General Science One Liners
Common Physics Questions with one line Answer
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general science gk
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what is the physical phase of life called?
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GK Common Abbreviations | General Science One Liners
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General Science Practice MCQs
Question 1 of 536
Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following
- enzyme
- substrate
- end products
- intermediate end products
Answer ✔ (c) end products
Explanation: end products
Question 2 of 536
Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
- succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
- cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
- hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
- carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Explanation: succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Question 3 of 536
Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Insulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose.
Question 4 of 536
Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
- lowering activation energy
- increasing activation energy
- increasing temperature and pH
- decreasing temperature and pH
Answer ✔ (a) lowering activation energy
Explanation: Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Question 5 of 536
Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
- Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
- Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
- Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
- Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Answer ✔ (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Explanation: Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Question 6 of 536
Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
- Uracil
- Cytosine
- Guanine
- Thymine
Answer ✔ (c) Guanine
Explanation: Guanine is a purine.
Question 7 of 536
Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of
- Peptidase
- Amylase
- Sucrose
- Lipase
Answer ✔ (b) Amylase
Explanation: Amylase
Question 8 of 536
Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids
- Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
- Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
- Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
- Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer ✔ (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are false
Question 9 of 536
Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
- End product
- External factors
- Enzyme
- Substrate
Answer ✔ (a) End product
Question 10 of 536
Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
- Lactose
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Dextrin
Answer ✔ (a) Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide made up of glucose and galactose.
Question 11 of 536
Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Inulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose
Question 12 of 536
Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
- Collagen
- Trypsin
- Myosin
- Actin
Answer ✔ (c) Myosin
Explanation: Myosin
Question 13 of 536
Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______
- B1
- B2
- B3
- B12
Answer ✔ (c) B3
Explanation: B3 also named as niacin.
Question 14 of 536
Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?
- Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Explanation: Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Question 15 of 536
Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of
- allosteric inhibition
- feedback inhibition
- uncompetitive inhibition
- competitive inhibition
Answer ✔ (d) competitive inhibition
Explanation: When substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, it completes the reaction.When inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, it blocks the reaction
Question 16 of 536
Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is
- DNA polymerase
- carbonic anhydrase
- carbonic dehydrogenase
- DNA ligase
Answer ✔ (b) carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: The fastest enzyme known is carbonic anhydrase. It converts 106 molecules of carbon dioxide molecules per second.
Question 17 of 536
Q.17 Lecithin is a
- polysaccharide
- protein
- nucleic acid
- lipid
Answer ✔ (d) lipid
Explanation: Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Question 18 of 536
Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called
- enzymatic energy
- activation energy
- substrate energy
- initiation energy
Answer ✔ (b) activation energy
Explanation: The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called activation energy
Question 19 of 536
Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in
- Enhancing oxidative metabolism
- Being synthesised in the body of organisms
- Being proteinaceous
- Regulating metabolism
Answer ✔ (d) Regulating metabolism
Question 20 of 536
Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
- Adenine, thymine, uracil
- Guanine, uracil
Answer ✔ (b) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Explanation: Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Question 21 of 536
Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________
- Saponins
- Tannins
- Secondary metabolite
- Primary metabolites
Answer ✔ (d) Primary metabolites
Explanation: Primary metabolites
Question 22 of 536
Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to
- R groups of amino acids
- Sequence of amino acids
- Peptide bonds
- Amino groups of amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Sequence of amino acids
Explanation: Sequence of amino acids
Question 23 of 536
Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that
- One strand turns anticlockwise
- Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
- Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
- One strand turns clockwise
Answer ✔ (b) Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Explanation: Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Question 24 of 536
Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves
- Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
- Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
- Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
- Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer ✔ (d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Question 25 of 536
Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Maltose
- Glucose
Answer ✔ (d) Glucose
Question 26 of 536
Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
- It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
- It is a molecular disease.
- It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
- All of the above.
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above.
Question 27 of 536
Q.2 The first genetic material could be
- protein
- cabohydrates
- DNA
- RNA
Answer ✔ (d) RNA
Explanation: The first genetic material could be RNA
Question 28 of 536
Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
- chromosome 21 and Y
- chromosome 1 and X
- chromosome 1 and Y
- chromosome X and Y
Answer ✔ (c) chromosome 1 and Y
Explanation: chromosome 1 and Y is the correct answer.
Question 29 of 536
Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?
- Rosalind Franklin
- Maurice Wilkins
- Erwin Chargaff
- Meselson and Stahl
Answer ✔ (b) Maurice Wilkins
Explanation: Maurice Wilkins contributed in development of double helix model
Question 30 of 536
Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?
