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Health Education One Liners
Health Education and Community Pharmacy important terms | One Liners
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Health Education Practice MCQs
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Q.1 IUDs prevent pregnancy by
- inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation
- increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
- suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
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Q.2 Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
- prevent ovulation
- make uterus unsuitable for implantation
- decrease phagocytosis of sperms
- suppress sperm motility
Answer ✔ (d) suppress sperm motility
Explanation: Cu suppress sperm motility
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Q.3 Confirmatory test for STDs is
- ELISA
- PCR
- DNA hybridisation
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
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Q.4 Hepatitis B is transmitted through
- blood transfusion
- intimate physical contact
- sexual contact
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
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Q.5 Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?
- Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
- Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
- AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
- AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Answer ✔ (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Explanation: AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B aren’t curable.
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Q.6 World AIDS day is
- Dec 21
- Dec 1
- Nov 1
- Jun 11
Answer ✔ (b) Dec 1
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Q.7 In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube ?
- Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
- Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
- Embro of 32 cell stage
- Zygote only
Answer ✔ (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Explanation: Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
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Q.8 From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs
- Syphilis
- AIDS
- Gonorrhea
- Genital warts
Answer ✔ (b) AIDS
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Q.9 Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
- These are effective barriers for insemination
- They do not interfere with coital act
- These help in reducing the risk of STDs
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
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Q.10 The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
- ovariectomy
- hysterectomy
- vasectomy
- castration
Answer ✔ (c) vasectomy
Explanation: Corect method is vasectomy
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Q.11 RCH stands for
- routine check-up of health
- reproduction cum hygiene
- reversible contraceptive hazards
- reproductive and child health care
Answer ✔ (d) reproductive and child health care
Explanation: It stands for reproductive and child health care
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Q.12 Amminocentesis is a technique used to
- determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
- pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
- determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
- all of these
Answer ✔ (a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
Explanation: It determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
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Q.13 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
- Jaundice
- Down’s syndrome
- Cystic fibrosis
- Colourblindness
Answer ✔ (a) Jaundice
Explanation: Jaundice can’t be determined.
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Q.14 In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?
- 12th – 14th week
- 8th – 10th week
- 5th – 7th week
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) 8th – 10th week
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Q.15 Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
- increase in birth rate
- decrease in death rate
- lack of education
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (d) all of these.
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Q.16 Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?
- Natality and immigration
- Mortality and emigration
- Natality and emigration
- Mortality and immigration
Answer ✔ (a) Natality and immigration
Explanation: Natality and immigration contributes to an increase in population
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Q.17 Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?
- It increases the poverty of a country
- It leads to shortage of food supply
- It results in unemployment
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.18 The best way to decrease population of a country is
- to educate people
- to have better houses
- to kill people on a large scale
- to practice and implement familay planning
Answer ✔ (d) to practice and implement familay planning
Explanation: It can be decreased by family planning
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Q.19 Which of the following correctly describes the measures hat can be used to control over-population ?
- Educating people about the advantages of a small family
- Raising the age of marriage
- Encouraging family planning programme
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.20 Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?
- User-friendly
- Irreversible
- Easily available
- Least side-effects
Answer ✔ (b) Irreversible
Explanation: It should be reversible
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Q.21 Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ?
- Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
- Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial
- HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
- Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not
Answer ✔ (c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
Explanation: HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
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Q.22 Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria only ?
- Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
- Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
- Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
- Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis
Answer ✔ (a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Explanation: Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
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Q.23 The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
- who cannot produce an ovum
- who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
- who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
- all of these
Answer ✔ (a) who cannot produce an ovum
Explanation: It is used where who cannot produce an ovum
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Q.24 Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment ?
