Q.1. Which one is not an ester prodrug?

1. Aspirin
2. Benorylate
3. Salsalate
4. None of these

Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation: Aspirin, benorylate and slasalate are ester prodrugs of NSAIDs.

Q.2. Pharmacodynamics deals with the study of

1. Machanism of action
2. Intraction with receptor
3. toxic effect of drug
4. metabolism of drug

Answer: (a) Machanism of action
Explanation: pharmacodynamics is the study of mechanism of drug action and the relationship between drug concentration and effect

Q.3. Therepeutic index is a ratio of

1. toxic dose and therapeutic dose
2. therapeutic dose and % response
3. Toxic dose and % response
4. None of these

Answer: (a) toxic dose and therapeutic dose
Explanation: Response appers at therapeutic dose but toxic effects apper at toxic dose. There should be good margin between therapeutic and toxic dose

Q.4. The action of acetyle choline on Exocrine gland is

1. Stimulatory
2. Inhibitory
3. Stimulatory or inhibitory depends on nature of exocrine glands
4. None of these

Answer: (a) Stimulatory
Explanation: Exocrine glands and nicotinic receptors are stimulated by Ach.

Q.5. barbiturates causes death at toxic dose due to

1. Cardiac arrest
2. Liver damage
3. Depression of respiration
4. All of these

Answer: (c) Depression of respiration
Explanation: Brbiturates are effective as Anxiolytics, Hypnotics and anticonvulsants

Q.6. Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by

1. Intraction with fungal membran sterol
2. Inhibiting protien synthesis
3. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
4. None of these

Answer: (a) Intraction with fungal membran sterol
Explanation:

Q.7. Suganril is common brand name for :

1. Phenylbutazone
2. Piroxicam
3. Benorylate
4. Indomethacine

Answer: (b) Piroxicam
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis

Q.8. Captopril lowers down the blood pressure by

1. inhibition of calcium reflux
2. inhibition of enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase
3. relaxation of smooth muscles
4. None of these

Answer: (b) inhibition of enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase
Explanation: Captopril is an ACE Inhibitor

Q.9. Which one of these metallic ions essential for coagulation of blood?

1. Calcium
2. Manganese
3. Sodium
4. Potassium

Answer: (a) Calcium
Explanation: Calcium activates protien Kinase C, which inturn, activates phospholipase A2. Calcium is responsible for activation of prothrombin into thrombin which convert fibrinogen to fibrin

Q.10. Paraldehyde is administered by

1. Oral route
2. Rectal route
3. Intramuscular route
4. All of these

Answer: (c) Intramuscular route
Explanation: Paraldehyde is used to treat alcoholism and some convulsive desorders.

Q.11. The term bio-equivalence means comparisions of various formulation of

1. same class of drug
2. different class of drug
3. same or different class of drug
4. None of these

Answer: (a) same class of drug
Explanation: Pharmaceutical products are bioequivalent if they are pharmaceutically equivalent and their bioavailabilities.

Q.12. which one of these vitamin possess lipid lowering property?

1. Nicotinic acid
2. vitamin A
3. vitamin B1
4. vitamin K

Answer: (a) Nicotinic acid
Explanation: nicotinic acid is also called vitamin B3 and Niacin.

Q.13. Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?

1. Phenelzine
2. Trifluperazine
3. Promethazine
4. Hydroxyzine

Answer: (b) Trifluperazine
Explanation: Trifluperazine is a typical antipsychotic of phenothyzine chemical class.

Q.14. Dose and frequency of administration is determined by

1. Dissolution rate
2. Half-life of a drug
3. Disintration rate
4. All of these

Answer: (b) Half-life of a drug
Explanation: Half-life is the amount of time required for a quantity to fall to half its value

Q.15. The Saheli oral contraceptive contains

1. Estrogen
2. Estrogen and progestin
3. Non-steroidal compound
4. None of these

Answer: (c) Non-steroidal compound
Explanation: Saheli is the non-hormonal contraceptive pill contains Ormeloxifene which is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, (SERMs).

Q.16. Drug of choice in acute attack of migraine is:

1. Methylsergide
2. Ergotamine
3. Serotonin
4. Nicotine

Answer: (b) Ergotamine
Explanation: Ergotamine has antimigraine effect due to constiction of intracranial extracerebral blood vessel.

