing the osmotic pressor in renal tubule
Explanation: Mannitol (manna sugar) is used clinically as diuretic and acts as osmotic agents (osmotherapy).
Question 461 of 743
Q.16 Sulphonylureas act as oral hypoglycaemic agent by -
- Increasing the metabolism of carbohydrate
- Utilising the Glucose
- Stimulating insulin secretion
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Stimulating insulin secretion
Explanation: Sulphonylureas are the class of anti-diabetic drugs (type 2 diabetes) they act by increasing insulin release from beta cells of pancreases.
Question 462 of 743
Q.17 Antithyroid drugs decrease the synthesis of thyroxine by -
- Decreasing the availability of amino acid
- Destroying the cell in thyroid gland
- Interfering with incorporation of iodide thyroglobulin
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Interfering with incorporation of iodide thyroglobulin
Explanation: Antithyroid drugs (carbimazole, methimazole, and propyl thiouracil) act by inhibiting iodination of thyroglobulin.
Question 463 of 743
Q.18 Which one of these is an anabolic steroid?
- Testosterone propionate
- Fluxymesterone
- Stanozolol
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Stanozolol
Explanation: Stanozolol, danozol, nandrolone, metenolone etc. are anabolic steroids.
Question 464 of 743
Q.19 Hydrocortisone differ from cortisone in possessing -
- Basic nucleus
- Double bond
- Hydroxy group in place of keto group at C-11
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Hydroxy group in place of keto group at C-11
Explanation: At the C-11 position cortisone has C>=O group and hydrocortisone has >-OH group
Question 465 of 743
Q.20 Sulphonamides act as antibacterial drug due to -
- Free amino group
- Sulphonamide group
- Benzene nucleus
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Free amino group
Explanation: The free amino group in sulphonamides is responsible for their abtibacterial action.
Question 466 of 743
Q.21 The structure of penicillin consists of
- Thiozolidine
- β -lactam
- Thiazolidine and β -lactam ring
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Thiazolidine and β -lactam ring
Explanation: Penicillin consists of thiazolidine and β - lactam ring.
Question 467 of 743
Q.22 Which one if these antibiotics is effective in the treatment of intestinal amoebiasis?
- Streptomycin
- Paromomycin
- Ampicillin
- Chloramphenicol
Answer ✔ (b) Paromomycin
Explanation: Paromomycin is an aminoglycosides antibiotic, used to treat intestinal amoebiasis infections.
Question 468 of 743
Q.23 Vermox is a common brand for -
- Thiabendazole
- Piperazine
- Mebendazole
- Metronidazole
Answer ✔ (c) Mebendazole
Explanation: Vermox is the brand name for mebendazole which is anti-worm (anthelmintic) drug.
Question 469 of 743
Q.24 Which one of these drugs is used as an opthalmic diagnostic agent?
- Fluorescein sodium
- Congo red
- Methelene blue
- Indigo carmine
Answer ✔ (a) Fluorescein sodium
Explanation: Fluoresceine is orange red, non toxic and acidic dye of xanthene series. It is used as opthalmic diagnostic agents.
Question 470 of 743
Q.25 Evans blue is used to determine -
- Liver function
- kidney function
- Blood volume
- Ulceration in Eye cornea
Answer ✔ (c) Blood volume
Explanation: Evans blue is an azo dye which has very high affinity for serum albumin. Because of thus it is used to determine blood volume.
Question 471 of 743
Q.26 Which one of these vitamin is a naphthaquinone derivative?
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin K
- Vitamin D
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K is a group of structurally similar fat soluble vitamins having naphthaquinone ring (vitamin K1 and K2)
Question 472 of 743
Q.27 Chemical structure of halothene is-
- CH3-CHBrCl
- CF3 -CHCl-O-CHF2
- C3H7 - O- CH3
- CHF.Cl-CF2-OCHF2
Answer ✔ (a) CH3-CHBrCl
Explanation: Halothane (Fluothane) is an inhalant general anesthatic.chemically it is 2-bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1-trifluoroethane.
Question 473 of 743
Q.28 The number of nitrogen atom in benzimidazole is :
- 2 in the same ring
- 3 in the same ring
- 1 in the five membered ring
- 2 in the different ring
Answer ✔ (a) 2 in the same ring
Explanation: 2 nitogen atoms are present in one ring (same ring) of benzimidazole.
Question 474 of 743
Q.29 which one of these antineoplastic (anticancer) drugs contains platinum?
- Nitrogen mustard
- Busulphan
- Cisplatin
- Daunorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Cisplatin
Explanation: Cisplatin is diamino-dichloro-platinum, anticancer drug. Now also include carbaplatin, oxaloplatin.
Question 475 of 743
Q.30 The organophosphate poisoning is treated by
- Neostigmine
- Physostigmine
- Pralidoxime
- Pyridostigmine
Answer ✔ (c) Pralidoxime
Explanation: Pralidoxime is used to treat the poisoning caused by organophosphate and ACH inhibitors.
Question 476 of 743
Q.1 Commonly used amide type of local anesthetic agent is
- Procaine
- Benzocaine
- Amethocaine
- Lignocaine
Answer ✔ (d) Lignocaine
Explanation: Lignocaine is most commonly used anesthetic. It is commonly known as xylocaine and its belongs to amide class.
Question 477 of 743
Q.2 Adrenaline (vasoconstrictor) is used with procaine hydrochloride injection to -
- Increase the activity of procaine
- Prolong the duration of anesthetic action
- Reduce the toxicity
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Prolong the duration of anesthetic action
Explanation: Adrenaline is a adrenergic drug, causes vasoconstriction so decrease area of absorption of drug.
Question 478 of 743
Q.3 Mogadone, hypnotic drug is brand name of -
- Lorazepam
- Nitrazepam
- Methaqualone
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Nitrazepam
Explanation: Nitrazepam is a hypnotic drug under benzodiazepines class is available in the market under the brand name of mogadone, nitravet, sedamon, hypnotext etc. it is used for treatment of insomnia (sleeping desorder).
Question 479 of 743
Q.4 which one of these is not true for pilocarpine?
- It is naturally occuring alkaloid
- Used for teatment of glaucoma
- It is a cholinergic antagonist
- It contains imidazole nucleus
Answer ✔ (c) It is a cholinergic antagonist
Explanation: Pilocarpine is not a cholinergic antagonist.
Question 480 of 743
Q.5 Pseudoephedrine differs from ephedrine in -
- Chemical structure
- Isomerism
- Activity
- Activity and isomerism
Answer ✔ (d) Activity and isomerism
Explanation: Pseudoephedrine is a diasteromer of of ephedrine. The activity us also different from ephedrine.
Question 481 of 743
Q.6 Digoxin contains hydroxyl groups at position-
- 3 and 12
- 3 and 14
- 3, 12 and 14
- 3, 12 and 15
Answer ✔ (c) 3, 12 and 14
Explanation: Digoxin has 3 hydroxyl groups in the steroidal nucleus at 3, 12 and 14 positions.
Question 482 of 743
Q.7 Lasix is the common brand name for
- Furosemide
- Ethacrynic acid
- Sprinolactone
- Hydrochlorthiazide
Answer ✔ (a) Furosemide
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic (ceiling diuretics) and available under the brand names lasix, furid, frumex, etc.
Question 483 of 743
Q.8 Which one of these contain benzhydryl group?
- Histamine
- Diphenhydramine
- Dimenhydrinate
- Both option (b) and (c)
Answer ✔ (d) Both option (b) and (c)
Explanation: Diphenhydramine and dimenhydrinate both contain benzhydryl group. (Below is the image showing the structure of diphenhydramine HCl containing benzhydryl group.)
Question 484 of 743
Q.9 The piperidine ring skeleton is present in
- Pantazocine
- Levorphan
- Pethidine
- Nalorphine
Answer ✔ (c) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine (mepridine) is a synthetic opioid analgesic of piperidine class.
Question 485 of 743
Q.10 Paracetamol is marketed as -
- Tylenol
- Calpol
- Crocin
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is available under the brand names tylenol, calpol, Crocin, PCM, dolo etc.
Question 486 of 743
Q.11 Which drug has the antiserotonin activity?