- IUD
- GIFT
- IUI
- IUI
Answer ✔ (b) GIFT
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Q.25 Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
- suppression of gonadotropins
- hypersecretion of gonadotropins
- suppression of gametic transport
- suppression of fertilisation
Answer ✔ (a) suppression of gonadotropins
Explanation: Because of suppression of gonadotropins
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Q.1 A person with sickle cell anaemia is
- more prone to malaria
- more prone to typhoid
- less prone to malaria
- less prone to typhoid
Answer ✔ (c) less prone to malaria
Explanation: A person with sickle cell anaemia is less prone to malaria
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Q.2 Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?
- Diphtheria
- Flu
- Cancer
- Malaria
Answer ✔ (c) Cancer
Explanation: Cancer
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Q.3 Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively ?
- Typhoid and AIDS
- AIDS and cancer
- Pneumonia and malaria
- Cancer and malaria
Answer ✔ (b) AIDS and cancer
Explanation: AIDS and cancer contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively
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Q.4 Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by
- Plasmodium vivax
- Trichophyton
- Salmonella typhi
- Rhinoviruses
Answer ✔ (c) Salmonella typhi
Explanation: Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by Salmonella typhi
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Q.5 Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ?
- Dysentery
- Malaria
- Plague
- Both (a) & (c)
Answer ✔ (d) Both (a) & (c)
Explanation: Both (a) & (c) is the bacterial disease in humans
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Q.6 Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ?
- Legionella spp.
- Burcella melitensis
- Vibrio cholerae
- Burcella melitensis
Answer ✔ (b) Burcella melitensis
Explanation: Burcella melitensis causes whooping coough
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Q.7 Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ?
- Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
- Diptheria, leprosy, plague
- Cholera, typhoid, mumps
- Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits
Answer ✔ (b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
Explanation: Diptheria, leprosy, plague sets includes bacterial diseases
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Q.8 The common cold is caused by
- Rhino viruses
- Streptococcus pnemoniae
- Salmonella typhimurium
- Plasmodium vivax.
Answer ✔ (a) Rhino viruses
Explanation: The common cold is caused by Rhino viruses.
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Q.9 Hepatitis B is transmitted through
- sneezing
- female Anopheles
- coughing
- blood transfusion
Answer ✔ (b) female Anopheles
Explanation: female Anopheles
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Q.10 A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in malarial fever, is
- interferon
- haemozoin
- hirudin
- colostrum
Answer ✔ (b) haemozoin
Explanation: haemozoin
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Q.11 Humoral immunity is associated with
- T-cells
- B-cells
- macrophages
- both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (b) B-cells
Explanation: Humoral immunity is associated with B-cells
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Q.12 The antibody which can cross placental barrier is
- IgA
- JgE
- IgM
- IgG
Answer ✔ (d) IgG
Explanation: IgG
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Q.13 The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is
- IgA
- IgG
- IgE
- IgM
Answer ✔ (b) IgG
Explanation: IgG
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Q.14 A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation.
- antigen
- antibiotics
- exotoxin
- endotoxins
Answer ✔ (a) antigen
Explanation: A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation is known as antigen
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Q.15 Passive immunity can be conferred directly by
- vaccines
- antitoxins
- colostrum
- both (b) & (c)
Answer ✔ (d) both (b) & (c)
Explanation: both (b) & (c)
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Q.16 Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ?
- Activated and strong pathogenic antigens
- Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
- Hyperactive and strong pathogen
- Preformed antibodies
Answer ✔ (b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
Explanation: Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
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Q.17 Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ?
- Active immunisation
- Passive immunisation
- Auto-immunisation
- Humoral immunisation
Answer ✔ (b) Passive immunisation
Explanation: Passive immunisation
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Q.18 The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing
- B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes
- antibodies to the toxin
- weakend pathogen
- inactivated T-lymphocytes.
Answer ✔ (b) antibodies to the toxin
Explanation: The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing antibodies to the toxin
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Q.19 Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of
- auto-immunisation
- passive immunisation
- active immunisation
- simple immunisation
Answer ✔ (c) active immunisation
Explanation: active immunisation
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Q.20 During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the following hosts ?