Q.17. Antidote for acute iron poisoning is:

1. Desferoxamine
2. Copper
3. Pyridoxine
4. Riboflavin

Answer: (a) Desferoxamine
Explanation: Desferoxamine is a bactrial siderophore produced by the actinobacteria (Streptomyces pilosus).

Q.18. Drug that cause the pupil of eye to constrict are called

1. Mydriatics
2. Vasoconstrictors
3. Vasodilators
4. Miotics

Answer: (d) Miotics
Explanation: Sympathomimetic drugs cause miosis.

Q.19. An example of auto-immune disorder is:

1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Hypertension
3. Angina
4. DM

Answer: (a) Myasthenia gravis

Q.20. Which one of these impart red colour to urine?

1. Rifampin
2. Isoniazid
3. Aspirin
4. Luminal

Answer: (a) Rifampin
Explanation: Rifampin is bactericidal antibiotic. It is intensly red solid which causes red colour of urine.

Q.21. Which one of these is used as antidote for heparin

1. Protamine sulphate
2. Warfarin
3. BAL
4. Glyceryl trinitrate

Answer: (a) Protamine sulphate
Explanation: Protamine sulphate binds to heparin and reverse its anticoagulant effect.

Q.22. Naloxene is used in the poisoning of

1. Barbiturates
2. Morphine
3. Cocaine
4. Alcohol

Answer: (b) Morphine
Explanation: Naloxene is pure opioid antagonist. Naloxene is used to counter the effect of morphine.

Q.23. Overdose of digitalis may cause

1. Habituation
2. Tolerance
3. Cumulative tolerance
4. Physical dependence

Answer: (c) Cumulative tolerance
Explanation: Digitalis id commonly called foxgolves. Overdose may cause cumulative tolerance.

Q.24. Methyl alcohol may cause

1. Tetany
2. Blindness
3. Inflammation of skin
4. Gastric irritation

Answer: (b) Blindness
Explanation: Methyle alcohol is metabolised to formic acid which act on CNS and cause blindness.

Q.25. In infants tetracyclin offen cause:

1. Agranulocytocis
2. Redness in eye
3. Discolouration of teeth
4. Fever

Answer: (c) Discolouration of teeth
Explanation: Tetracycline are a group of broad spectrum antibiotic. Discolouration of teeth is side effect of tetracycline to the infant upto eight year of age.

Q.26. Ryle's tube is used for:

1. Feeding
2. Removing poision from stomach
3. Gastric lavage
4. All of the above purpose

Answer: (d) All of the above purpose
Explanation: Ryle's tube is medical device, involving the insertion of a plastic tube through the nose and down in stomach.

Q.27. Service directly related to the patient care is:

1. Clinical service
2. Pharmacy service
3. Nursing service
4. All of the above

Answer: (c) Nursing service
Explanation: Nurses are directly involved in patient care.

Q.28. Aspirin is not taken in empty stomach because

1. It causes gastric irritation
2. It causes anaemia
3. It is absorbed slowly
4. It causes allergy

Answer: (a) It causes gastric irritation
Explanation: Aspirin is alsoo called acetyl salicylic acid causes irritation in stomach.

Q.29. The member secretary of pharmacy and therapeutic committee is

1. Chief pharmacist
2. Medical officer
3. Analytical chemist
4. Physician

Answer: (a) Chief pharmacist
Explanation: Chief pharmacist is the member secretory of PTC.

Q.30. When the combined effect of two drugs is graeter than the algebric sum of their indivisiul effect, is called

1. Antagonism
2. Competitive antagonism
3. Synergism
4. non-competitive antagonism

Answer: (c) Synergism
Explanation: Synergism is the combination of two or more things that create an effect which is greater than the sum of both seprately.

Q.31. Drug useful in Zollinger-ellison syndrome:

1. Famotidine
2. Ranitidine
3. Cimetidine
4. Omeprazole

Answer: (d) Omeprazole
Explanation: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of dyspepsia and peptic ulcer disease ( Zollinger-ellison syndrome ).

Q.32. Cheese is not given with MAO inhibitors because there is risk of:

1. Allergic reactions
2. Hypertensive crisis
3. Decrease absorption
4. None of the above

Answer: (b) Hypertensive crisis
Explanation: Hypertensive crisis is also known as mlignant hypertensive causes impairment of organ system which is irriversible. Chease prolongs the effect of MAO inhibitors which cause increased neurotransmitters ( hypertensive crisis ).