- Initiation
- Elongation
- Termination
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
Question 31 of 536
Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
- DNA-replication
- transcription
- translation
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) transcription
Explanation: It takes place at the level of transcription
Question 32 of 536
Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
- Chromosome 1
- Chromosome 11
- Chromosome 21
- Chromosome X
Answer ✔ (d) Chromosome X
Explanation: Chromosome X was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced
Question 33 of 536
Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
- A – DNA
- B – DNA
- cDNA
- rDNA
Answer ✔ (c) cDNA
Explanation: Such a DNA is called cDNA
Question 34 of 536
Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
- 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
- 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
- 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
- 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Answer ✔ (d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Explanation: Sequence will be 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Question 35 of 536
Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes
- the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
- the promoter and the terminator region
- the structural gene and the terminator region
- the structural gene only.
Answer ✔ (b) the promoter and the terminator region
Explanation: The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes the promoter and the terminator region
Question 36 of 536
Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be
- 5’ – UAC – 3’
- 5’ – CAU – 3’
- 5’-AUG – 3’
- 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer ✔ (b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
Question 37 of 536
Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
- 5’- end
- 3’ – end
- anticodon site
- DHUloop.
Answer ✔ (b) 3’ – end
Explanation: The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its 3’ – end
Question 38 of 536
Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to
- the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
- the larger ribosomal sub-unit
- the whole ribosome
- no such specificity exists
Answer ✔ (a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Explanation: bind to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Question 39 of 536
Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
- lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
- repressor binds to operator
- RNA polymerase binds to the operator
- lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
Answer ✔ (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Explanation: In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Question 40 of 536
Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
- glycosidic bonds
- phosphodiester bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
Answer ✔ (b) phosphodiester bonds
Explanation: In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by phosphodiester bonds
Question 41 of 536
Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
- 20%
- 40%
- 30%
- 60%
Answer ✔ (c) 30%
Explanation: 30%
Question 42 of 536
Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?
- ATGCATGCA
- AUGCAUGCA
- TACTACGT
- UACGUACGU
Answer ✔ (c) TACTACGT
Explanation: The sequence of bases on complementary strand TACTACGT
Question 43 of 536
Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
- 2 nm
- 3.4 nm
- 34 nm
- 0.34 nm
Answer ✔ (d) 0.34 nm
Question 44 of 536
Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
- central dogma reverse
- reverse transcription
- feminism
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
Question 45 of 536
Q.20 Histone proteins are
- basic, negatively charged
- basic, positively charged
- acidic, positively charged
- acidic, negatively charged
Answer ✔ (b) basic, positively charged
Explanation: Histone proteins are basic, positively charged
Question 46 of 536
Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called
- nucleotides
- nucleosides
- histone octamer
- nucleosomes
Answer ✔ (d) nucleosomes
Explanation: seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called nucleosomes
Question 47 of 536
Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
- It is densely packed
- It stains dark
- It is transcriptionally active.
- It is late replicating
Answer ✔ (c) It is transcriptionally active.
Question 48 of 536
Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
- transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
- structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
- Mendel’s laws of inheritance
- biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer ✔ (b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Explanation: They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Question 49 of 536
Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are
- phenylalanine and arginine
- tryptophan and methionine
- valine and proline
- methionine and aroinine
Answer ✔ (b) tryptophan and methionine
Explanation: Amino acids which are specified by single codons are tryptophan and methionine
Question 50 of 536
Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
- Genetic code is ambiguous.
- Genetic code is deqenerate
- Genetic code is universal
- Genetic code is non-overlanning.
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
Explanation: Genetic code is ambiguous is incorrect.
Question 51 of 536
Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
- It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
- It is a molecular disease.
- It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
- All of the above.
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above.
Question 52 of 536
Q.2 The first genetic material could be
- protein
- cabohydrates
- DNA
- RNA
Answer ✔ (d) RNA
Explanation: The first genetic material could be RNA
Question 53 of 536
Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
- chromosome 21 and Y
- chromosome 1 and X
- chromosome 1 and Y
- chromosome X and Y
Answer ✔ (c) chromosome 1 and Y
Explanation: chromosome 1 and Y is the correct answer.
Question 54 of 536
Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?
- Rosalind Franklin
- Maurice Wilkins
- Erwin Chargaff
- Meselson and Stahl
Answer ✔ (b) Maurice Wilkins
Explanation: Maurice Wilkins contributed in development of double helix model
Question 55 of 536
Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?