- Human
- Female Anopheles mosquito
- Male Anopheles mosquito
- Both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (b) Female Anopheles mosquito
Explanation: During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in Female Anopheles mosquito
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Q.21 Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by
- Entamoeba histolytica
- E. coli
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Trichophyton
Answer ✔ (a) Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation: Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by Entamoeba histolytica
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Q.22 Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ?
- Plague
- Amoebiasis
- Leprosy
- Whooping cough
Answer ✔ (b) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Amoebiasis cannot be cured by taking antibiotics
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Q.23 Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by
- Ascaris
- E.coli
- Wuchereria
- Trichophyton
Answer ✔ (c) Wuchereria
Explanation: Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by Wuchereria
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Q.24 Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?
- Lymphatic vessels
- Respiratory system
- Nervous system
- Blood circulation
Answer ✔ (a) Lymphatic vessels
Explanation: Lymphatic vessels
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Q.25 Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector ?
- Filariasis
- Amoebiasis
- Typhoid
- Pneumonia
Answer ✔ (a) Filariasis
Explanation: Filariasis
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Q.1 Vginal sponge, means of family planning belongs to-
- Physical method
- Chemical method
- Hormonal method
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (a) Physical method
Explanation: Vaginal sponge is a methos of delivering a spermicide in cervix and vagina. It provides physical barrier between ovum and sperm.
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Q.2 Mala - D (oral pills) contains which of the following hormone?
- Oestrogen
- Progestogen
- Both (a) and (b)
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Mala -D is a combined oral contraceptive pill with the low estrogen and progestogen content which provides good control on menstrual cycle.
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Q.3 Water borne disease is-
- Tuberculosis
- cholera
- measles
- influenza
Answer ✔ (b) cholera
Explanation: Cholera is a water borne disease. This infects intestine and caused by Vibrio cholra.
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Q.4 In diphtheria the causetive organism affects-
- upper respiratory tract
- Intestine
- brain
- lungs
Answer ✔ (a) upper respiratory tract
Explanation: Diphteria is a upper respiratory tract infectious disease caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin (poison). It is the toxin that can cause people to get very sick. Diphtheria bacteria spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing.
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Q.5 Elisa test is used for diagnosis of-
- Tuberculosis
- Typhoid
- AIDS
- Rabies
Answer ✔ (c) AIDS
Explanation: The Elisa test is used to determine to know antibodies related too certain infection conditions. Elisa test is used for AIDS Diagnosis.
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Q.6 In liver, Glucose is stored as-
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Sucrose
- Lactose
Answer ✔ (b) Glycogen
Explanation: Glucose is stored in liver as glycogen, which is multibranched polysachharide. Glucose is the monomer unit of Glycogen. Starch, Sucrose and Lactose are borken down to glucose in the process of digestion. Fructose is also isomerised to glucose.
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Q.7 The reserve food material of a plant is-
- Cellulose
- Starch
- Glucose
- Pectine
Answer ✔ (a) Cellulose
Explanation: Cellulose is the reserve food material of plants. It is atype of biofuel produced from lignocelluloses.
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Q.8 Measles is caused by-
- Variola virus
- Rubeola virus
- Varicella zoster
- Herpes virus
Answer ✔ (b) Rubeola virus
Explanation: Maesles is caused by rubella virus. It is an infectious disease of respiratory system, immune system, and skin caused by virus especially paromyxo virus.
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Q.9 Removal of disease from universe is-
- Eradication
- Prevention
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Answer ✔ (a) Eradication
Explanation: Eradication of infectious disease is the reduction of the global prevalence in the humans or animals host to zero.
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Q.10 Chlorhexidine is used as-
- Disinfectant
- Bacteriostatic
- Antiseptic
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Antiseptic
Explanation: Chlorhexidine salt dissociates and releases negative charged ions at the physiological pH. It is active against the both gram positive and gram negative microorganisms.
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Q.11 Malaria is transmitted through -
- Female culex musquito
- Female housefly
- Female anopheles mosquito
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Female anopheles mosquito
Explanation: Female anopheles mosquito spreads malaria and its parasite traget liver to mature and reproduce.