Q.33. The latin word 'Ad libitum' means :

1. As much as you please
2. To be added
3. When required
4. Upto

Answer: (a) As much as you please

Q.34. The term ambulatory patients is refers to:

1. Those patients who are bedridden
2. Those who are able to walk
3. Those who are brought to hospital in an ambulance
4. Elderly patients

Answer: (b) Those who are able to walk
Explanation: Ambulatory patients are also called OPD patients.

Q.35. Lipid soloble drugs are better absorbed when:

1. Given with meal
2. Given 3 hours after meal
3. Given 1/2 hours before meal
4. both (b) and (c)

Answer: (a) Given with meal
Explanation: Lipids are group of naturally occuring, molecules that include fats, waxes etc. While taking meal, pH of GIT decreases so absorption of lipid increases.

Q.36. D5W refers to:

1. 5% solution of D-glucose
2. Distilled water which is acidified to pH 5.0
3. 0.5% solution of sodium chloride in distilled water
4. None of above

Answer: (a) 5% solution of D-glucose

Q.37. Drugs contra-indicated in pregnancy

1. Paracetamol
2. Colchicines
3. Indomethacin
4. Allopurinol

Answer: (d) Allopurinol
Explanation: Allopurinol causes congenital malformation so it is contra-indicated in pregnancy.

Q.38. List of ailments that is not cured by drug is given in Schedule

1. G
2. J
3. C
4. H

Answer: (b) J

Q.39. The drug sample taken by the drug inspector for analysis are sent to:

1. Drug controller
2. Chemical analyst
3. Govt. analyst
4. Testing laboratories

Answer: (c) Govt. analyst

Q.40. Shedule FF is related with:

1. Standard for opthalmic preparation
2. Standards fro surgical dressings
3. Standards for cometics
4. None of these

Answer: (a) Standard for opthalmic preparation

Q.41. What is GMP means?

1. Good man practices
2. Good manufacturing practices
3. good manufacturing plant
4. Good material practices

Answer: (b) Good manufacturing practices
Explanation: GMP is short term for good manufacturing practices.

Q.42. Which of the following colours is a natural colour?

1. Carotene
2. Caramel
3. Tetrazine
4. All of these

Answer: (a) Carotene
Explanation: carotene is an orange photosynthetic pigment important for photosynthesis.

Q.43. Ibuprofen belongs to which schedule as per Drug and cosmetics act, 1940?

1. B
2. G
3. H
4. X

Answer: (c) H
Explanation: Ibuprofen is a NSAID and belongs to schedule H drug.

Q.44. Which form should be used for application to import drugs for personal use?

1. Form 12 A
2. Form 19
3. Form 8
4. Form 24 C

Answer: (a) Form 12 A
Explanation: Form 12A should be filled to import medicine for personal use.

Q.45. In the prescription the medication prescribed is called as:

1. Superscription
2. Inscription
3. Subscription
4. Signature

Answer: (b) Inscription
Explanation: inscription is the portion of the prescription that specifies the medication.

Q.46. Aminophyllin is used in:

1. Edema
2. Asthma
3. Ulcer
4. Depression

Answer: (b) Asthma
Explanation: Aminophyllin is a bronchodilator and used in asthma

Q.47. Naturally occuring alkaloid colchicine is used in:

1. Inflammation
2. Gout
3. Pain
4. none of these

Answer: (b) Gout
Explanation: Colchicine is the main drug for gout from natural sources.

Q.48. Parkinsonism occurs due to:

1. Excess of dopamine
2. Depletion of dopamine
3. Depletion of epinephrine
4. None of these

Answer: (b) Depletion of dopamine
Explanation: the brain dopamine loss is fundamental to perkinson's disease.

Q.49. Which one of these antihistaminic drugs is used as appetite stimulant?

1. Promethazine
2. Pheniramine maleate
3. Cyproheptadine
4. None of these

Answer: (c) Cyproheptadine
Explanation: Cyproheptadine ( peritol ) is a 1st generation antihistaminics, also used as appetite stimulant.

Q.50. Ventolin is a common brand name for:

1. Salbutamol
2. Terbutaline
3. Amphetamine
4. Orciprenaline

Answer: (a) Salbutamol
Explanation: Salbutamol ( albuterol ) is a bronchodilatory medication marketed under the brand name ventolin.

Q.51. Acetylcholine is not used clinically as it is:

1. Less active
2. More toxic
3. Hydrolyse rapidly
4. None of these

Answer: (c) Hydrolyse rapidly
Explanation: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter in ANS. It is hydrolysed rapidly hence cannot used clinically.