- Cyproheptadine
- Promethazine
- Terfinadine
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Cyproheptadine
Explanation: Cyproheptadine (periactin, peritol, etc.) is an antihistaminic with additional anti cholinergic , antiserotonergic, and local anesthetic properties.
Question 487 of 743
Q.12 Which is the non acidic anti-inflammatory agent?
- Oxyphenbutazone
- Ibuprofen
- Piroxicam
- Nabumetone
Answer ✔ (d) Nabumetone
Explanation: Nabumetone is a nonacidic NSAID prodrug that is rapidly metabolized in the liver to the active metabolite, 6-methoxy-2-naphthyl acetic acid. It is available with the brand name nabuflam.
Question 488 of 743
Q.13 Which one of these antitubercular drugs contain pyridine nucleus?
- Isoniazid
- Pyrizinamide
- Ethionamide
- Cycloserine
Answer ✔ (c) Ethionamide
Explanation: Ethionamide contains pyridine nucleus.
Question 489 of 743
Q.14 Erythromycin will be unstable at pH
- 8
- 9
- 4
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) 4
Explanation: Erythromycin is unstable in acidic medium (pH < 7).
Question 490 of 743
Q.15 The chemical name for metronidazole is
- 2-methyl-5- nitro-1H-imidazole-1-ethanol
- 2-methyl- 5-nitro-1H-imidazole-1-methanol
- 2-methyl-5-nitro-2H-imidazole-1-ethanol
- 2-methyl-5-nitro-1H-imidazole-1- methanol
Answer ✔ (a) 2-methyl-5- nitro-1H-imidazole-1-ethanol
Explanation: Metronidazole is 2-methyl-5- nitro-1H-imidazole-1-ethanol and it is antibacterial and antiprotozoal agent. Brand name - flagyl
Question 491 of 743
Q.16 The clofibrate is used in -
- type iii hyperlipoproteinemia
- Hypertension
- vascular problems
- Raynauds disease
Answer ✔ (a) type iii hyperlipoproteinemia
Explanation: Clofibrate is a lipid lowering agent indicated in hyperlipoproteinemia (type III).
Question 492 of 743
Q.17 Which of these has azocinyl moiety?
- Guanethidine
- Clofibrate
- Quinidine
- Quinine
Answer ✔ (a) Guanethidine
Explanation: Guanethidine is an antihypertensive drug. It has azocinyl moiety in its structure.
Question 493 of 743
Q.18 The muscle relaxant 'meprobamate' is a derivative of -
- Dicarbamate
- Dioic acid
- Diamine
- Diol
Answer ✔ (a) Dicarbamate
Explanation: Meprobamate is dicarbamate. it is used as skeletal muscle relaxant.
Question 494 of 743
Q.19 Which one of these is not a mydriatic agent?
- Atropine
- Homatropine
- Tropicamide
- Hyoscyamine
Answer ✔ (d) Hyoscyamine
Explanation: Hyoscyamine is not a mydriatic agent. Mydriatic agents are drugs which can dilate the pupil of eye. Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide are tropane alkaloids and mydriatic agents. Hyoscyamine is also a tropane alkaloid but it is not a mydriatic agent.
Question 495 of 743
Q.20 The chemical name 1,1-oxybisethane belongs to -
- Dimethyl ether
- Diethyl ether
- Methyl ethyl ether
- Cyclopropyl ether
Answer ✔ (b) Diethyl ether
Explanation: Diethyl ether is ethoxy ether or 3-oxapentane or 1,1-oxybisethane.
Question 496 of 743
Q.21 The pentothal sodium is a -
- Local anesthetic
- Intravenous anesthetic
- General anesthetic
- Hypnotic
Answer ✔ (b) Intravenous anesthetic
Explanation: Pentothal sodium (thiopental sodium) is a short acting barbiturates and used as Intravenous (i.v.) Anesthetic agents.
Question 497 of 743
Q.22 The prefix 'sila' is used for
- Sulphur
- Silicon
- Selenium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Silicon
Explanation: Silicon is represented by the prefix 'sila'.
Question 498 of 743
Q.23 Which one of these sulpha drug possess guanidine, used in bacillary dysentery?
- Sulphadiazine
- Sulphadimidine
- Sulphaguanidine
- Sulphasomidine
Answer ✔ (c) Sulphaguanidine
Explanation: Sulphaguanidine is used in bacillary dysentery. It is a veterinary drug.
Question 499 of 743
Q.24 The basic ring present in estradiol (female sex hormone) -
- 5 α - androstane
- 5 α - estrane
- 5 α - pregnane
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) 5 α - estrane
Explanation: The basic steroidal ring in estradiol is 5 α - estrane.
Question 500 of 743
Q.25 Two polypeptide chain in insulin is linked together by -
- Hydrogen bond
- Disulphide bond
- Covalent bond
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Disulphide bond
Explanation: Insulin is a dimer of an A- chain and a B- chain, which are linked together by disulphide bond.
Question 501 of 743
Q.26 Acetazolamide, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, is used in
- Glaucoma
- Hypertension
- Bacterial infection
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Glaucoma
Explanation: Acetazolamide (diamox) is used in glaucoma to reduce intra-ocular pressure.
Question 502 of 743
Q.27 One of the anti-rheumatic drug owes its activity due to its sulphide metabolites -
- Indomethacin
- Sulindac
- Ketoprofen
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Sulindac
Explanation: Sulindac is related to indomethacin and has good anti-inflammatory action due to its sulphide metabolites.
Question 503 of 743
Q.28 Which one of these drug is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?
- Tranylcypromine
- Phenelzine
- Isocarboxazide
- Trimipramine
Answer ✔ (d) Trimipramine
Explanation: Imipramine, chlopramine and trimipramine are Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) drugs.
Question 504 of 743
Q.29 Aminophylline is salt of ethylenediamine with -
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Theophylline
Explanation: Aminophylline is a compound of theophylline and ethylene di amine in 2:1 ratio. It is a bronchodilator containing 2 parts of theophylline and 1 part of ethylene di amine.
Question 505 of 743
Q.30 The diagnostic agent propyliodone is used for -
- Urography
- Bronchography
- Arteriography
- Myelography
Answer ✔ (b) Bronchography
Explanation: Propyliodone (Dionosil) is used as contrast media in bronchography.
Question 506 of 743
Q.1 Poultry farms comes under which industry?
- Extractive industries
- Genetic industries
- Manufacturing industries
- Construction industries
Answer ✔ (b) Genetic industries
Explanation: Genetic industries are such industries in which certain species of plants and animals are multiplied and reproduced.
Question 507 of 743
Q.2 A type of account relating to losses and incomes is:
- Personal
- Real
- Nominal
- Profit and loss
Answer ✔ (c) Nominal
Explanation: Nominal accounts in accounting are the temporary account such as the income statement accounts.
Question 508 of 743
Q.3 In VED analysis D stands for-
- Data of receipt of items
- Desirable item
- Deviation of stock
- Daily desired item
Answer ✔ (b) Desirable item
Explanation: VED analysis is vital, essential, and desirable analysis employed in inventory control.
Question 509 of 743
Q.4 alpha numeric codification is suitable for a -
- Large scale organisation
- Small scale organisation
- Medium scale organisation
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Large scale organisation
Explanation: Alpha numeric codification is a coding system suitable for large scale organisation, e.g. Car Numbers.
Question 510 of 743
Q.5 Purchase indent is an -
- External document
- Internal document
- Legal document
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Internal document
Explanation: Purchase indent is a document that is used by the company internally that authorize the purchasing of products and material needed by the company.
Question 511 of 743
Q.6 Economic order quantity (EOQ) aims at minimizing -
- Carrying cost
- Ordering cost
- Both of carrying cost and ordering cost
- Suppliers price
Answer ✔ (c) Both of carrying cost and ordering cost
Explanation: EOQ aims to minimize carrying cost and ordering cost.
Question 512 of 743
Q.7 Which of the method of advertisement is suitable for uneducated media?
- Magazines
- Audio visual
- News papers
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Audio visual
Explanation: Audiovisuals refers to work with both a sound and visual component. This method is suitable for uneducated peoples.
