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Botany Practice MCQs

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Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during

  • late telophase
  • late prophase
  • early anaphase
  • late metaphase


General ScienceBiologyBotanyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.2 Cell plate grows from

  • walls to the centre
  • centre to the walls
  • in patches
  • simultaneously


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Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles

  • C, A, B, D
  • C, B, A, D
  • C, D, B, A
  • A, C, D, B


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Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into

  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
  • Metaphase


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Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for

  • division of cytoplasm
  • division of nucleoplasm
  • division of nucleus
  • separation of daughter chromosomes


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Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase


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Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during

  • Metaphase
  • Interphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase


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Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences

  • II, I, IV, III
  • III, II, I, IV
  • IV, III, II, I
  • I, IV, III, II


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Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is

  • splitting of the centromeres
  • splitting of the chromatids
  • replication of the genetic material
  • condensation of the chromatin


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Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?

  • Autotetraploid
  • Haploid
  • Triploid
  • Allotetraploid


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Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.

  • Pancreas
  • Liver
  • Ovary
  • Kidney


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Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene

  • C, B, A, D, E
  • C, A, B, E, D
  • C, B, A, E, D
  • D, B, C, E, A


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Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?

  • 6
  • 16
  • 26
  • 36


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Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in

  • Mitotic prophase
  • Mitotic metaphase
  • Meiotic metaphase
  • Meiotic prophase


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Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?

  • Plasma membrane
  • Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
  • Plastids
  • none of these


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Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of

  • Ribosome
  • ER
  • Chromosome
  • Mitochondrion


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Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • S


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Q.18

  • Early prophase
  • Early metaphase
  • Early telophase
  • Early anaphase


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Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase


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Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.

  • Zygotene
  • Pachytene
  • Diakinesis
  • Diplotene


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Q.21 Synapsis occurs between

  • A male and female gametes
  • Ribosome and m-RNA
  • Spindle fibres and centromeres
  • Two homologous chromosomes


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Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into

  • Phargmoplast
  • Polyploidy
  • Uninucleate condition
  • Multinucleate condition


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Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during

  • Cytokinesis
  • Interphase
  • Karyokinesis
  • None of these


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Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between

  • Non-sister chromosomes
  • Sister chromatids
  • Non-homologous chromosome
  • Homologous chromosomes


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Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in

  • Metaphase and M phase
  • Anaphase and S phase
  • Interphase and S phase
  • None of these


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Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling


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Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of

  • Permanent nature
  • Temporary nature
  • Some are permanent some temporary
  • None of these


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Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during

  • Phase of cell division
  • Phase of cell elongation
  • Phase of cell maturation
  • Phase of cell differentiation


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Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic


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Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents

  • ability of the plant to produce new cells
  • efficiency index
  • relative growth rate
  • all of the above


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Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:

  • Autonomic movement of variation
  • Autonomic movement of locomotion
  • Autonomic movement of growth
  • Paratonic movement of growth


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Q.7 Which one is incorrect?

  • Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
  • Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast


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Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is

  • Organogenesis
  • Cleavage
  • Gastrulation
  • Growth


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Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?

  • Ethylene
  • Gibberellin
  • IAA
  • Abscisic acid


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Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be

  • given a dip in ascorbic acid
  • maintained at room temperature
  • refrigerated
  • stored at the top of refrigerator


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Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of

  • length of leaf
  • increase in cell number
  • surface area increase
  • none of these


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Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to

  • presence of meristems
  • presence of vascular cambium
  • presence of xylem and phloem
  • presence of tracheids


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Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling


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Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is

  • Aging
  • Regeneration
  • Abnormal development
  • Primary inductio


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Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?

  • Auxins
  • Gibberellins
  • Ethylene
  • Cytokinins


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Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?