Q.52. Cardiac glycosides possess cardiac activity due to presence of:

1. Glycoside linkage
2. Steroid nucleus
3. hydroxy group
4. Unsaturated five membered lactone ring

Answer: (d) Unsaturated five membered lactone ring
Explanation: Cardiac activity of cardiac glycosides is due to the presence of lactone ring at C-17 position.

Q.53. From these β-blockers, which one is used in glaucoma?

1. Propranolol
2. atenolol
3. timolol
4. metoprolol

Answer: (c) timolol
Explanation: Timolol is used in Glaucoma, heart attack and hypertension.

Q.54. Insulin is composed of:

1. Amino acid
2. Fatty acid
3. Sugar units
4. None of above

Answer: (a) Amino acid
Explanation: Insulin is a peptide hormone composed of 51 amino acids.

Q.55. Prazosin act as antihypertensive drug by:

1. Blocking α-receptors
2. Blocking β-receptors
3. Blocking ganglions
4. Depleting catecholamine

Answer: (a) Blocking α-receptors
Explanation: Prazosin ( minipress ) is a sympethetic drug and it is α1-receptor blocker.

Q.56. Mannitol acts as a diuretic by:

1. Increasing the osmotic pressor in renal tunules
2. Increasing the rate of glomarular filtration
3. inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium ion
4. None of above

Answer: (a) Increasing the osmotic pressor in renal tunules
Explanation: Mnniton is used clinically as diuretic and it act as osmotic agents.

Q.57. Which one of these is an anabolic steroid?

1. Testosterone propionate
2. Fluxymesterone
3. Stanozolol
4. None of these

Answer: (c) Stanozolol
Explanation: Anabolic steroids include stanozolol, danozol, nandrolon, metenolon, etc.

Q.58. Which one of these is a non-steroidal drug, possessing oestrogenic properties?

1. Stilbosterol
2. Ethinylestrodiole
3. Ethisterone
4. None of these

Answer: (a) Stilbosterol

Q.59. Which one of these antibiotics belongs to aminoglycoside category?

1. Chloramphenicol
2. Bacitracin
3. Streptomycin
4. Penicillin

Answer: (c) Streptomycin
Explanation: Streptomycin, tobramycin, kanamycin, gentamycin and neomycine are the examples of aminoglycosides.

Q.60. Which one of these antibiotic contains napthacene ring?

1. Tobramycin
2. Tetracycline
3. Amoxicillin
4. None of these

Answer: (b) Tetracycline
Explanation: The four ring in tetracycline collectively known as nepthacene ring.

Q.61. Iodized oil is used for:

1. Bronchography
2. Urography
3. Fallopian tube
4. None of these

Answer: (c) Fallopian tube
Explanation: Iodised oil is used for the treatent of blocked fallopian tubes.

Q.62. The 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione monosodium is used as:

1. Hypnotic
2. Anticonvulsant
3. Muscle relexant
4. Muscarinic agent

Answer: (b) Anticonvulsant
Explanation: 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione monosodium is the chemical name for 'Phenytoin' which is an anticonvulsant.

Q.63. Diltiazem is a:

1. Benzodiezipine derivative
2. Benzothiazepine derivative
3. Thiazolidine derivative
4. None of these

Answer: (b) Benzothiazepine derivative
Explanation: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker and a benzothiazepine derivative.

Q.64. which one of these prolongs the repolarization of cardiac muscle to act as antiarrythmic drug?

1. verapamil
2. Procainamide
3. Bretylium
4. Maxiltene

Answer: (c) Bretylium
Explanation: Bretillium blocks the release of nor-adrenaline from nerve terminals and prolong the repolarisation of cardiac muscle to act as antiarrythmic agents.

Q.65. Which sugar is present in digitalis glycoside?

1. Digoxose
2. Digitoxose
3. Fructose
4. Doxose

Answer: (b) Digitoxose
Explanation: digitoxose is attached at 3-position at the steroidal ring.

Q.66. Which one of these paraffin base is used in the eye ointment?

1. White soft paraffin
2. Yellow soft paraffin
3. Hard paraffin
4. None of these

Answer: (b) Yellow soft paraffin
Explanation: Yellow soft paraffin is also known as Yellow petrollium jelly, is used as base for an eye ointment.

Q.67. Latin term for 'two times a day'

1. b.i.d.
2. q.i.d.
3. s.o.s.
4. t.i.d.