Question 513 of 743
Q.8 The business financial year in India ends on -
- March 31st
- December 31st
- July 31st
- March 31st and December 31st
Answer ✔ (a) March 31st
Explanation: A financial year in India generally ends on 31st march.
Question 514 of 743
Q.9 Patent, copyright, trademarks comes under which type of assets?
- Current assets
- Intangible assets
- Tangible assets
- Miscellaneous assets
Answer ✔ (b) Intangible assets
Explanation: Intangible assets are identifiable long term assets of the company having no physical existence.
Question 515 of 743
Q.10 Uniform part of a loan raised by a company is known as -
- Public deposit
- Equity shares
- Debentures
- Borrowed capital
Answer ✔ (c) Debentures
Explanation: Debentures is a document that either creates a debt or acknowledge it and it is debt without collateral.
Question 516 of 743
Q.11 Induction training is meant for -
- Existing employees
- New employees
- Both (a) and (b)
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) New employees
Explanation: Induction training is a type of training given as an initial preparation upon taking up a post (new employees)
Question 517 of 743
Q.12 Bank is an organisation which deals in -
- Deposits
- Loans
- Money
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Bank is an organisation which deals different matters related to money like deposit, loan, interest, etc.
Question 518 of 743
Q.13 What is a pooled commission?
- Share of commission on total profit
- Equal share of commission on total sale
- Equal share of commission on annual total sale
- Straight salary plus bonus on sale
Answer ✔ (b) Equal share of commission on total sale
Explanation: Pooled commission is the equal share of commission on total sale .
Question 519 of 743
Q.14 Drug samples worth Rs. 5,000 were distributed to physicians. The amount should be debited to -
- Sales account
- Samples account
- Advertisement account
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Advertisement account
Explanation: Advertising account executes work withing advertising or multiservices agencies acting as a link between clients and the agency.
Question 520 of 743
Q.15 Credit balance of a ledger account is denoted by -
- Excess of credit side over debit side
- Excess of debit side over credit side
- Equally of debit and credit
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Excess of credit side over debit side
Explanation: Excess of credit side over debit side is called credit balance.
Question 521 of 743
Q.16 The exchange of goods between foreign producers and foreign consumer comes under -
- Import and export trade
- Import trade
- Entrepot trade
- External trade
Answer ✔ (c) Entrepot trade
Explanation: Entrepot trade in which imported goods are re-exported with or without any additional processing or repackaging.
Question 522 of 743
Q.17 Indian contract act was passed in -
- 1992
- 1872
- 1972
- 1892
Answer ✔ (b) 1872
Explanation: The indian contract act was passed in 1872.
Question 523 of 743
Q.18 Scrap and surplus disposal helps to -
- Reduce investments
- Release surplus funds
- Make available funds
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Disposal of scrap and surplus items helps in gaining funds, reducing investment, space sparing etc.
Question 524 of 743
Q.19 The Imprest system is used in relation to -
- Sales book
- Purchase book
- Petty cash book
- Journal
Answer ✔ (c) Petty cash book
Explanation: Imprest system is a form of financial accounting system. The most common imprest system is the petty cash system.
Question 525 of 743
Q.20 In fund flow system the term 'fund' means -
- Cash
- Current assets
- Current liabilities
- Current liabilities - current assets
Answer ✔ (d) Current liabilities - current assets
Explanation: Fund means current liabilities and current assets in fund flow statement.
Question 526 of 743
Q.21 A budget is a -
- Financial statement
- Quantitative statement
- A report only
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Quantitative statement
Explanation: A budget is a quantitative expression of a plan for defined period of time.
Question 527 of 743
Q.22 in the journal data is recorded on the basis of -
- Account
- Nature
- Year
- Transaction
Answer ✔ (d) Transaction
Explanation: the unit of classification of data within the journal is the transaction. In the journal the data is recorded on the basis of transaction.
Question 528 of 743
Q.23 A person who is interested to start a retail drug store must be -
- D.Pharmacy
- Registered Pharmacist
- Chemist
- Druggist
Answer ✔ (b) Registered Pharmacist
Explanation: Registered Pharmacist is licensed to start a retail drug store.
Question 529 of 743
Q.24 Which one is not the function of management?
- Planning
- Organising
- Crediting
- Staffing
Answer ✔ (c) Crediting
Explanation: Management includes planning, organising, staffing, leading and controlling an organisation to accomplish the goal.
Question 530 of 743
Q.25 Open tender means -
- Major tender
- Moderate tender
- Minor tender
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Major tender
Explanation: Open tender is also known as competitive tender, public tender and major tender.
Question 531 of 743
Q.26 The form of cheque for which we cannot get cash in hand is -
- Bearer cheque
- Order cheque
- Crossed cheque
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Crossed cheque
Explanation: Crossed cheque is a cheque marked to specify an instruction about the way it is to be redeemed. One can not get cash in hand through a crossed cheque.
Question 532 of 743
Q.27 The maximum number of partners allowed in a general business -
- 10
- 20
- 50
- 100
Answer ✔ (b) 20
Explanation: Maximum 20 partners are allowed in a general business.
Question 533 of 743
Q.28 The perpetual inventory system includes-
- Bin card
- Stores ledger
- Continuous stock taking
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Perpetual inventory is also known as continuous inventory, described system of inventory where information on inventory quality and availability is updated on a continuous basis as a function of doing business. A bin card and store ledger are common elements in a perpetual inventory system.
Question 534 of 743
Q.29 Commerce is a term involved in -
- Earning profit
- Buying and selling of goods
- Managing work
- Providing finance
Answer ✔ (b) Buying and selling of goods
Explanation: Commerce is a whole system of an economy that constitute an environment for business (buying and selling of goods).
Question 535 of 743
Q.30 Formula of debt equity ratio is -
- Net profit after tax
- Owners equity
- Total liabilities / shareholders equity
- Internal equity / external equity
Answer ✔ (c) Total liabilities / shareholders equity
Explanation: Debt equity ratio is used to measure relative claims of creditors and owners. It is Total liabilities by stockholders equity.
Question 536 of 743
Q.1 Ambulatory patients are-
- Required emergency treatment
- required to admit in the ward for the treatment
- required to go home after taking treatment in O.P.D.
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) required to go home after taking treatment in O.P.D.
Explanation: Ambulatory patients are the type of patient who are able to take treatment from outpatient services of an hospital or dispensary.
Question 537 of 743
Q.2 Which one of these is a genetically determined adverse drug reaction?
- Teratogenicity
- addiction
- idiosyncrasy
- carcinogenecity
Answer ✔ (c) idiosyncrasy
Explanation: Idiosyncracy is an unusual features of a person which denotes a non-immunological hypersensitivity to a substance.
Question 538 of 743
Q.3 Merk index belongs to the category of-
- Primary source of information
- Secondary source of information
- Tertiary source of information
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Secondary source of information
Explanation: Merk index is an encyclopedia of chemicals, drugs and biologicals,with over 10000 monograph on single substances or group of related compounds, published online by Royal Society of chemistry. It is a secondary source of information.
Question 539 of 743
Q.4 Xylocaine HCL is not used orally because it is-
- Ineffective orally
- Acidic in nature
- Unstable in acidic media
- Stomach irritant
Answer ✔ (a) Ineffective orally
Explanation: Xylocaine is ineffective orally because of high first pass metabolism. Xylocaine is also known as lidocaine, is a local anasthetic and class 1B antiarrythmic drug.
Question 540 of 743
Q.5 which one of these is used to increase the serum level of penicilline?
- Aspirin
- Ranitidine
- Probenecid
- Aluminium hydroxide gel
Answer ✔ (c) Probenecid
Explanation: probenecid is a uricosuric drug that increases uric acid excretion, used in gout, but probenecid interacts with penicilline and reduces its excretion.
Question 541 of 743
Q.6 Morphine poisoning cause death due to-
- CNS depressant
- cardiac arrest
- Respiratory depression
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Respiratory depression
Explanation: Morphine is an opiod analgesic drug, its poisoning causes death due to respiration depression.
Question 542 of 743
Q.7 Ethylenediamine tetra acetic acid administered in the poisoning of-
- Lead
- Cocaine
- morphine
- Cannabis
Answer ✔ (a) Lead
Explanation: EDTA is a chelating agent and it is used in murcury and lead poisoning.