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Q.12 The Popular IUCD is-
- Condom
- Copper T
- Foam tablet
- Cream
Answer ✔ (b) Copper T
Explanation: An intrauterine device (IUD or coil) is a small contraceptive device, often t-shaped containing erither copper or levonorgestrel, which is inserted into the uterus.
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Q.13 The intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron is-
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin A
Answer ✔ (a) Vitamin B12
Explanation: Vitamin B12 is the intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron (determines how much iron is needed for a healthy blood and cells).It is important for normal blood cells and nerves. Vitamin C Improves the absorption of iron from stomach. follates (vitamin B9 ) needed for the formation of helathy blood cells (RBCs).
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Q.14 Which of the following has the highest amount of polyunsaturated fatty acid?
- sunflower oil
- Ground nut oil
- Palm Oil
- Soyabean oil
Answer ✔ (a) sunflower oil
Explanation: Sunflower oil is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids used as an emollient.
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Q.15 Which of the following is the carbohydrate of animal origin?
- Glucose
- Sucrose
- starch
- Glycogen
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen is the animal origin carbohydrate, it is multibranched polysachhride.
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Q.16 How much retinol is equal to one I.U.?
- 0.3 mcg
- 0.6 mcg
- 1.2 mcg
- 2 mcg
Answer ✔ (a) 0.3 mcg
Explanation: Retinol is a diterpenoid, other form of vitamin A. Deficiency of Retinol (Vitamin A) causes night blindness. 1 international unit (I.U.) of retinol contains 0.3 mcg of retinol.
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Q.17 leprosy mainly affects-
- muscles and bones
- nerves and skin
- testes and eye
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: leprosy mainly affects skin and nerves leading to the disfunction of eyes, bones, muscles nd othe sensary organs.
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Q.18 Which is not a live attenuated vaccine?
- BCG
- OPV
- measles
- pertusis
Answer ✔ (d) pertusis
Explanation: Pertussis vaccine is a vaccine that protects against whooping cough. There are two main types: whole-cell vaccines and acellular vaccines.
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Q.19 In general, which foods are considered to be high in vitamin K and should be avoided in large amounts when on warfarin dose?
- Citrus fruits
- Dairy products
- bread and cereals
- Green leafy vegatables
Answer ✔ (d) Green leafy vegatables
Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are nutritional power houses filled with vitamins, minerals, and polynutrients.
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Q.20 Tocoferol also known as-
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin K
Answer ✔ (b) Vitamin E
Explanation: Tocoferols and tocotrienols are related compounds have vitamin activity and known as vitamin E compounds. These are fat soluble antioxidants and also have many other functions in the body.
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Q.1 What is the full form of DOT?
- Direct Observation Therapy
- District Operation Therapy
- District Observation Treatment
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Direct Observation Therapy
Explanation: DOT means that a trained health care worker or other designated individual provides the prescribed TB drugs and watches the patient swallow everyday.
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Q.2 Disease caused by Bordetella pertussis-
- Diphtheria
- Tuberculosis
- Chickenpox
- Whooping cough
Answer ✔ (d) Whooping cough
Explanation: Whooping cough (pertussis) is a highly contagious respiratory tract infection.
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Q.3 IDDM is a type of-
- Cancer
- Diabetes
- Hypotension
- Hypertension
Answer ✔ (b) Diabetes
Explanation: Diabetes is an autoimmune disease resulting in the destruction of insulin producing cells.
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Q.4 Which one is a permanent contraceptive method?
- Male sterilization
- Barrier method
- Intra - Uterine devices
- Hormonal methods
Answer ✔ (a) Male sterilization
Explanation: Male sterilization is a procedure performed on a man to make it permanent infertile.