Answer: (a) b.i.d.
Explanation: b.i.d. ( bis-in-die ) is two times a day, q.i.d ( quarter in die ) 4 times a day, t.i.d (ter in die ) three times a day, s.o.s (si-opu-sit) if there is a need.

Q.68. One fluid ounce is equal to :

1. 30ml
2. 20ml
3. 25ml
4. 50ml

Answer: (a) 30ml
Explanation: 1 fluid ounce ( 1 Hoz ) is equivalent to 30ml.

Q.69. Glycerin suppositories ( containing 92% of glycerin ) are solidified by adding:

1. White wax
2. Stearic acid
3. Sodium stearate
4. PEG 4000

Answer: (c) Sodium stearate

Q.70. DPT vaccine contains the mixture of:

1. killed causative microorganism suspension
2. Diptheria toxoid, tetanous toxoid, and killed bordetella pertusis suspension
3. living causative micro-organism suspension
4. none of these

Answer: (b) Diptheria toxoid, tetanous toxoid, and killed bordetella pertusis suspension
Explanation: DPT vaccine is used aginst three infections in human - diptheria, pertusis(whooping cough), and tetanus.

Q.71. The dose of BCG vaccine is:

1. 1 ml
2. 0.01 ml
3. 0.1 ml
4. 0.02 ml

Answer: (c) 0.1 ml
Explanation: BCG is Bacillus Calmatte Guerin used as vaccination in the dose of 0.05 ml for infants (below 1 year) and 0.1 ml for children over 1 year of age.

Q.72. The shells of soft gellatin capsules may be made ellastic or plastic like by the addition of:

1. Sorbitol
2. Cmc
3. Water
4. Alcohol

Answer: (a) Sorbitol
Explanation: sorbitol is also known as glucitol is a sugar alcohol. It imparts elasticity to the soft gelatin capsules.

Q.73. Aromatic waters are prepared by:

1. Filtration
2. Condensation
3. Maceration
4. Distillation

Answer: (d) Distillation
Explanation: Aromatic waters are saturated solution of volatile oil and aromatic substances in distilled water, it is highly therapeutic distillates.

Q.74. Elisa test is used for diagnosis of:

1. Tuberculosis
2. Typhoid
3. AIDS
4. Rabbies

Answer: (c) AIDS
Explanation: Elisa test is used for AIDS diagnosis. This test is used to determine to know antibodies related to certain infection conditions.

Q.75. Protien Energy Malnutrition causes:

1. Marasmus
2. Obesity
3. Diabetes
4. Cancer

Answer: (a) Marasmus
Explanation: Marasmus is aform of severe malnutrition characterised by energy deficiency. Its occurance increases prior to age 1.

Q.76. The injectable contraceptive is

1. Ethesterone
2. Progesterone
3. Depomedroxy progesterone acetate
4. none of these

Answer: (c) Depomedroxy progesterone acetate
Explanation: it is used for depot injection in the form of aquous suspension.

Q.77. Hetrazan drug is used in

1. Malaria
2. Filariasis
3. cholera
4. Typhoid

Answer: (b) Filariasis
Explanation: Hetrazan is inhibitor of arachidonic acid metabolism in filarial microfilaria, hence used for the treatment of filariasis.

Q.78. Defficiency of vitamin A causes:

1. Conjuctival xerosis
2. Night blindness
3. Keratomalacia
4. Rickets

Answer: (b) Night blindness
Explanation: Night blindness is condition making difficult to see in low light.

Q.79. The most essential fatty acid is:

1. Linoleic acid
2. Linolenic acid
3. Arachidonic acid
4. Stearic acid

Answer: (a) Linoleic acid
Explanation: Linoleic acid is most essential fatty acid, polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid.

Q.80. In anaphylactic shock, the drug of choice is:

1. Isoprenaline
2. Dopamine
3. Coramine
4. Adrenaline

Answer: (d) Adrenaline
Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death. Adrenaline is a neurotransmitter and a hormone which is a drug of choice for anaphylactic shock.

Q.81. Hydrophobia is a symptom of which disease?

1. Rabbies
2. AIDS
3. Amoebiasis
4. Tuberculosis

Answer: (a) Rabbies
Explanation: Hydrophobia is fear of drinking fluids ( is a symptom of rabbies ) because of painful spasm when trying to swallow.