Question 543 of 743
Q.8 The drug contraindicated in active tuberculosis?
- INH
- PABA
- PAS
- Hdrocortisone
Answer ✔ (d) Hdrocortisone
Explanation: Hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid, steroid hormone, contraindicated in active tuberculosis.
Question 544 of 743
Q.9 Hypokalaemia side effect of diuretics can be countered by-
- Common salt
- Potassium Chloride
- Ascorbic acid
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Potassium Chloride
Explanation: Potassium chloride is also used as electrolyte replenisher and sclerosis. Hypokalaemia is the decreased level of of potassium.
Question 545 of 743
Q.10 The defective purine metabolism may lead to-
- Spondolytes
- Anaemia
- Gout
- Arthritis
Answer ✔ (c) Gout
Explanation: Gout is also known as podagra. Defective purine metabolism causes increased uric acid level in the blood. Uric acid crystallizes and deposits in joints and tandons.
Question 546 of 743
Q.11 Patient with fracture in femure bone is preferably reffered to-
- Paediatric hospital
- Maternity hospital
- Orthopaedic hospital
- General hospital
Answer ✔ (c) Orthopaedic hospital
Explanation: Femur is the most proximal bone of the leg. The bone related injuries and diseases are treated in orthopaedic hospitals.
Question 547 of 743
Q.12 a branch related to blood is-
- Biochemistry
- Pathology
- Microbiology
- Haematology
Answer ✔ (d) Haematology
Explanation: Haematology is the study of blood, blood forming organs, and blood diseases.
Question 548 of 743
Q.13 Which forcep is used to hold the appendix?
- Alli's tissue forcep
- Badcock's forcep
- Lan's tissue forcep
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Badcock's forcep
Explanation: Babcock's forcep facilitate to hold the delicate tubal structure such as the intestine and fallipian tube during operation.
Question 549 of 743
Q.14 In lever damage, there is increased level of-
- Red blood cells
- WBCs
- Platelets
- SGPT
Answer ✔ (d) SGPT
Explanation: SGPT,SGOT and AST are the useful biomarkers of liver damage or injury.
Question 550 of 743
Q.15 The oral dosage form of laxative Bisacodyl is not given with milk or antacid because-
- abasorption of antacid decreases
- It could lead to irritation due to release of drug in stomach
- Bisacodyl forms complex with calcium in milk
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (b) It could lead to irritation due to release of drug in stomach
Explanation: Bisacodyl is used as stimulant laxative drug. Milk or antacid removes the coating of bisacodyl which causes irritation in stomach.
Question 551 of 743
Q.16 Grey baby syndrome occurs due to administration of
- Thalidomide
- Chloramphenicol
- Penicillin
- Aminoglycosides
Answer ✔ (b) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Grey baby syndrome occcurs due to administration of chloemphenicol in pregnancy.
Question 552 of 743
Q.17 Texas urinary catheter is designed for-
- female patients
- male patients
- elderly patients
- small children
Answer ✔ (b) male patients
Explanation: Texas urinary catheter is a latex or silicon tube is inserted into a male patient via the urethra.
Question 553 of 743
Q.18 Relative to oral temperature, axillary temperature is-
- same
- 1° lower
- 1° higher
- 2° higher
Answer ✔ (b) 1° lower
Explanation: axillary temperature is 1° lower than the oral temperature.
Question 554 of 743
Q.19 The drug which is administered into the auditory canal is called as-
- OTC drug
- Enteral drug
- Otic drug
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Otic drug
Explanation: drugs antipyrine and benzocaine are administered through Ear are called otic drugs.
Question 555 of 743
Q.20 Haematologic testing with AIDS patient will show-
- Basophilia
- Thrombocytopenia
- Lymphopenia
- Eosinophilia
Answer ✔ (c) Lymphopenia
Explanation: Lymphopenia is the condition of having an abnormally low level of lymphocytes in the blood. In AIDS patients lymphocytes in the blood decrease which result in lymphopenia.
Question 556 of 743
Q.21 Angina induced by emotions is reffered to as-
- Prinz metals angina
- variant angina
- classic angina
- unstable angina
Answer ✔ (c) classic angina
Explanation: classical angina is characterized by recurrent attacks of retrosternal pain brought on by effort and emotion.
Question 557 of 743
Q.22 Invert suger consists of-
- Dextrose and laevulose
- Dextrose and sucrose
- Fructose and sucrose
- Dextrose and fructose
Answer ✔ (d) Dextrose and fructose
Explanation: inverted suger is a mixture of dextrose and fructose in equal parts.
Question 558 of 743
Q.23 Patient controlled analgesia (PCA) is a system in which-
- Analgesia drugs are taken orally
- Analgesia are taken I/V or I/M
- Analgesia are administered I/V by nurse/physician
- Analgesia are taken by I/V or S/C route directly by patient himself.
Answer ✔ (d) Analgesia are taken by I/V or S/C route directly by patient himself.
Explanation: in PCA system, patient himself takes analgesia by I/V or S/C route.
Question 559 of 743
Q.24 The overbed trapeze bar is used for-
- Hanging 1/v solution /drip
- repositioning the patient while sleeping
- safety rail on a hospital bed
- sitting up and getting into and out of bed by the patient
Answer ✔ (d) sitting up and getting into and out of bed by the patient
Explanation: Trapeze bar is atrangular metal apparatus above a bed used to help the patient move and support weight during position change, sitting up and getting into and out of the bed.
Question 560 of 743
Q.25 Low bioavailability indicates that-
- drug is poorly absorbed
- drug is rapidly metabolised
- drug is not properly relesaed from the formulation
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: bioavailability is the rate of extent of drug to reach the systemic circulation.
Question 561 of 743
Q.26 High incidence of vaginal adenocarcinoma is associated with the therapy involving-
- Antithyroid
- stilbosterol
- testosterone
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) stilbosterol
Explanation: stilbosterol is also known as diethylstilbosterol (DES), It causes vaginal tumour in girls and young women.
Question 562 of 743
Q.27 administration of oxygen in new borns causes-
- blood loss
- ototoxicity
- Impaired site
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Impaired site
Explanation: oxygen administration may be the cause f blindness in new born babies.
Question 563 of 743
Q.28 The antileprotic drug clofazimine causes-
- nephrotoxicity
- photosensitivity
- hepatotoxicity
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) photosensitivity
Explanation: clofazimine is a fat soluble dye used in combination with rifampicin and dapsone as multidrug therapy for the treatment of leprosy. It can cause photosensitivity in patients.
Question 564 of 743
Q.29 Number of pharmacists required in a 300 bed hospital?
- 3
- 5
- 8
- 10
Answer ✔ (d) 10
Explanation: in 300 beded hospital, 10 pharmacists are required.
Question 565 of 743
Q.30 The method of sealing the ampoules by melting it below the tip is-
- Tip sealing
- pull sealing
- fusion sealing
- mechanical method
Answer ✔ (b) pull sealing
Explanation: Ampoules are sealed by heating the tip and and then pulling the tip. This is pull sealing method.
Question 566 of 743
Q.1 WHAT IS FALSE NEUROTRANSMITTER
- DOPAMINE
- NOR EPINEPHRINE
- METHYL DOPA
- SEROTONIN
Answer ✔ (c) METHYL DOPA
Question 567 of 743
Q.2 WEIGHT LOSS IS MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF WHICH ANTIDIABETIC DRUG?
- PIOGLITAZONE
- METFORMIN
- GLIPIZIDE
- GLIMEPRIDE
Answer ✔ (b) METFORMIN
Question 568 of 743
Q.3 DRUG USED IN INDUCE LABOUR
- OXYTOCIN
- VASOPRESSIN
- NIFEDIPINE
- SALBUTAMOL
Answer ✔ (a) OXYTOCIN
Question 569 of 743
Q.4 MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF CHLORPROMAZINE?
- PALPITATION
- DRYNESS OF MOUTH
- PARKINSONISM
- DIABETES
Answer ✔ (c) PARKINSONISM
Question 570 of 743
Q.5 DRUG USED IN ANAPHYLATIC SHOCK?