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Q.5 Ziehl-Neelsen staining is done for-
- Spirocheates
- Yeast and fungi
- Mycobacteria
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Mycobacteria
Explanation: Ziehl-Neelsen stain is also known as the acid-fast stain is used for staining the acid-fast organisms, mainly mycobacterium. it was discovered by Franz Ziehl and Friedrich Neelsen.
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Q.1 The deficiency of any essential constituent of food leads to ……
- Malnutrition
- Malfunction
- Malnation
- Marination
Answer ✔ (a) Malnutrition
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Q.2 PEM occurs particularly in …
- Weanlings
- Childrens in first year of life
- Childrens in second year of life
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.3 A newly weaned child is called …
- Weanlings
- Childrens in first year of life
- Childrens in second year of life
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.4 Composite mixture of substances including proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals is…
- Food
- Nutrition
- Health
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Food
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Q.5 Body building food is also known as…
- Catabolic food
- Anabolic food
- Metabolic food
- All of them
Answer ✔ (b) Anabolic food
Explanation: Anabolic training refers to the building of muscle from protein and nutrients, as opposed to catabolic - which means to break down. Anabolism produces growth and differentiation of cells and an increase in body size, a process that involves synthesis of complex molecules.
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Q.6 Biological value of protein is dependent on…
- Relative proportion of essential amino acids
- Relative proportion of minerals
- Relative proportion of nitrogen
- Relative proportion of oxygen
Answer ✔ (a) Relative proportion of essential amino acids
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Q.7 Adult protein requirements according to lCMR is…
- 1 gm of protein per kg of body weight
- 2 gm of protein per kg of body weight
- 0.5 gm of protein per kg of body weight
- 10 gm of protein per kg of body weight
Answer ✔ (a) 1 gm of protein per kg of body weight
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Q.8 Protein energy malnutrition is also known as…
- Protein calcium malnutrition
- Protein calorie malnutrition
- Protein calcium maintenance
- Protein calorie marasmus
Answer ✔ (b) Protein calorie malnutrition
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Q.9 The condition wherein protein and energy reserves are depleted is…
- Obesity
- Kwashiorkor
- Oedema
- Marasmus
Answer ✔ (d) Marasmus
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Q.10 The condition with adequate calorie intake but relative protein deficiency is…
- Marasmus
- Kwashiorkor
- Oedema
- Obesity
Answer ✔ (b) Kwashiorkor
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Q.1 Salmonella is spread by
- Flies
- Fomites
- Feces
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.2 The occurrence of typhoid is high in following circumstances except
- Comes in contact with infected person
- Use of narrow spectrum antibiotic
- Living with poor sanitation
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotic
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Q.3 The pathogenesis of typhoid fever depends on following except
- Host immunity
- Virulence
- Infectious species
- Volume of organism
Answer ✔ (d) Volume of organism
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Q.4 The typical incubation period of salmonella is _____ days
- 10-14
- 5-8
- 1-2
- 15-20
Answer ✔ (a) 10-14
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Q.5 Which of the following symptom does not appear during first week of infection in typhoid?
- Diarrhoea in children
- Delirium
- Fever
- Myalgia
Answer ✔ (b) Delirium
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Q.6 Which serological test can be used for diagnosis of typhoid fever?
- ELISA
- PCR
- Widal test
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Widal test
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Q.7 Which antibiotic can be employed for treatment of typhoid fever?
- Tetracycline
- Lincosamide
- Azithromycin
- Ciprofloxacin
Answer ✔ (d) Ciprofloxacin
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Q.8 Which of the following drug cannot be given in bacillary dysentery
- Diphenoxylate
- Ciprofloxacin
- Sulfamethoxazole
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Diphenoxylate
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Q.9 In bacillary dysentery usually patient experience symptoms within hours of ingestion of contaminated food and water
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
- 96 hours
- 72 hours
Answer ✔ (d) 72 hours
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Q.10 Parkinson disease is marked by a lack of which chemical in the brain?
- Serotonin
- Norepinephrine
- GABA
- Dopamine
Answer ✔ (d) Dopamine
Health Education • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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