- Initiation
- Elongation
- Termination
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
Question 56 of 536
Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
- DNA-replication
- transcription
- translation
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) transcription
Explanation: It takes place at the level of transcription
Question 57 of 536
Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
- Chromosome 1
- Chromosome 11
- Chromosome 21
- Chromosome X
Answer ✔ (d) Chromosome X
Explanation: Chromosome X was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced
Question 58 of 536
Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
- A – DNA
- B – DNA
- cDNA
- rDNA
Answer ✔ (c) cDNA
Explanation: Such a DNA is called cDNA
Question 59 of 536
Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
- 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
- 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
- 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
- 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Answer ✔ (d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Explanation: Sequence will be 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Question 60 of 536
Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes
- the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
- the promoter and the terminator region
- the structural gene and the terminator region
- the structural gene only.
Answer ✔ (b) the promoter and the terminator region
Explanation: The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes the promoter and the terminator region
Question 61 of 536
Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be
- 5’ – UAC – 3’
- 5’ – CAU – 3’
- 5’-AUG – 3’
- 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer ✔ (b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
Question 62 of 536
Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
- 5’- end
- 3’ – end
- anticodon site
- DHUloop.
Answer ✔ (b) 3’ – end
Explanation: The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its 3’ – end
Question 63 of 536
Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to
- the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
- the larger ribosomal sub-unit
- the whole ribosome
- no such specificity exists
Answer ✔ (a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Explanation: bind to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Question 64 of 536
Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
- lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
- repressor binds to operator
- RNA polymerase binds to the operator
- lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
Answer ✔ (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Explanation: In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Question 65 of 536
Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
- glycosidic bonds
- phosphodiester bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
Answer ✔ (b) phosphodiester bonds
Explanation: In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by phosphodiester bonds
Question 66 of 536
Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
- 20%
- 40%
- 30%
- 60%
Answer ✔ (c) 30%
Explanation: 30%
Question 67 of 536
Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?
- ATGCATGCA
- AUGCAUGCA
- TACTACGT
- UACGUACGU
Answer ✔ (c) TACTACGT
Explanation: The sequence of bases on complementary strand TACTACGT
Question 68 of 536
Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
- 2 nm
- 3.4 nm
- 34 nm
- 0.34 nm
Answer ✔ (d) 0.34 nm
Question 69 of 536
Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
- central dogma reverse
- reverse transcription
- feminism
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
Question 70 of 536
Q.20 Histone proteins are
- basic, negatively charged
- basic, positively charged
- acidic, positively charged
- acidic, negatively charged
Answer ✔ (b) basic, positively charged
Explanation: Histone proteins are basic, positively charged
Question 71 of 536
Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called
- nucleotides
- nucleosides
- histone octamer
- nucleosomes
Answer ✔ (d) nucleosomes
Explanation: seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called nucleosomes
Question 72 of 536
Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
- It is densely packed
- It stains dark
- It is transcriptionally active.
- It is late replicating
Answer ✔ (c) It is transcriptionally active.
Question 73 of 536
Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
- transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
- structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
- Mendel’s laws of inheritance
- biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer ✔ (b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Explanation: They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Question 74 of 536
Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are
- phenylalanine and arginine
- tryptophan and methionine
- valine and proline
- methionine and aroinine
Answer ✔ (b) tryptophan and methionine
Explanation: Amino acids which are specified by single codons are tryptophan and methionine
Question 75 of 536
Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
- Genetic code is ambiguous.
- Genetic code is deqenerate
- Genetic code is universal
- Genetic code is non-overlanning.
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
Explanation: Genetic code is ambiguous is incorrect.
Question 76 of 536
Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic
- Aquatic amphibian
- Aquatic insect
- Bony fishes
- Mammal
Answer ✔ (d) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 77 of 536
Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic
- Mammal
- Aquatic insect
- Terrestrial amphibian
- Marine fishes
Answer ✔ (b) Aquatic insect
Explanation: Aquatic insect is ammonotelic
Question 78 of 536
Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic
- Mammal
- Reptiles
- Birds
- Snails
Answer ✔ (a) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 79 of 536
Q.4 Which among is the most toxic
- Ammonia
- Uric acid
- Urea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is the most toxic
Question 80 of 536
Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body
- Ammonia
- Urea
- Uric acid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Uric acid
Explanation: Uric acid is least toxic thus requires less water
Question 81 of 536
Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of
- Planaria
- Annelids
- Cockroach
- Rotifers
Answer ✔ (c) Cockroach
Explanation: They have malphigian body for excretion
Question 82 of 536
Q.7 Kidney is present between
- T12 L3
- T11 L2
- T 10 L1
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) T12 L3
Explanation: Present between last thoracic and third lumbar
Question 83 of 536
Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism
- Earthworm
- Prawn
- Cockroach
- Planaria
Answer ✔ (b) Prawn
Explanation: Planaria have flame cells, cockroach have malphigian tubules and earthworm have nephridia
Question 84 of 536
Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney
- 80-90g
- 120-150g
- 110-120g
- 120-170g
Answer ✔ (d) 120-170g
Question 85 of 536
Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons
- 1 million
- 2 million
- 2 thousand
- 2 hundred
Answer ✔ (b) 2 million
Explanation: 2 million nephrons are present in each kidney
Question 86 of 536
Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney
- Nephrons
- Cell
- Neurons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Nephrons
Question 87 of 536
Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as
- Malphigian body
- Renal corpuscle
- Malphigian capsule
- Both b and c
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Malphigian capsul is an excretory structure.