- EPINEPHRINE
- ADRENALINE
- BOTH A AND B
- ATROPINE
Answer ✔ (c) BOTH A AND B
Question 571 of 743
Q.1 When businesses organisations owned and controlled by a single person it is…
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership firms
- Co operative society
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 572 of 743
Q.2 .. . Encourage self-employment.
- Sole proprietorship
- Co operative society
- Partnership firms
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 573 of 743
Q.3 The highest secrecy can be maintained in
- Sole proprietorship
- Co operative society
- Partnership firms
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 574 of 743
Q.4 Limited scope of expansion is the disadvantage of…
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership firms
- Co operative society
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 575 of 743
Q.5 The oldest form of business organisation is….
- Partnership
- Joint hindu family
- Sole Proprietorship
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Partnership
Question 576 of 743
Q.6 In which of the following forms of business organization, registration is compulsory…
- Partnership firm
- Sole proprietorship
- Joint-stock company
- All of them
Answer ✔ (b) Sole proprietorship
Question 577 of 743
Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …
- Elixirs
- Vehicles
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Vehicles
Question 578 of 743
Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…
- Syrups
- Spirits
- Injections
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Spirits
Question 579 of 743
Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….
- Syrups
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
- Tinctures
Answer ✔ (d) Tinctures
Explanation: A tincture is typically an extract of plant or animal material dissolved in ethanol. Solvent concentrations of 25–60% are common, but may run as high as 90%. In chemistry, a tincture is a solution that has ethanol as its solvent
Question 580 of 743
Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …
- Gels
- Liniments
- Poultice
- Pessaries
Answer ✔ (d) Pessaries
Explanation: A pessary is a prosthetic device inserted into the vagina for structural and pharmaceutical purposes. It is most commonly used to treat stress urinary incontinence to stop urinary leakage, and pelvic organ prolapse to maintain the location of organs in the pelvic region
Question 581 of 743
Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..
- Pharmacopoeia
- Prescribed books
- Prescription
- Reference book
Answer ✔ (a) Pharmacopoeia
Explanation: A pharmacopoeia, pharmacopeia, or pharmacopoea, in its modern technical sense, is a book containing directions for the identification of compound medicines, and published by the authority of a government or a medical or pharmaceutical society. Descriptions of preparations are called monographs.
Question 582 of 743
Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: A parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebiasis infection is most common in tropical areas with untreated water. It spreads through drinking or eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been washed in contaminated local water.
Question 583 of 743
Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Helminthiasis, also known as worm infection, is any macroparasitic disease of humans and other animals in which a part of the body is infected with parasitic worms, known as helminths. There are numerous species of these parasites, which are broadly classified into tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms.
Question 584 of 743
Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…
- Local anaesthetic
- Analgesics
- Anthelmintics
- Antiemetics
Answer ✔ (c) Anthelmintics
Explanation: Anthelmintics or antihelminthics are a group of antiparasitic drugs that expel parasitic worms and other internal parasites from the body by either stunning or killing them and without causing significant damage to the host. They may also be called vermifuges or vermicides
Question 585 of 743
Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…
- Local anaesthetic
- Antiemetics
- General anaesthetic
- Analgesics
Answer ✔ (a) Local anaesthetic
Explanation: A local anesthetic is a medication that causes absence of pain sensation. In the context of surgery, a local anesthetic creates an absence of pain in a specific location of the body without a loss of consciousness, as opposed to a general anesthetic
Question 586 of 743
Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .
- Purgatives
- Antiemetics
- Tranquilizers
- Adsobent
Answer ✔ (a) Purgatives
Explanation: Laxatives, purgatives, or aperients are substances that loosen stools and increase bowel movements. They are used to treat and prevent constipation. Laxatives vary as to how they work and the side effects they may have
Question 587 of 743
Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …
- Elixirs
- Vehicles
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Vehicles
Question 588 of 743
Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…
- Syrups
- Spirits
- Injections
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Spirits
Question 589 of 743
Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….
- Syrups
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
- Tinctures
Answer ✔ (d) Tinctures
Explanation: A tincture is typically an extract of plant or animal material dissolved in ethanol. Solvent concentrations of 25–60% are common, but may run as high as 90%. In chemistry, a tincture is a solution that has ethanol as its solvent
Question 590 of 743
Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …
- Gels
- Liniments
- Poultice
- Pessaries
Answer ✔ (d) Pessaries
Explanation: A pessary is a prosthetic device inserted into the vagina for structural and pharmaceutical purposes. It is most commonly used to treat stress urinary incontinence to stop urinary leakage, and pelvic organ prolapse to maintain the location of organs in the pelvic region
Question 591 of 743
Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..
- Pharmacopoeia
- Prescribed books
- Prescription
- Reference book
Answer ✔ (a) Pharmacopoeia
Explanation: A pharmacopoeia, pharmacopeia, or pharmacopoea, in its modern technical sense, is a book containing directions for the identification of compound medicines, and published by the authority of a government or a medical or pharmaceutical society. Descriptions of preparations are called monographs.
Question 592 of 743
Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: A parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebiasis infection is most common in tropical areas with untreated water. It spreads through drinking or eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been washed in contaminated local water.
Question 593 of 743
Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Helminthiasis, also known as worm infection, is any macroparasitic disease of humans and other animals in which a part of the body is infected with parasitic worms, known as helminths. There are numerous species of these parasites, which are broadly classified into tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms.
Question 594 of 743
Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…
- Local anaesthetic
- Analgesics
- Anthelmintics
- Antiemetics
Answer ✔ (c) Anthelmintics
Explanation: Anthelmintics or antihelminthics are a group of antiparasitic drugs that expel parasitic worms and other internal parasites from the body by either stunning or killing them and without causing significant damage to the host. They may also be called vermifuges or vermicides
Question 595 of 743
Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…
- Local anaesthetic
- Antiemetics
- General anaesthetic
- Analgesics
Answer ✔ (a) Local anaesthetic
Explanation: A local anesthetic is a medication that causes absence of pain sensation. In the context of surgery, a local anesthetic creates an absence of pain in a specific location of the body without a loss of consciousness, as opposed to a general anesthetic
Question 596 of 743
Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .
- Purgatives
- Antiemetics
- Tranquilizers
- Adsobent
Answer ✔ (a) Purgatives
Explanation: Laxatives, purgatives, or aperients are substances that loosen stools and increase bowel movements. They are used to treat and prevent constipation. Laxatives vary as to how they work and the side effects they may have
Question 597 of 743
Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …
- Elixirs
- Vehicles
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Vehicles
Question 598 of 743
Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…
- Syrups
- Spirits
- Injections
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Spirits
Question 599 of 743
Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….
- Syrups
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
- Tinctures
Answer ✔ (d) Tinctures
Explanation: A tincture is typically an extract of plant or animal material dissolved in ethanol. Solvent concentrations of 25–60% are common, but may run as high as 90%. In chemistry, a tincture is a solution that has ethanol as its solvent
Question 600 of 743
Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …
- Gels
- Liniments
- Poultice
- Pessaries
Answer ✔ (d) Pessaries
Explanation: A pessary is a prosthetic device inserted into the vagina for structural and pharmaceutical purposes. It is most commonly used to treat stress urinary incontinence to stop urinary leakage, and pelvic organ prolapse to maintain the location of organs in the pelvic region
Question 601 of 743
Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..
- Pharmacopoeia
- Prescribed books
- Prescription
- Reference book
Answer ✔ (a) Pharmacopoeia
Explanation: A pharmacopoeia, pharmacopeia, or pharmacopoea, in its modern technical sense, is a book containing directions for the identification of compound medicines, and published by the authority of a government or a medical or pharmaceutical society. Descriptions of preparations are called monographs.
Question 602 of 743
Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: A parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebiasis infection is most common in tropical areas with untreated water. It spreads through drinking or eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been washed in contaminated local water.
Question 603 of 743
Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Helminthiasis, also known as worm infection, is any macroparasitic disease of humans and other animals in which a part of the body is infected with parasitic worms, known as helminths. There are numerous species of these parasites, which are broadly classified into tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms.