  • Auxin
  • Gibberelic acid
  • Cytokinin
  • Abscisic acid


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Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic


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Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by

  • auxins
  • cytokinins
  • gibberellins
  • ethylene


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Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called

  • Gastrocoele
  • Blastocoele
  • Coelom
  • Neurocoele


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Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called

  • Gibberlin
  • Auxin
  • Cytokinin
  • Absicic acid


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Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid

  • Isoleucine
  • Methionine
  • Niacin
  • Tryptophan


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Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy

  • IAA
  • ABA
  • Cytokinin
  • Ethylene


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Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation

  • Parthenocarpy
  • pseudocarpy
  • Apomixis
  • Parthenogenesis


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Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is

  • Embryos
  • Roots
  • Young leaves
  • All of these


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Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from

  • Brian et al
  • Went
  • Yabuta
  • Kurosawa


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Q.1 R.Q is ratio of

  • CO2 produced to substarate consumed
  • CO2 produced to O2 consumed
  • oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
  • oxygen consumed to water produced


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Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the

  • 1 – celled stage
  • 2 – celled stage
  • 3 – celled stage
  • male gamete formation stage


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Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in

  • cell cytoplasm
  • inner mitochondrial membrane
  • mitochondrial matrix
  • nucleus


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Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol

  • Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
  • Alcohol dehydrogenase
  • None of these
  • Both of these


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Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by

  • Otto Meyerhof
  • Hans Kreb
  • Gustav Embden
  • All of these


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Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant

  • inferior ovary
  • dehiscent fruit
  • pair of glumes
  • fused calyx


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Q.7 Malacophily means

  • pollination by wind
  • pollination by water
  • pollination by insects
  • pollination by snails


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Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for

  • allogamy
  • autogamy
  • chasmogamy
  • cleistogamy


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Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration

  • 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
  • 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
  • all the formed inside mitochondria
  • 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle


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Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy

  • C6H12O6, 2H2O
  • C12H22O11, 6H2O
  • C6H12O6, 6H2O
  • C12H22O11, 11H2O


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Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of

  • numerous corolla
  • androphore
  • gynophore
  • androgynophore


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Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

  • Cytochrome C
  • FADH
  • NADH
  • oxygen


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Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?

  • Cytochrome c
  • cytochrome a3
  • cytochrome a
  • FADH2


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Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in

  • protection of delicate embryo
  • enzyme synthesis
  • transfer of food to cotyledons
  • transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips


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Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is

  • fleshy seed coat
  • stony pericarp
  • stony mesocarp
  • stony endocarp


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Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as

  • TCA pathway
  • Glycolysis
  • Hms pathway
  • Glycolysis


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Q.17 End product of glycolysis is

  • acetyl Coenzyme A
  • PEP
  • pyruvate
  • OAA


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Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in

  • mitochondrial matrix
  • Cristae
  • perimitochondrial space
  • outer membrane


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Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is

  • 0.9
  • 1.2
  • 1
  • 0


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Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.

  • 2
  • 16
  • 38
  • 42


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Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:

  • 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
  • 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
  • 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
  • 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules


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Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when

  • Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
  • Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
  • Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
  • Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2


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Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called

  • Malic acid
  • Tartaric acid
  • Pyruvic acid
  • Citric acid


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Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate

  • 10
  • 8
  • 5
  • 12


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Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in

  • Intermembrane space of mitochondria
  • Mitochondrial matrix
  • Inner membrane of mitochondria
  • Cytoplasm


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Q.1 In plants, a common symptom caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the

  • bending of leaf tip
  • formation of anthocyanins
  • poor development of vasculature
  • appearance of dead necrotic tissue


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Q.2 Function of zinc is

  • Closing of stomata
  • Biosynthesis of 3-IAA
  • Synthesis of chlorophyll
  • Oxidation of carbohydrate


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Q.3 Which of the following is a group of micronutrients?

  • Ca, Zn, B
  • Fe, Mn, Cu
  • Cl, C, Ca
  • Ni, Mo, H


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Q.4 The process of conversion of NO2– to N2 is called

  • nitrification
  • ammonification
  • denitrification
  • nitrogen fixation


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Q.5 The formation of first stable product of nitrogen fixation is catalysed by enzyme

  • dehydrogenase
  • nitrogenase
  • isomerase
  • none of these


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Q.6 Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of

  • iron
  • calcium
  • magnesium
  • all of the above


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Q.7 Chlorosis will occur if a plant is grown in

  • dark
  • shade
  • strong light
  • Fe – free medium


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Q.8 Choose the correct function of magnesium

  • It is a constituent of several coenzyme
  • It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
  • It activates enzyme catalase
  • It helps in maintaining anion-cation balance


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Q.9 Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from soil are in the form of

  • Dilute solution
  • Very concentrated solution
  • Concentrated solution
  • Very dilute solution


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Q.10 Which one of the following mineral elements plays an in biological nitrogen fixation?