Question 88 of 536
Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Juxta medullary nephron
Explanation: Cortical nephron is short in length
Question 89 of 536
Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case
- Renal calculi
- Renal failure
- Uremia
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Renal failure
Explanation: A functioning kidney is used in transplantation
Question 90 of 536
Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water
- Descending loop
- Ascending loop
- Both the loops
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Descending loop
Explanation: Only descending loop of henle is permeable to water.
Question 91 of 536
Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
- Pineal gland
- Pancreas
- Gall bladder
- Sweat glands
Answer ✔ (d) Sweat glands
Explanation: Sweat glands release these substances
Question 92 of 536
Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as
- Ketonuria
- Glycosides
- Glycosuria
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Glycosuria
Explanation: Ketonuria is presence of ketone body in urine
Question 93 of 536
Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Renal calculi
- Glomerulonephritis
Answer ✔ (d) Glomerulonephritis
Question 94 of 536
Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Vasoconstriction
Explanation: It only cause vasoconstriction
Question 95 of 536
Q.20 ANF can cause
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasodilation
Explanation: It only cause vasodilation
Question 96 of 536
Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is
- 180 L
- 150L
- 130L
- 120L
Answer ✔ (a) 180 L
Explanation: Its approx 125 ml/min I.e 180L per day
Question 97 of 536
Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following
- DCT
- Both a and c
- PCT
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) PCT
Explanation: In DCT columnar cells are present w/o cilia
Question 98 of 536
Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute
- 500-800ml
- 1100- 1200ml
- 1500-1700ml
- 1600-1800ml
Answer ✔ (b) 1100- 1200ml
Question 99 of 536
Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Cortical nephron
Explanation: Its absent or highly reduced in cortical nephron
Question 100 of 536
Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic
- Aquatic amphibian
- Aquatic insect
- Bony fishes
- Mammal
Answer ✔ (d) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 101 of 536
Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic
- Mammal
- Aquatic insect
- Terrestrial amphibian
- Marine fishes
Answer ✔ (b) Aquatic insect
Explanation: Aquatic insect is ammonotelic
Question 102 of 536
Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic
- Mammal
- Reptiles
- Birds
- Snails
Answer ✔ (a) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 103 of 536
Q.4 Which among is the most toxic
- Ammonia
- Uric acid
- Urea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is the most toxic
Question 104 of 536
Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body
- Ammonia
- Urea
- Uric acid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Uric acid
Explanation: Uric acid is least toxic thus requires less water
Question 105 of 536
Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of
- Planaria
- Annelids
- Cockroach
- Rotifers
Answer ✔ (c) Cockroach
Explanation: They have malphigian body for excretion
Question 106 of 536
Q.7 Kidney is present between
- T12 L3
- T11 L2
- T 10 L1
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) T12 L3
Explanation: Present between last thoracic and third lumbar
Question 107 of 536
Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism
- Earthworm
- Prawn
- Cockroach
- Planaria
Answer ✔ (b) Prawn
Explanation: Planaria have flame cells, cockroach have malphigian tubules and earthworm have nephridia
Question 108 of 536
Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney
- 80-90g
- 120-150g
- 110-120g
- 120-170g
Answer ✔ (d) 120-170g
Question 109 of 536
Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons
- 1 million
- 2 million
- 2 thousand
- 2 hundred
Answer ✔ (b) 2 million
Explanation: 2 million nephrons are present in each kidney
Question 110 of 536
Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney
- Nephrons
- Cell
- Neurons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Nephrons
Question 111 of 536
Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as
- Malphigian body
- Renal corpuscle
- Malphigian capsule
- Both b and c
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Malphigian capsul is an excretory structure.