Question 604 of 743
Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…
- Local anaesthetic
- Analgesics
- Anthelmintics
- Antiemetics
Answer ✔ (c) Anthelmintics
Explanation: Anthelmintics or antihelminthics are a group of antiparasitic drugs that expel parasitic worms and other internal parasites from the body by either stunning or killing them and without causing significant damage to the host. They may also be called vermifuges or vermicides
Question 605 of 743
Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…
- Local anaesthetic
- Antiemetics
- General anaesthetic
- Analgesics
Answer ✔ (a) Local anaesthetic
Explanation: A local anesthetic is a medication that causes absence of pain sensation. In the context of surgery, a local anesthetic creates an absence of pain in a specific location of the body without a loss of consciousness, as opposed to a general anesthetic
Question 606 of 743
Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .
- Purgatives
- Antiemetics
- Tranquilizers
- Adsobent
Answer ✔ (a) Purgatives
Explanation: Laxatives, purgatives, or aperients are substances that loosen stools and increase bowel movements. They are used to treat and prevent constipation. Laxatives vary as to how they work and the side effects they may have
Question 607 of 743
Q.1 An institution of community health is…
- Hospital
- Industries
- Educational institutions
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Hospital
Question 608 of 743
Q.2 Functions of modern hospitals include…
- Doctors & nurses receive training
- Lowers the incidence of disease
- Raises the quality of care & standards of medical practice
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
Question 609 of 743
Q.3 DGHS stands for…. . .
- Director General of health services
- Director General of habitual services
- Director General of health society
- Decorum General of health services
Answer ✔ (a) Director General of health services
Explanation: The Directorate General of Health Services (Dte.GHS) is a repository of technical knowledge concerning Public Health, Medical Education and Health Care. It is an attached organisation of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. The Dte.GHS is headed by Director General of Health Services (DGHS), an officer of Central Health Services, who renders technical advice on all medical and public health matters to Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Question 610 of 743
Q.4 At the central government level, the health delivery system in the Constitution of India is…
- Union ministry of health & family welfare
- Ministry of health
- DGHS
- Health ministry welfare
Answer ✔ (a) Union ministry of health & family welfare
Explanation: The Minister of Health and Family Welfare holds cabinet rank as a member of the Council of Ministers
Question 611 of 743
Q.5 DHO stands for …
- District health officer
- District hazard officer
- District medical offence
- District medical officer
Answer ✔ (a) District health officer
Question 612 of 743
Q.6 The consumption of a drug apart from medical needs or in unnecessary quantities is…
- Drug misuse
- Drug habituation
- Drug abuse
- Drug addiction
Answer ✔ (c) Drug abuse
Explanation: Excessive use of psychoactive drugs, such as alcohol, pain medications or illegal drugs. It can lead to physical, social or emotional harm.
Question 613 of 743
Q.7 The use of drugs for purposes for which they are unsuited even their appropriate use but in improper dosage is … .
- Drug misuse
- Drug abuse
- Drug addiction
- Drug habituation
Answer ✔ (a) Drug misuse
Question 614 of 743
Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:
- Is more painful
- Produces faster response
- Is unsuitable for depot preparations
- Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Answer ✔ (b) Produces faster response
Question 615 of 743
Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by
- Passive diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Pinocytosis
Answer ✔ (a) Passive diffusion
Question 616 of 743
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach
- Hyoscine hydrobromide
- Morphine sulfate
- Diclofenac sodium
- Quinine dihydrochloride
Answer ✔ (c) Diclofenac sodium
Question 617 of 743
Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
- Nature of the base used in the formulation
- Lipid solubility of the drug
- Molecular weight of the drug
- Site of application
Answer ✔ (b) Lipid solubility of the drug
Question 618 of 743
Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
- Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
- Is incompletely absorbed
- Is freely water soluble
- Is completely absorbed
Answer ✔ (b) Is incompletely absorbed
Question 619 of 743
Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of
- Highly plasma protein bound drugs
- Depot preparations
- Highly lipid soluble drugs
- Poorly lipid soluble drugs
Answer ✔ (c) Highly lipid soluble drugs
Question 620 of 743
Q.7 High plasma protein binding
- Increases volume of distribution of the drug
- Generally makes the drug long acting
- Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
- Minimises drug interactions
Answer ✔ (b) Generally makes the drug long acting
Question 621 of 743
Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug
- Enalapril
- Menapril
- Thiazine
- Penicillin
Answer ✔ (a) Enalapril
Question 622 of 743
Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of
- Tolerance
- Physical dependence
- Psychological dependence
- Idiosyncrasy
Answer ✔ (a) Tolerance
Question 623 of 743
Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
- Plasma protein binding
- Lipid solubility
- Degree of ionization
- Rate of tubular secretion
Answer ✔ (a) Plasma protein binding
Question 624 of 743
Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves
- Sweat glands
- Ciliary muscle
- Iris muscles
- Splenic capsule
Answer ✔ (b) Ciliary muscle
Question 625 of 743
Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut
- Nitric oxide (NO)
- Adenosine
- Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
- Kallidin
Answer ✔ (d) Kallidin
Question 626 of 743
Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site
- Neuromuscular junction
- Postganglionic parasympathetic
- Adrenal medulla
- Autonomic ganglia
Answer ✔ (b) Postganglionic parasympathetic
Question 627 of 743
Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is
- Bethanechol
- Butyrylcholine
- Methacholine
- Benzoylcholine
Answer ✔ (a) Bethanechol
Question 628 of 743
Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is
- Colon
- Gastric fundus
- Bladder trigone
- Major bronchi
Answer ✔ (c) Bladder trigone
Question 629 of 743
Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for
- Glaucoma
- Paralytic ileus
- Urinary retention
- Infection
Answer ✔ (a) Glaucoma
Question 630 of 743
Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme
- Neostigmine
- Edrophonium
- Physostigmine
- Dyflos
Answer ✔ (b) Edrophonium
Question 631 of 743
Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase
- Edrophonium
- Dyflos
- Tacrine
- Neostigmine
Answer ✔ (d) Neostigmine
Question 632 of 743
Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that
- It produces less muscarinic side effects
- It is more potent orally
- It is longer acting
- It does not have any direct action on NM receptor
Answer ✔ (c) It is longer acting
Question 633 of 743
Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is
- Canal of Schlemm
- Ciliary body
- Ciliary muscle
- Sphincter pupillae muscle
Answer ✔ (d) Sphincter pupillae muscle
Question 634 of 743
Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
Question 635 of 743
Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
Question 636 of 743
Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
Question 637 of 743
Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
Question 638 of 743
Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
Question 639 of 743
Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
Question 640 of 743
Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
Question 641 of 743
Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
Question 642 of 743
Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
Question 643 of 743
Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
Question 644 of 743
Q.1 Skin or bone is an example of what level of organization
- organ
- macromolecule
- cell
- tissue
Answer ✔ (a) organ
Question 645 of 743
Q.2 Which one of the following traits is not a characteristic of life shared by all organisms?
- growth
- circulation
- photosynthesis
- digestion
Answer ✔ (c) photosynthesis
Question 646 of 743
Q.3 Which of the following is the most complex level of organization?
- macromolecule
- organ
- organ system
- organelle
Answer ✔ (c) organ system
Question 647 of 743
Q.4 The ______________ of the body includes the head, neck, and trunk
- dorsal cavity
- axial portion
- appendicular portion
- ventral cavity
Answer ✔ (b) axial portion
Question 648 of 743
Q.5 The _____________ cavity is the portion enclosed by the pelvic bones
- abdominopelvic
- abdominal
- thoracic
- pelvic
Answer ✔ (d) pelvic
Question 649 of 743
Q.6 The lungs are covered by a membrane called the _____
- parietal pleura
- visceral pleura
- parietal pericardium
- peritoneum
Answer ✔ (b) visceral pleura
Question 650 of 743
Q.7 The ______________ system includes all the glands that secrete hormones.
- muscular
- endocrine
- nervous
- lymphatic
Answer ✔ (b) endocrine
Question 651 of 743
Q.8 A ______________ section divides the body into right and left portions.
- sagittal
- coronal
- transverse
- oblique
Answer ✔ (a) sagittal
Question 652 of 743
Q.9 Anatomy is a term that means the study of _____.