  • Copper
  • Manganese
  • Zinc
  • Molybdenum


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Q.11 Oxygen scavangers present in root nodules of legumes is

  • haemoglobin
  • leg haemoglobin
  • cyano haemoglobin
  • none of these


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Q.12 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?

  • Magnesium
  • Molybdenum
  • Boron
  • Zinc


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Q.13 Which of the following is not a macronutrient

  • iron
  • calcium
  • manganese
  • phosphorus


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Q.14 Insectivorous plants grow where

  • There is carbohydrate deficient soil
  • There is nitrogen deficient soil
  • Vitamin c is required
  • Hormones are required


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Q.15 Phytotron is meant for

  • Controlled humidity
  • Induction of mutations
  • Controlled irradiation
  • Growing plants under controlled environment


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Q.16 Toxicity of which element leads to the appearance of brown spots on leaves

  • Mg
  • Mn
  • Fe
  • Cu


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Q.17 Presence of phosphorus

  • brings about healthy root growth
  • promotes fruit ripening
  • retards protein formation
  • none


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Q.18 Which element is required for opening and closing of stomata?

  • P
  • K
  • Ca
  • Na


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Q.19 Exanthema is due to deficiency of

  • B
  • Mo
  • Mn
  • Cu


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Q.20 NPK denotes

  • Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
  • Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
  • Nitrogen, Potassium, kinetin
  • Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium


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Q.21 The nitrogen exists as two nitrogen atoms joined by

  • Di covalent bonds
  • tetra covalent bonds
  • triple covalent bonds
  • monocovalent bond


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Q.22 Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by

  • Gericke
  • Nehar and Sakmann
  • Liebig
  • Winograndsky


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Q.23 The enzyme involved in biological nitrogen fixation are

  • Carboxylase
  • Oxygenase
  • Dehydrogenase
  • Nitrogenase


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Q.24 The requirement of micro nutrient are always low if the concentration increases it leads to

  • deficiency symptoms
  • Cell differentiation
  • toxicity
  • Cell elongation


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Q.25 Analysis of xylem sap shows

  • presence of enzymes
  • presence of organic matter
  • presence of nutrients
  • presence of mineral salts


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Q.1 The anther wall consists of four wall layers where

  • tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
  • middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
  • endothecium lies inner to middle layers
  • tapetum lies next to epidermis


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Q.2 Anther is generally

  • monosporangiate
  • bisporangiate
  • tetrasporangiate
  • trisporangiate.


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Q.3 The stamens represent

  • microsporangia
  • male gametophyte
  • male gametes
  • microsporophylls.


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Q.4 Nonessential floral organs in a flower are

  • sepals and petals
  • anther and ovary
  • stigma and filament
  • petals only.


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Q.5 Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and arrangement of flowers is called

  • arboriculture
  • floriculture
  • horticulture
  • anthology


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Q.6 From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium

  • Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
  • Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
  • Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
  • Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac


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Q.7 During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in

  • endothecium
  • microspore mother cells
  • microspore tetrads
  • pollen grains


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Q.8 The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively

  • endothecium and tapetum
  • epidermis and endodermis
  • epidermis and middle layer
  • epidermis and tapetum.


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Q.9 Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.

  • Stamen
  • filament
  • pollen grain
  • androecium


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Q.10 An embryo may sometimes develop from any cell of embryo sac other than egg. It is termed as

  • apospory
  • apogamy
  • parthenogenesis
  • parthenocarpy


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Q.11 Polyembryony commonly occurs in

  • banana
  • tomato
  • Potato
  • Citrus


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Q.12 Indentify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilisation development

  • The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
  • The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
  • The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm.
  • The ovule develops into seed.


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Q.13 Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.

  • perisperm, black pepper
  • perisperm, groundnut
  • endosperm, black pepper
  • endosperm groundnut


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Q.14 In albuminous seeds, food is stored in _______ and in non albuminous seeds, it is stored in _______

  • endosperm, cotyledons
  • cotyledons, endosperm
  • nucellus, cotyledons
  • endosperm, radicle


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Q.15 Endospermic seeds are found in

  • castor
  • barley
  • Coconut
  • All of these


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Q.16 Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively coloured flowers are associated with

  • hydrophily
  • entomophily
  • ornithophily
  • anemophily


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Q.17 Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant ?