Question 112 of 536
Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Juxta medullary nephron
Explanation: Cortical nephron is short in length
Question 113 of 536
Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case
- Renal calculi
- Renal failure
- Uremia
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Renal failure
Explanation: A functioning kidney is used in transplantation
Question 114 of 536
Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water
- Descending loop
- Ascending loop
- Both the loops
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Descending loop
Explanation: Only descending loop of henle is permeable to water.
Question 115 of 536
Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
- Pineal gland
- Pancreas
- Gall bladder
- Sweat glands
Answer ✔ (d) Sweat glands
Explanation: Sweat glands release these substances
Question 116 of 536
Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as
- Ketonuria
- Glycosides
- Glycosuria
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Glycosuria
Explanation: Ketonuria is presence of ketone body in urine
Question 117 of 536
Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Renal calculi
- Glomerulonephritis
Answer ✔ (d) Glomerulonephritis
Question 118 of 536
Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Vasoconstriction
Explanation: It only cause vasoconstriction
Question 119 of 536
Q.20 ANF can cause
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasodilation
Explanation: It only cause vasodilation
Question 120 of 536
Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is
- 180 L
- 150L
- 130L
- 120L
Answer ✔ (a) 180 L
Explanation: Its approx 125 ml/min I.e 180L per day
Question 121 of 536
Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following
- DCT
- Both a and c
- PCT
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) PCT
Explanation: In DCT columnar cells are present w/o cilia
Question 122 of 536
Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute
- 500-800ml
- 1100- 1200ml
- 1500-1700ml
- 1600-1800ml
Answer ✔ (b) 1100- 1200ml
Question 123 of 536
Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Cortical nephron
Explanation: Its absent or highly reduced in cortical nephron
Question 124 of 536
Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during
- late telophase
- late prophase
- early anaphase
- late metaphase
Answer ✔ (b) late prophase
Explanation: Cells, when viewed under microscope at the end of prophase, do not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
Question 125 of 536
Q.2 Cell plate grows from
- walls to the centre
- centre to the walls
- in patches
- simultaneously
Answer ✔ (b) centre to the walls
Explanation: Cell plate grows during cytokinesis from centre to the walls
Question 126 of 536
Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles
- C, A, B, D
- C, B, A, D
- C, D, B, A
- A, C, D, B
Answer ✔ (b) C, B, A, D
Explanation: Duplication of centrioles occurs in S-phase.Protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase.chromatin condensation is followed by centrioles movement towards the poles. (Prophase)
Question 127 of 536
Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into
- Prophase
- Anaphase
- Telophase
- Metaphase
Answer ✔ (d) Metaphase
Question 128 of 536
Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for
- division of cytoplasm
- division of nucleoplasm
- division of nucleus
- separation of daughter chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) separation of daughter chromosomes
Explanation: Karyokinesis means separation of daughter chromosomes.Cytokinesis means division of cytoplasm
Question 129 of 536
Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 130 of 536
Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
- Metaphase
- Interphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 131 of 536
Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences
- II, I, IV, III
- III, II, I, IV
- IV, III, II, I
- I, IV, III, II
Answer ✔ (b) III, II, I, IV
Explanation: III, II, I, IV
Question 132 of 536
Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
- splitting of the centromeres
- splitting of the chromatids
- replication of the genetic material
- condensation of the chromatin
Answer ✔ (a) splitting of the centromeres
Question 133 of 536
Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
- Autotetraploid
- Haploid
- Triploid
- Allotetraploid
Answer ✔ (d) Allotetraploid
Question 134 of 536
Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
- Pancreas
- Liver
- Ovary
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (c) Ovary
Question 135 of 536
Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
- C, B, A, D, E
- C, A, B, E, D
- C, B, A, E, D
- D, B, C, E, A
Answer ✔ (c) C, B, A, E, D
Explanation: These are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I based on the chromosomal behaviour
Question 136 of 536
Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?
- 6
- 16
- 26
- 36
Answer ✔ (b) 16
Explanation: There are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cell.
Question 137 of 536
Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in
- Mitotic prophase
- Mitotic metaphase
- Meiotic metaphase
- Meiotic prophase
Answer ✔ (d) Meiotic prophase
Question 138 of 536
Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
- Plasma membrane
- Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
- Plastids
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
Question 139 of 536
Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of
- Ribosome
- ER
- Chromosome
- Mitochondrion
Answer ✔ (c) Chromosome
Explanation: Chromosome
Question 140 of 536
Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?