- physiology
- human functions
- morphology
- cell functions
Answer ✔ (c) morphology
Question 653 of 743
Q.10 A study dealing with the explanations of how an organ works would be an example of _____
- anatomy
- physiology
- cytology
- teleology
Answer ✔ (b) physiology
Question 654 of 743
Q.1 Which of the following includes the other terms?
- systm
- cell
- organ
- tissue
Answer ✔ (a) systm
Question 655 of 743
Q.2 Which of the following terms means the same as ventral in humans?
- posterior
- anterior
- dorsal
- medial
Answer ✔ (b) anterior
Question 656 of 743
Q.3 The chin can be described as being on the _____ surface of the skull.
- inferior
- lateral
- superior
- ventral
Answer ✔ (a) inferior
Question 657 of 743
Q.4 Which of the following terms cannot be properly paired?
- cranial, skull
- nasal, buccal
- orbital, eyes
- frontal, forehead
Answer ✔ (b) nasal, buccal
Question 658 of 743
Q.5 Which term refers to the back of the knee?
- popliteal
- pelvic
- pedal
- perineal
Answer ✔ (a) popliteal
Question 659 of 743
Q.6 Which types of neurons are likely to increase muscular activities?
- bipolar neurons
- inhibitory neurons
- sensory neurons
- accelerator neurons
Answer ✔ (d) accelerator neurons
Question 660 of 743
Q.7 When a neuron reaches action potential, it depolarizes and repolarizes in an amount of time on the order of _____________
- seconds
- miliseconds
- microseconds
- nanoseconds
Answer ✔ (b) miliseconds
Question 661 of 743
Q.8 Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?
- the mitochondria
- the nucleus
- peripheral proteins
- the endoplasmic reticulum
Answer ✔ (a) the mitochondria
Question 662 of 743
Q.9 In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glucose take place?
- lysosomes
- ribosome
- mitochondria
- dna
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondria
Question 663 of 743
Q.10 Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules?
- Ribosomes
- Mesosomes
- Goglgi apparatus
- Lysosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Lysosomes
Question 664 of 743
Q.1 BID in pharmaceutical terms refers to which of the following?
- Twice a day
- Thrice a day
- Twice a week
- After two days
Answer ✔ (a) Twice a day
Question 665 of 743
Q.2 Latin term "Infricandus" means the following dosage form,
- to be spread on
- to be applied on
- to be inhaled
- to be rubbed on
Answer ✔ (d) to be rubbed on
Question 666 of 743
Q.3 Latin term "inhalateur" means the following
- to be inhaled
- to be taken
- to be swalloed
- to be injected
Answer ✔ (a) to be inhaled
Question 667 of 743
Q.4 Latin term "Utendus" means the following
- to be dissolved
- to be used
- to be discarded
- to be inhaled
Answer ✔ (b) to be used
Question 668 of 743
Q.5 Latin term "talis / tales / talia" means the following
- such
- as
- after
- before
Answer ✔ (a) such
Question 669 of 743
Q.6 Latin term "mitte" means the following
- inject
- give
- send
- take
Answer ✔ (c) send
Question 670 of 743
Q.7 hora somni meaning
- at bedtime
- at sunrise
- after meal
- at meal
Answer ✔ (a) at bedtime
Question 671 of 743
Q.8 Latin shortform for "three times a day" is
- b.i.d.
- t.i.d.
- f.i.d
- h.s.
Answer ✔ (b) t.i.d.
Question 672 of 743
Q.9 "ante cibum" refer to
- with milk
- after meal
- before meal
- with water
Answer ✔ (c) before meal
Question 673 of 743
Q.10 "oculus sinister" is used to indiacate
- right eye
- left eye
- right ear
- left ear
Answer ✔ (b) left eye
Question 674 of 743
Q.1 To identify the emulsion type, which of the following tests are conducted?
- Conductivity test
- Sedimentation test
- Tensile strength
- Bioadhesion
Answer ✔ (a) Conductivity test
Question 675 of 743
Q.2 Which of the following is not used as an emulsifying agent?
- Finely divided solids
- Surfactant
- Hydrophilic colloid
- Electrolytes
Answer ✔ (d) Electrolytes
Question 676 of 743
Q.3 Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?
- Cream
- Solution
- Paste
- Gel
Answer ✔ (b) Solution
Question 677 of 743
Q.4 Generally pastes contain
- Very low percentage of insoluble solids
- Low percentage of insoluble solids
- High percentage of insoluble solids
- soluble solids
Answer ✔ (c) High percentage of insoluble solids
Question 678 of 743
Q.5 In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used generally?
- Water removable bases
- Absorption base
- Hydrocarbon base
- Oily base
Answer ✔ (a) Water removable bases
Question 679 of 743
Q.6 In the preparation of cold creams, which types of bases are used generally?
- Fatty base
- Hydrocarbon base
- Water removable bases
- Absorption base
Answer ✔ (d) Absorption base
Question 680 of 743
Q.7 Water soluble bases are also known as
- Greasy ointment bases
- Greaseless ointment bases
- Water removable base
- None of them
Answer ✔ (b) Greaseless ointment bases
Question 681 of 743
Q.8 A suppository is generally intended for use in
- Rectum
- Ear
- Nose
- Mouth
Answer ✔ (a) Rectum
Question 682 of 743
Q.9 .Vaginal suppositories also called as
- Simple suppositories
- Bougies
- Pessaries
- Soft tablet
Answer ✔ (c) Pessaries
Question 683 of 743
Q.10 Which of the following method is used to manufacture suppositories
- Compression molding
- Dissolution
- Sterilisation
- Disinfection
Answer ✔ (a) Compression molding
Question 684 of 743
Q.1 Who is the father of medicine………
- Luther
- Hippocrates
- Pastuer
- Bohr
Answer ✔ (b) Hippocrates
Question 685 of 743
Q.2 The first edition of IP was published in …
- 1955
- 1965
- 1975
- 1985
Answer ✔ (a) 1955
Question 686 of 743
Q.3 The seventh edition of IP was published in …
- 2011
- 2012
- 2013
- 2014
Answer ✔ (d) 2014
Question 687 of 743
Q.4 The “Pharmacy Act” came in force in ….
- 1947
- 1948
- 1949
- 1950
Answer ✔ (b) 1948
Question 688 of 743
Q.5 Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was established in …..
- 1947
- 1948
- 1949
- 1950
Answer ✔ (c) 1949
Question 689 of 743
Q.6 What is USP?
- The United States Pharmacology
- The United States Pharmacopoeia
- The United States Pharmcy
- The United States Pharmacy Department
Answer ✔ (b) The United States Pharmacopoeia
Question 690 of 743
Q.7 Drugs converted to suitable form are known as
- Dosage form
- Excipients
- API
- Diluents
Answer ✔ (a) Dosage form
Question 691 of 743
Q.8 Simple syrup is a saturated solution of…
- Fructose
- Mannose
- Glucose
- Sucrose
Answer ✔ (d) Sucrose
Question 692 of 743
Q.9 When two or more drugs are used in combination to increase the pharmacological action, the phenomenon is known as ………
- Potentisation
- Combination
- Synergism
- Antagonism
Answer ✔ (c) Synergism
Question 693 of 743
Q.10 When the action of the drug is opposed by the other drug, the the phenomenon is known as
- Antagonism
- Synergism
- Opposition
- Potentisation
Answer ✔ (a) Antagonism
Question 694 of 743
Q.1 Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
- haemopoiesis
- haemostasis
- peristalsis
- glycogenolysis
Answer ✔ (a) haemopoiesis
Question 695 of 743
Q.2 In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?
- canaliculi
- osteons
- lacunae
- lamellae
Answer ✔ (c) lacunae
Question 696 of 743
Q.3 Which bone is most superior?
- cervical vertebra
- patella
- manubrium
- occipital bone
Answer ✔ (d) occipital bone
Question 697 of 743
Q.4 What is a “trochanter”?
- projection that forms part of an articulation
- part of a femur
- groove in which lies a tendon
- a feature of the pelvis
Answer ✔ (b) part of a femur
Question 698 of 743
Q.5 One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?
- Haemopoiesis
- Haematuria
- Haemostasis
- Haemolysis
Answer ✔ (a) Haemopoiesis
Question 699 of 743
Q.6 Where do osteocytes reside?