  • Zostera
  • Vallisneria
  • Hydrilla
  • Cannabis


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Q.18 Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by

  • bees
  • Butterflies
  • birds
  • Wind


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Q.19 Feathery stigma occurs in

  • pea
  • wheat
  • Datura
  • Caesalpinia


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Q.20 Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in

  • papaya
  • bottle gourd
  • maize
  • all of these.


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Q.21 Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in

  • Commelina
  • Zostera
  • Salvia
  • Fig


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Q.22 Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in

  • Helianthus
  • Commelina
  • Rosa
  • Gossypium


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Q.23 Polygonum type of embryo sac is

  • 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
  • 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
  • 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled
  • 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled


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Q.24 The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is

  • 8 – celled
  • 7 – celled
  • 6 – celled
  • 5 – celled


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Q.25 What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiospermic embryo sac?

  • Brings about opening of the pollen tube
  • Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
  • Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid
  • None of these


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Q.1 A recessive allele is expressed in

  • heterozygous condition only
  • homozygous condition only
  • F3 generation
  • both homozygous and heterozygous conditions.


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Q.2 The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called

  • recessive characters
  • dominant characters
  • holandric characters
  • lethal characters


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Q.3 What will be the distribution of phenotypic features in the first filial generation after a cross between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a single locus ?

  • 3:01
  • 1:02:01
  • 1:01
  • None of the above


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Q.4 In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, percentage of pure homozygous individuals obtained in F1 generation will be

  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%


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Q.5 What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross betweeen two heterozygous tall pea plants ?

  • Zero
  • 50%
  • 25%
  • 100%


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Q.6 Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions ?

  • TT × tt
  • Tt × tt
  • TT × Tt
  • tt × tt


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Q.7 Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW – ZZ type of sex determination ?

  • It occurs in birds and some reptiles.
  • Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
  • 1:1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings
  • All of these


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Q.8 A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of their having a girl next time ?

  • 10%
  • 50%
  • 90%
  • 100%


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Q.9 Number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is

  • 22 autosomes
  • 22 pairs
  • 23 autosomes
  • 23 pairs


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Q.10 Haplodiploidy is found in

  • grasshoppers and cockroaches
  • birds and reptiles
  • butterflies and moths
  • honeybees, ants and waspe.


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Q.11 Rate of mutation is affected by

  • temperature
  • X rays
  • gamma rays
  • all of these


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Q.12 Two or more independent genes present on different chromosomes which determine nearly same phenotype are called

  • supplementary genes
  • complementary genes
  • duplicate genes
  • none of these


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Q.13 Select the incorrect statement regarding pedigree analysis

  • Solid symbols show unaffected individuals
  • Proband is the person from which case history starts
  • It is useful for genetic counsellors
  • It is an analysis of traits in several generations of a family


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Q.14 To determine the genotype of a tall plant of F2 generation, Mendel crossed this plant with a dwarf plant. This cross represents a

  • test cross
  • back cross
  • reciprocal cross
  • dihybrid cross


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Q.15 Mendal formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of

  • monohybrid cross
  • dihybrid cross
  • test cross
  • back cross


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Q.16 The inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum (dog flower) is an example of

  • incomplete dominance
  • co-dominance
  • multiple alleles
  • linkage


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Q.17 Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of

  • complete dominance
  • incomplete dominance
  • over dominance
  • epistasis


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Q.18 What can be the blood group of offspring when both parents have AB blood group ?

  • AB only
  • A, B and AB
  • A, B, AB and O
  • A and B only


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Q.19 Inheritance of roan coat in cattle is an example of

  • incomplete dominance
  • codominance
  • multiple allelism
  • none of these


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Q.20 How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism who is heterozygous for 4 loci ?

  • 4
  • 8
  • 16
  • 32


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Q.21 Law of independent assortment can be explained with the help of

  • dihybrid
  • test cross
  • back cross
  • monohybrid cross


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Q.22 Which three scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work ?