- G0
- G1
- G2
- S
Answer ✔ (c) G2
Explanation: In G2 phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised for mitosis and cell growth continues
Question 141 of 536
Q.18
- Early prophase
- Early metaphase
- Early telophase
- Early anaphase
Answer ✔ (b) Early metaphase
Explanation: Chromosomes are positioning towards the equator.
Question 142 of 536
Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (a) Anaphase
Question 143 of 536
Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.
- Zygotene
- Pachytene
- Diakinesis
- Diplotene
Answer ✔ (d) Diplotene
Explanation: Synaptonemal complex dissolves in diplotene stage of Prophase I.
Question 144 of 536
Q.21 Synapsis occurs between
- A male and female gametes
- Ribosome and m-RNA
- Spindle fibres and centromeres
- Two homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Two homologous chromosomes
Explanation: Two homologous chromosomes
Question 145 of 536
Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into
- Phargmoplast
- Polyploidy
- Uninucleate condition
- Multinucleate condition
Answer ✔ (d) Multinucleate condition
Question 146 of 536
Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during
- Cytokinesis
- Interphase
- Karyokinesis
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Cytokinesis
Explanation: Cytokinesis
Question 147 of 536
Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between
- Non-sister chromosomes
- Sister chromatids
- Non-homologous chromosome
- Homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Homologous chromosomes
Question 148 of 536
Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in
- Metaphase and M phase
- Anaphase and S phase
- Interphase and S phase
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Anaphase and S phase
Explanation: Anaphase and S phase
Question 149 of 536
Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during
- late telophase
- late prophase
- early anaphase
- late metaphase
Answer ✔ (b) late prophase
Explanation: Cells, when viewed under microscope at the end of prophase, do not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
Question 150 of 536
Q.2 Cell plate grows from
- walls to the centre
- centre to the walls
- in patches
- simultaneously
Answer ✔ (b) centre to the walls
Explanation: Cell plate grows during cytokinesis from centre to the walls
Question 151 of 536
Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles
- C, A, B, D
- C, B, A, D
- C, D, B, A
- A, C, D, B
Answer ✔ (b) C, B, A, D
Explanation: Duplication of centrioles occurs in S-phase.Protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase.chromatin condensation is followed by centrioles movement towards the poles. (Prophase)
Question 152 of 536
Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into
- Prophase
- Anaphase
- Telophase
- Metaphase
Answer ✔ (d) Metaphase
Question 153 of 536
Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for
- division of cytoplasm
- division of nucleoplasm
- division of nucleus
- separation of daughter chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) separation of daughter chromosomes
Explanation: Karyokinesis means separation of daughter chromosomes.Cytokinesis means division of cytoplasm
Question 154 of 536
Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 155 of 536
Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
- Metaphase
- Interphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 156 of 536
Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences
- II, I, IV, III
- III, II, I, IV
- IV, III, II, I
- I, IV, III, II
Answer ✔ (b) III, II, I, IV
Explanation: III, II, I, IV
Question 157 of 536
Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
- splitting of the centromeres
- splitting of the chromatids
- replication of the genetic material
- condensation of the chromatin
Answer ✔ (a) splitting of the centromeres
Question 158 of 536
Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
- Autotetraploid
- Haploid
- Triploid
- Allotetraploid
Answer ✔ (d) Allotetraploid
Question 159 of 536
Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
- Pancreas
- Liver
- Ovary
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (c) Ovary
Question 160 of 536
Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
- C, B, A, D, E
- C, A, B, E, D
- C, B, A, E, D
- D, B, C, E, A
Answer ✔ (c) C, B, A, E, D
Explanation: These are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I based on the chromosomal behaviour
Question 161 of 536
Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?
- 6
- 16
- 26
- 36
Answer ✔ (b) 16
Explanation: There are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cell.
Question 162 of 536
Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in
- Mitotic prophase
- Mitotic metaphase
- Meiotic metaphase
- Meiotic prophase
Answer ✔ (d) Meiotic prophase
Question 163 of 536
Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
- Plasma membrane
- Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
- Plastids
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
Question 164 of 536
Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of
- Ribosome
- ER
- Chromosome
- Mitochondrion
Answer ✔ (c) Chromosome
Explanation: Chromosome
Question 165 of 536
Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?
- G0
- G1
- G2
- S
Answer ✔ (c) G2
Explanation: In G2 phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised for mitosis and cell growth continues
Question 166 of 536
Q.18
- Early prophase
- Early metaphase
- Early telophase
- Early anaphase
Answer ✔ (b) Early metaphase
Explanation: Chromosomes are positioning towards the equator.