- In lamellae
- In lacunae
- In trabeculae
- In endosteum
Answer ✔ (b) In lacunae
Question 700 of 743
Q.7 Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?
- hyoid
- sesamoid
- sphenoid
- ethmoid
Answer ✔ (b) sesamoid
Question 701 of 743
Q.8 Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?
- The mandible
- The sphenoid
- The maxilla
- The hyoid
Answer ✔ (a) The mandible
Question 702 of 743
Q.9 What are the bones of the fingers known as?
- carpals
- phalanges
- short bones
- metacarpals
Answer ✔ (b) phalanges
Question 703 of 743
Q.10 Which of the following comprise seven bones?
- Cranial bones
- Carpals
- Lumbar vertebrae
- Cervical vertebrae
Answer ✔ (d) Cervical vertebrae
Question 704 of 743
Q.1 The process occurring in the presence of oxygen is called… ..
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
Question 705 of 743
Q.2 The process occuring in the absence of oxygen is called… .
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
Question 706 of 743
Q.3 Enzymatic hydrolysis of major nutrients in GIT to yield their simpler components is .....
- Fermentation
- Deglutition
- Glycolysis
- Digestion
Answer ✔ (d) Digestion
Question 707 of 743
Q.4 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Glucogenic amino acids
Question 708 of 743
Q.5 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into ketone bodies are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (c) Ketogenic amino acids
Question 709 of 743
Q.6 The water soluble fuels which are overproduced during fasting or in untreated diabetes mellitus are called… . .
- Melanin bodies
- Ketone bodies
- Glucose bodies
- Citrate bodies
Answer ✔ (b) Ketone bodies
Question 710 of 743
Q.7 Energy yielding anaerobic breakdown of glucose yielding lactate, ethanol with some other products is… . ..
- Protein fermentation
- Fat metabolism
- Glucose fermentation
- Nucleic acid fermentation
Answer ✔ (a) Protein fermentation
Question 711 of 743
Q.8 The biosynthesis of carbohydrates from simpler, non carbohydrate precursors is… . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Gluconeogenesis
Question 712 of 743
Q.9 An oxidative pathway of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as…
- Phosphogluconate pathway
- Pentose phosphate pathway
- Hexose monophosphate pathway
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
Question 713 of 743
Q.10 The process of breakdown of glycogen to blood glucose is … . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenesis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogenolysis
Question 714 of 743
Q.1 Which of the following is not an aspect of the pathophysiology in disease
- Morphological changes
- Therapeutic treatment
- Causes
- Pathogenesis
Answer ✔ (b) Therapeutic treatment
Question 715 of 743
Q.2 Which of the following is a cell death
- Apoptosis
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenesis
- Lipolysis
Answer ✔ (a) Apoptosis
Question 716 of 743
Q.3 Which of the following is physical agent of cell injury?
- Dil. HCl
- Hypoxia
- Viruses
- Hot Surface
Answer ✔ (d) Hot Surface
Question 717 of 743
Q.4 Hypoxia is occurs in following condition except
- Anaemia
- Thyroid disease
- Carbon monoxide poisoning
- Lung disease
Answer ✔ (b) Thyroid disease
Question 718 of 743
Q.5 Iatrogenic causes means
- Cell injury by Pharmacist
- Cell injury by Nurse
- Cell injury by Physician
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Cell injury by Physician
Question 719 of 743
Q.6 Adaptation means reversible change in
- Functions of cell
- Size of cell
- Phenotype of cell
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Question 720 of 743
Q.7 Which of the above is not a cellular adaptation?
- Hyperplasia
- Hypertrophy
- Hypoplasia
- Metaplasia
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoplasia
Question 721 of 743
Q.8 Ischemia causes following except
- Increase Cytosolic Calcium
- Detachment of Ribosome
- Decrease in activity of Na pump
- Increase Anaerobic Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (a) Increase Cytosolic Calcium
Question 722 of 743
Q.9 Loss of Calcium Homeostasis leads to
- Decrease ATP Production
- Nuclear Damage
- Membrane Damage
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Question 723 of 743
Q.10 Cell mediated immunity is derived from
- T cells
- Monocytes
- Eosinophils
- B cells
Answer ✔ (a) T cells
Question 724 of 743
Q.1 Redness in inflammation is occur due to
- Vasodilation
- migration of leukocytes
- Increase hydro static pressure
- Vasoconstriction
Answer ✔ (a) Vasodilation
Question 725 of 743
Q.2 Swelling in inflammation is also called
- Vasodilation of blood vessels in dermis
- Infiltration of neutrophil
- Edema
- Ischemia
Answer ✔ (c) Edema
Question 726 of 743
Q.3 The edema is most likely the result of
- Increased vascular permeability
- Increased arterial hydrostatic pressure
- Vasodilation
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Question 727 of 743
Q.4 The cell which lost ability to proliferate is called
- Stable
- Labile
- Permanant
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Stable
Question 728 of 743
Q.5 Which of the following factors are delay the healing process?
- Movement
- Infection
- Poor blood supply
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Question 729 of 743
Q.6 EGF stands for
- Edema growth factor
- Enzyme growth factor
- Energy growth factor
- Epithelial growth factor
Answer ✔ (d) Epithelial growth factor
Question 730 of 743
Q.7 Prostaglandins (PGs) are
- LOX pathway product
- Cytokinines
- Vasoactiveamines
- COX pathway product
Answer ✔ (d) COX pathway product
Question 731 of 743
Q.8 CD8+ cell is also called
- Cytotoxic T cells
- Helper B cell
- Helper T cell
- Cell None of above
Answer ✔ (a) Cytotoxic T cells
Question 732 of 743
Q.9 HLA stands for
- Human leukocyte Antigen
- Human leukocyte Antibody
- Human leukocyte Agent
- Human leukotrine Antigen
Answer ✔ (a) Human leukocyte Antigen
Question 733 of 743
Q.10 What do you mean by autoimmune diseases?
- Increase ability to identify between self & non -self
- Decrease ability to identify between self & non -self
- Hypo activity of immune responses
- Hyper activity of immune responses
Answer ✔ (b) Decrease ability to identify between self & non -self
Question 734 of 743
Q.1 Which of the following Antibody involve in Type-I ypersensitivity reaction?
- IgG
- IgA
- IgE
- IgM
Answer ✔ (c) IgE
Question 735 of 743
Q.2 Which immunoglobin is react with allergens?
- IgE
- IgM
- IgA
- IgD
Answer ✔ (a) IgE
Question 736 of 743
Q.3 Rheumatoid Arthritis is a example of
- Type I Hypersnsitivity
- Type II Hypersnsitivity
- Type III Hypersnsitivity
- Type IV Hypersnsitivity
Answer ✔ (c) Type III Hypersnsitivity
Question 737 of 743
Q.4 Which of the following part of the HIV is bind to CD4 receptor of of T per cell?
- gp120
- gp12000
- gp12
- gp1200
Answer ✔ (a) gp120
Question 738 of 743
Q.5 HIV AIDS is a ____ disease.
- Autoimmune
- Hyper immunity
- Immunodeficiency
- All of above
Answer ✔ (c) Immunodeficiency
Question 739 of 743
Q.6 __________ protein transfer thyroxine & retinol.
- TTR
- AL
- APrP
- TLS
Answer ✔ (a) TTR
Question 740 of 743
Q.7 Which of the following is not a type of cellular adaptation?
- Hypertrophy
- Superplasia
- Hyperplasia
- Atrophy
Answer ✔ (b) Superplasia
Question 741 of 743
Q.8 The common cause of atrophy are as follows except
- Decreased work load
- Loss of innovation
- Stimulation of endocrine hormone release
- Inadequate nutrition
Answer ✔ (c) Stimulation of endocrine hormone release
Question 742 of 743
Q.9 Which enzymes are responsible for removal of free radical
- Superoxide dismutase
- Peroxidase
- Catalase
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Question 743 of 743
Q.10 Cell swelling is a result of
- Decreased protein synthesis
- Decreased lactic acid secretion
- Decreased activity of sodium pump
- Increased glycogen production
Answer ✔ (c) Decreased activity of sodium pump
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