  • Avery, McLeod, McCarty
  • Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
  • Bateson, Punnet and Bridges
  • de Vries, Correns and Tschemark


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Q.23 Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by

  • Morgan et al
  • Sutton and Boveri
  • Hugo deVries
  • Gregor J. Mendel


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Q.24 Experimental verification of ‘chromosomal theory of inheritance’ was done by

  • Sutton and Boveri
  • Morgan et al
  • Henking
  • Karl Correns


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Q.25 Genes located very close to one another on same chromosome tend to be transmitted together and are called as

  • allelomorphs
  • identical genes
  • linked genes
  • recessive genes


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Q.1 Quiescent centre is present in the

  • apical meristem
  • shoot meristem
  • lateral meristem
  • root meristem


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Q.2 Closed vascular bundles lacks

  • pith
  • xylem
  • cambium
  • xylem vessels


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Q.3 Which of the following is not a feature of spring wood?

  • Color of the wood is light.
  • Density is less.
  • Cambium is active.
  • Lesser number of xylary elements.


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Q.4 In a monocot leaf

  • bulliform cells are absent from the eqidermis
  • veins from a network
  • mesophyll is well differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
  • mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma


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Q.5 A.T.S. of a young dicot root can be distinguished from that of a young dicot stem by the presence of

  • radial arrangement of xylem and phloem
  • collateral arrangement of xylem and phloem
  • interfascicular cambium
  • intrafascicular cambium


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Q.6 Fusifrom initial cells of cambium from

  • vascular rays
  • tracheary elements
  • ray parenchyma
  • phloem parenchyma


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Q.7 Callose deposition is found in

  • tracheids
  • companion cells
  • sieve areas
  • phloem parenchyma


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Q.8 Stem develops from

  • radicle
  • cotyledon
  • mesocarp
  • plumule


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Q.9 Stem grows in girth due to

  • outer cortical
  • epidermis
  • vascular cambium
  • phellogen


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Q.10 Which of the following is true about heartwood?

  • They are dead but gives mechanical support to stem
  • They are light in color
  • They conduct water and minerals.
  • 1 and 3


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Q.11 Pith is very well developed in

  • monocot root and monocot stem
  • monocot root and dicot root
  • dicot root and monocot stem
  • monocot root and dicot stem


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Q.12 Which of the following helps in the curling of the leaf surface?

  • Bulliform cells
  • Xylem tissue
  • Palisade parenchyma
  • Bundle sheath cells


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Q.13 Walls of sclerenchyma are

  • rigid
  • lignified
  • pectinised
  • suberised


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Q.14 Fusifrom initial cells of cambium from

  • vascular rays
  • tracheary elements
  • ray parenchyma
  • phloem parenchyma


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Q.15 Closed vascular bundles lacks

  • pith
  • xylem
  • cambium
  • xylem vessels


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Q.16 After the secondary growth, the oldest layer of secondary phloem in a dicot stem is located

  • just outside the vascular cambium
  • just inside the vascular cambium
  • just inside the vascular phloem
  • just outside the secondary xylem


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Q.17 The innermost layer of cortex which shows casparian thickenings in its cells is called as

  • epidermis
  • endodermis
  • pericycle
  • exodermis


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Q.18 Vessels differ from tracheids

  • in being living
  • in being derived from a single cell
  • in that they consist of vertical row of cells with cross walls dissolved
  • in coducting water and minerals


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Q.19 Endodermis cells are rich in

  • cellulose
  • starch grains
  • fibers
  • resins and wax


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Q.20 Formation of secondary xylem and phloem respectively

  • Centrifugal and centripetal
  • Centripetal and centrifugal
  • Both centripetal
  • Both centrifugal


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Q.21 Bark includes all the tissues

  • Lying outside the vascular cambium
  • Formed by vascular cambium
  • Formed by phellogen
  • Phellem & phelloderm


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Q.22 Living tissue in lenticel is called

  • Conjunctive tissue
  • Connective tissue
  • Complementary tissue
  • Phelloderm


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Q.23 Which among the following are elongated or tube like cells with thick and lignified walls and tapering ends?

  • Xylem fibres
  • Xylem parenchyma
  • vessels
  • Tracheids


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Q.24 Which of the following provide maximum mechanical strength to a tree trunk.