Question 167 of 536
Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (a) Anaphase
Question 168 of 536
Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.
- Zygotene
- Pachytene
- Diakinesis
- Diplotene
Answer ✔ (d) Diplotene
Explanation: Synaptonemal complex dissolves in diplotene stage of Prophase I.
Question 169 of 536
Q.21 Synapsis occurs between
- A male and female gametes
- Ribosome and m-RNA
- Spindle fibres and centromeres
- Two homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Two homologous chromosomes
Explanation: Two homologous chromosomes
Question 170 of 536
Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into
- Phargmoplast
- Polyploidy
- Uninucleate condition
- Multinucleate condition
Answer ✔ (d) Multinucleate condition
Question 171 of 536
Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during
- Cytokinesis
- Interphase
- Karyokinesis
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Cytokinesis
Explanation: Cytokinesis
Question 172 of 536
Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between
- Non-sister chromosomes
- Sister chromatids
- Non-homologous chromosome
- Homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Homologous chromosomes
Question 173 of 536
Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in
- Metaphase and M phase
- Anaphase and S phase
- Interphase and S phase
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Anaphase and S phase
Explanation: Anaphase and S phase
Question 174 of 536
Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Both a and b
Question 175 of 536
Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of
- Permanent nature
- Temporary nature
- Some are permanent some temporary
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Temporary nature
Explanation: Intercalary meristems are of temporary nature
Question 176 of 536
Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during
- Phase of cell division
- Phase of cell elongation
- Phase of cell maturation
- Phase of cell differentiation
Answer ✔ (a) Phase of cell division
Explanation: Phase of cell division
Question 177 of 536
Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve
Question 178 of 536
Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents
- ability of the plant to produce new cells
- efficiency index
- relative growth rate
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).
Question 179 of 536
Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
- Autonomic movement of variation
- Autonomic movement of locomotion
- Autonomic movement of growth
- Paratonic movement of growth
Answer ✔ (c) Autonomic movement of growth
Question 180 of 536
Q.7 Which one is incorrect?
- Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
- Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
Explanation: Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Question 181 of 536
Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
- Organogenesis
- Cleavage
- Gastrulation
- Growth
Answer ✔ (b) Cleavage
Question 182 of 536
Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
- Ethylene
- Gibberellin
- IAA
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene
Question 183 of 536
Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
- given a dip in ascorbic acid
- maintained at room temperature
- refrigerated
- stored at the top of refrigerator
Answer ✔ (c) refrigerated
Explanation: refrigerated
Question 184 of 536
Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
- length of leaf
- increase in cell number
- surface area increase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) surface area increase
Explanation: Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf
Question 185 of 536
Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to
- presence of meristems
- presence of vascular cambium
- presence of xylem and phloem
- presence of tracheids
Answer ✔ (a) presence of meristems
Explanation: Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.
Question 186 of 536
Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Haemmerling
Question 187 of 536
Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
- Aging
- Regeneration
- Abnormal development
- Primary inductio
Answer ✔ (b) Regeneration
Explanation: Regeneration
Question 188 of 536
Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?
- Auxins
- Gibberellins
- Ethylene
- Cytokinins
Answer ✔ (b) Gibberellins
Explanation: Gibberellins especially GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry
Question 189 of 536
Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
- Auxin
- Gibberelic acid
- Cytokinin
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Abscisic acid
Explanation: Abscisic acid are the derivatives of carotenoids.
Question 190 of 536
Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.
Question 191 of 536
Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by
- auxins
- cytokinins
- gibberellins
- ethylene
Answer ✔ (c) gibberellins
Question 192 of 536
Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called
- Gastrocoele
- Blastocoele
- Coelom
- Neurocoele
Answer ✔ (c) Coelom
Question 193 of 536
Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called
- Gibberlin
- Auxin
- Cytokinin
- Absicic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Auxin
Explanation: Auxin
Question 194 of 536
Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid
- Isoleucine
- Methionine
- Niacin
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (d) Tryptophan
Question 195 of 536
Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy
- IAA
- ABA
- Cytokinin
- Ethylene
Answer ✔ (a) IAA
Question 196 of 536
Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation
- Parthenocarpy
- pseudocarpy
- Apomixis
- Parthenogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy
Question 197 of 536
Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is
- Embryos
- Roots
- Young leaves
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 198 of 536
Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from
- Brian et al
- Went
- Yabuta
- Kurosawa
Answer ✔ (a) Brian et al
Explanation: Brian et al
Question 199 of 536
Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Both a and b
Question 200 of 536
Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of
- Permanent nature
- Temporary nature
- Some are permanent some temporary
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Temporary nature
Explanation: Intercalary meristems are of temporary nature
Question 201 of 536
Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during
- Phase of cell division
- Phase of cell elongation
- Phase of cell maturation
- Phase of cell differentiation
Answer ✔ (a) Phase of cell division
Explanation: Phase of cell division
Question 202 of 536
Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve
Question 203 of 536
Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents
- ability of the plant to produce new cells
- efficiency index
- relative growth rate
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).