Q.82. The body temperature is controlled by:

1. Hypothallamus
2. Medulla
3. Pitutary
4. Thyroid

Answer: (a) Hypothallamus
Explanation: The hypothalamus is the center for homeostasis and controls the things like hunger, thirst, and maintaining body temperature.

Q.83. Insulin is secreted by:

1. Salivary glands
2. Liver
3. beta-cells of islets of langerhans
4. Pancrease

Answer: (c) beta-cells of islets of langerhans

Q.84. Which type of antigen is present in universal donor blood group?

1. A
2. B
3. Both A nd B
4. None of these

Answer: (c) Both A nd B

Q.85. The number of cervical vertibrae in humans is:

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Answer: (b) 7
Explanation: These regions are called the cervical spine, thoracic spine, lumbar spine, sacrum and coccyx. There are seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae and five lumbar vertebrae

Q.86. A component of coenzyme A is :

1. Inosine
2. Thiamine
3. Pentothenic acid
4. Pyridoxine

Answer: (c) Pentothenic acid
Explanation: pentothenic acid also called Vitamin B5.

Q.87. Increase in level of SGPT is used in diagnosis of which disease?

1. Hepatitis
2. Rickets
3. Heart attack
4. Alcoholism

Answer: (a) Hepatitis

Q.88. The major site of fat digestion is:

1. Large intestine
2. small intestine
3. Kidney
4. Liver

Answer: (b) small intestine
Explanation: Fats are digested using enzyme lipase throughout the small intestine. The product of this reaction are glycerol and 3 fatty acids.

Q.89. Drug acting on HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor ?

1. Propranolol
2. lovastatin
3. Captopril
4. Allopurinol

Answer: (b) lovastatin
Explanation: Lovastatin is a hypolipidemic agent.

Q.90. Calcium gluconate is used as:

1. Antacid
2. Electrolyte replenisher
3. Preservative
4. Astringent

Answer: (b) Electrolyte replenisher
Explanation: Calcium gluconate(10%) is used as electrolyte replenisher in hypocalcemia.

Q.91. Silver nitrate should be stored in:

1. Clean, dry white bottle
2. Lead free white bottle
3. Amber coloured white bottle
4. Neutral glass bottle

Answer: (c) Amber coloured white bottle
Explanation: Silver nitrate ( AgNO3 ) should be protected from light, hence should be stored in amber coloured bottles.

Q.92. Barium sulphate is used to diagnose:

1. Thyroid gland
2. Kidney
3. Blood vessels
4. Gastro intestinal tract

Answer: (d) Gastro intestinal tract
Explanation: Barium sulphate is used as a radio-contrast media for x-ray imaging of GI tract.

Q.93. Which one of these oil is used as laxatives?

1. Olive oil
2. Castor oil
3. Arachis oil
4. Linseed oil

Answer: (b) Castor oil
Explanation: castor oil is fixed oil, used as laxatives.

Q.94. Cod liver oil is nutritive due to the presence of which vitamin?

1. Vtamin A
2. vitamin A and vitamin D
3. Vitamin A and E
4. Vitamin E

Answer: (b) vitamin A and vitamin D

Q.95. Which one of these drug is used in inflammation?

1. Asafoetida
2. Turmeric
3. Jalap
4. All of these

Answer: (b) Turmeric
Explanation: In turmeric the active compound curcumin have wide range of biological effects like antiinflamatory, antitumor, anti-microbial.

Q.96. Which one of these posssess cytotoxic action?

1. Podophillum emodi
2. Ipomoea hederacea
3. Curcuma longa
4. None of these

Answer: (a) Podophillum emodi
Explanation: podophyllum is highly poisonous, used in treatment of cancer.

Q.97. Codien as an alkaloid is used for

1. Vasodilation
2. Analgesia
3. Skeletal muscle contraction
4. cough suppression

Answer: (d) cough suppression
Explanation: Codien is a methoxy morphine, used in cough.

Q.98. Which one of these drug contains anthraquinone glycosides?

1. Senna
2. Aloe
3. Cascara
4. All of these

Answer: (a) Senna

Q.99. Which of the following is used as emetic?

1. Agar
2. Isphagula
3. Ipecac
4. Ginseng

Answer: (c) Ipecac
Explanation: ipecac (rhizomes and roots of Rubiacea faimily ) has emetic, exxpectorant and diaphoretic properties.

Q.100. Drug under the class of isothiocyanate glycosides:

1. Black mustard
2. White mustard
3. Thevatia
4. Black mustard and white mustard both

Answer: (d) Black mustard and white mustard both