  • Heart wood
  • Sap wood
  • Cork
  • Late wood


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Q.25 Vessels and companion cells are respectively present in the xylem and phloem of

  • Gymnosperm
  • Pteridophytes
  • Angiosperm
  • Bryophyta


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Q.1 Dry seeds kept in water swell due to

  • absorption
  • diffusion
  • imbibition
  • none of these


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Q.2 Choose the correct statement/statements. Pumps in active transport are A. Lipids that bind molecules to pass them through the membrane. B. Transport molecules uphill. C. These are specific transporters. D. These are sensitive to inhibitors

  • A and C
  • A, B and D
  • B, C and D
  • C and D


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Q.3 Which of the following is the unit of ψ?

  • Pascal
  • Joule
  • Newton
  • Electron volt


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Q.4 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be

  • No movement of water
  • Movement of water from cell B to A
  • Movement of water from cell A to B
  • Equilibrium between the two


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Q.5 Which of the following is decreased during increase in humidity in the atmosphere?

  • Transpiration
  • Photosynthesis
  • Respiration
  • Glycolysis


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Q.6 Ψs is always

  • positive
  • zero
  • negative
  • one


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Q.7 Two types of molecules cross the membrane in the same direction, it is called as

  • Uniport
  • Symport
  • Antiport
  • Multiport


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Q.8 Diffusion rate is affected by

  • temperature
  • membrane permeability
  • gradient of concentration
  • all of these


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Q.9 Cells shrink in _________ solution

  • isotonic
  • hypotonic
  • hypertonic
  • hypotonic and hypertonic


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Q.10 Which of the following is true about diffusion?

  • There is no expenditure of energy
  • Molecules move in Brownian motion
  • Substances moves from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.
  • Diffusion depends on the type of living system


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Q.11 Which of the following is true about diffusion?

  • There is no expenditure of energy
  • Molecules move in Brownian motion
  • Substances moves from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration
  • Diffusion depends on the type of living system


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Q.12 Water is lost in a liquid state in some plants through hydathodes. These hydathodes

  • do not show any specificity in opening and closing
  • remain closed during day
  • remain closed at night
  • remain always open


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Q.13 If pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water, the water potential

  • increases
  • decreases
  • remains same
  • atmospheric pressure does not affect water potential


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Q.14 Choose the correct sequence of water movement in the plants.

  • Cortex, protoxylem, endodermis, root hair, pericycle, metaxylem
  • Root hair, cortex, endodermis, pericycle, protoxylem, metaxylem
  • Root hair, protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, cortex, endodermis
  • Root hair, pericycle, endodermis, cortex, protoxylem, metaxylem


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Q.15 Wilting of a plant results from excessive

  • respiration
  • photosynthesis
  • absorption
  • transpiration


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Q.16 Cohesion theory of water movement in plants was put forth by

  • Henry Dixon
  • F. F. Blackman
  • Melvin cycle
  • Hans. A. Krebs


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Q.17 Diffusion rate is affected by

  • temperature
  • membrane permeability
  • gradient of concentration
  • all of these


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Q.18 When a plant is girdled (ringed)

  • the root and shoot die at the same time
  • the shoot dies first
  • the root dies first
  • neither root nor shoot will die


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Q.19 Choose the correct statement/statements. Pumps in active transport are A. Lipids that bind molecules to pass them through the membrane. B. Transport molecules uphill. C. These are specific transporters. D. These are sensitive to inhibitors

  • A and C
  • A, B and D
  • B, C and D
  • C and D


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Q.20 Assertion (A): K+ ion accumulation found in Nitella depends on its respiratory activity. Reason (R)Absorption of all ions in plants completely depends on the usage of metabolic energy. The correct answer is

  • A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • A is true but R is false
  • A is false but R is true


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Q.21 Root hairs absorb water from soil with the help of

  • Root pressure
  • osmotic pressure
  • Suction pressure
  • Turger pressure


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Q.22 Proteins that form huge pores in the membrane of the certain organelles and bacteria are called as

  • Porins
  • Pressure gradient
  • Enzymes
  • Flaccid


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Q.23 What is the effect of turgor pressure in Munch hypothesis?

  • Increase of turgor pressure
  • Decrease of turgor pressure
  • No change in turgor pressure
  • independent to water potential gradient


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Q.24 Munch hypothesis is based on

  • Translocation of food due to turgor pressure gradient and imbibition force
  • Translocation of food due to turgor pressure gradient
  • Translocation of food due to imbibition force
  • None of the above


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Q.25 ψp denotes to

  • Water potential
  • Negative potential
  • Pressure potential
  • Solute potential


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Q.1 In tamarind, the pinnate leaf is

  • bipinnate
  • tripinnate
  • paripinnate
  • imparipinnate


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Q.2 Artabotrys is a hook climber in which the hooks are modified

  • inflorescence axis
  • petiole
  • roots
  • stipules


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Q.3 Exceptional roots of Cuscuta are

  • haustorial
  • coralloid
  • mucorhizal
  • all of the above


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Q.4 The petiole is swollen and spongy in

  • Nepenthes
  • Trapa
  • Clematis
  • all of the above


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Q.5 Which one of the following plants dose not have root – pockets

  • Pistia
  • Lemna
  • Ficus
  • Eichhornia


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Q.6 The largest petal overlaps the lateral ones in _________ aestivation.

  • Papilionaceous
  • Valvate
  • Twisted
  • Imbricate


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Q.7 In Lathyrus, the leaves are modified into

  • thorns
  • cladodes
  • tendrils
  • spines


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Q.8 Potato tuber is an underground stem because

  • Tinospora
  • Jussiaea
  • Viscum
  • Vanda


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Q.9 Thors and spines are

  • homologous organs
  • analogous organs
  • thron is homologous while spine is analogous
  • spine is homologous while is analogous


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Q.10 In which of the following plants stems do not store the food materia

  • potato
  • ginger
  • onion
  • colocasia


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Q.11 In banana, the stem is

  • underground only
  • both underground and aerial
  • absent
  • aerial only


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Q.12 Srem modified to perform the function of a leaf and having many internodes is called as

  • phylloclade
  • cladode
  • offset
  • phyllode


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Q.13 certain plants called as runners can be easily propagated. This is due to the fact

  • they are numerous in numbers
  • they store the ready food
  • they lie horizontally on the soil
  • they can produce adventitious roots quite readily at the nodes


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Q.14 The coloured part of a Bougainuillea flower is the

  • corolla
  • calyx
  • bracts
  • androecium


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Q.15 The axillary buds arise

  • endogenously from the pericycle
  • exogenously from the tissues of the shoot apex
  • endogenously from the cambium tissues
  • exogenously from the innermost layers of cortex


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Q.16 The arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud is called

  • Placentation
  • Aestivation
  • Bracteate
  • Phyllotaxy


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Q.17 The term phyllotaxy is used to describe the

  • type of ovary in a plant
  • mode of arrangement of leaves
  • type of roots
  • arrangement of sepals and petals


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Q.18 Blue dye is obtained from the leaves of

  • Indigofera tinctoria
  • Opium
  • Aloe
  • Delbergia sissoo


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Q.19 Which of the following is a correct pair?

  • Cuscuta – parasite
  • Dischidia – insectivorous
  • Opuntia – predator
  • Capsella – hydrophyte


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Q.20 The embryo in sunflower has

  • one cotyledon
  • two cotyledons
  • many cotyledons
  • no cotyledon


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Q.21 The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in

  • auxins
  • proteins
  • starch
  • lipids


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Q.22 Spinous xerophytic herb belonging to solanceae is

  • Solanum tuberosum
  • S. nigrum
  • S. xanthocarpum
  • S. melongena


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Q.23 Dry indehiscent single seeded fruit formed by bi-carpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is

  • Cremocarp
  • Berry
  • Caryopsis
  • Cypsela


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Q.24 Flowers in which only one set of essential organs is present are said to be

  • Polygamous
  • Bisexual
  • Dioecious
  • Unisexual


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Q.25 Placentation in tomato and lemon is

  • Parietal
  • Free central
  • Marginal
  • Axile


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Q.1 Rhodophyceae is called red algae because of the pigment

  • Fucoxanthin
  • Phycoerythrin
  • Carotenoids
  • Chlorophyll c


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Q.2 Which of the followings plant material is an efficient water imbibant?

  • Agar