Question 204 of 536
Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
- Autonomic movement of variation
- Autonomic movement of locomotion
- Autonomic movement of growth
- Paratonic movement of growth
Answer ✔ (c) Autonomic movement of growth
Question 205 of 536
Q.7 Which one is incorrect?
- Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
- Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
Explanation: Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Question 206 of 536
Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
- Organogenesis
- Cleavage
- Gastrulation
- Growth
Answer ✔ (b) Cleavage
Question 207 of 536
Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
- Ethylene
- Gibberellin
- IAA
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene
Question 208 of 536
Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
- given a dip in ascorbic acid
- maintained at room temperature
- refrigerated
- stored at the top of refrigerator
Answer ✔ (c) refrigerated
Explanation: refrigerated
Question 209 of 536
Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
- length of leaf
- increase in cell number
- surface area increase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) surface area increase
Explanation: Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf
Question 210 of 536
Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to
- presence of meristems
- presence of vascular cambium
- presence of xylem and phloem
- presence of tracheids
Answer ✔ (a) presence of meristems
Explanation: Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.
Question 211 of 536
Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Haemmerling
Question 212 of 536
Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
- Aging
- Regeneration
- Abnormal development
- Primary inductio
Answer ✔ (b) Regeneration
Explanation: Regeneration
Question 213 of 536
Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?
- Auxins
- Gibberellins
- Ethylene
- Cytokinins
Answer ✔ (b) Gibberellins
Explanation: Gibberellins especially GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry
Question 214 of 536
Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
- Auxin
- Gibberelic acid
- Cytokinin
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Abscisic acid
Explanation: Abscisic acid are the derivatives of carotenoids.
Question 215 of 536
Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.
Question 216 of 536
Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by
- auxins
- cytokinins
- gibberellins
- ethylene
Answer ✔ (c) gibberellins
Question 217 of 536
Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called
- Gastrocoele
- Blastocoele
- Coelom
- Neurocoele
Answer ✔ (c) Coelom
Question 218 of 536
Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called
- Gibberlin
- Auxin
- Cytokinin
- Absicic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Auxin
Explanation: Auxin
Question 219 of 536
Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid
- Isoleucine
- Methionine
- Niacin
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (d) Tryptophan
Question 220 of 536
Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy
- IAA
- ABA
- Cytokinin
- Ethylene
Answer ✔ (a) IAA
Question 221 of 536
Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation
- Parthenocarpy
- pseudocarpy
- Apomixis
- Parthenogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy
Question 222 of 536
Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is
- Embryos
- Roots
- Young leaves
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 223 of 536
Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from
- Brian et al
- Went
- Yabuta
- Kurosawa
Answer ✔ (a) Brian et al
Explanation: Brian et al
Question 224 of 536
Q.1 R.Q is ratio of
- CO2 produced to substarate consumed
- CO2 produced to O2 consumed
- oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
- oxygen consumed to water produced
Answer ✔ (b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Explanation: CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Question 225 of 536
Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the
- 1 – celled stage
- 2 – celled stage
- 3 – celled stage
- male gamete formation stage
Answer ✔ (b) 2 – celled stage
Question 226 of 536
Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in
- cell cytoplasm
- inner mitochondrial membrane
- mitochondrial matrix
- nucleus
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: Pyruvate is transported from cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in matrix of mitochondria
Question 227 of 536
Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol
- Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- None of these
- Both of these
Answer ✔ (d) Both of these
Explanation: In fermentation, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions in which pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
Question 228 of 536
Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by
- Otto Meyerhof
- Hans Kreb
- Gustav Embden
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Hans Kreb
Explanation: TCA cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle was given by Hans Kreb. So it is also called as Kreb cycle.
Question 229 of 536
Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant
- inferior ovary
- dehiscent fruit
- pair of glumes
- fused calyx
Answer ✔ (c) pair of glumes
Explanation: pair of glumes
Question 230 of 536
Q.7 Malacophily means
- pollination by wind
- pollination by water
- pollination by insects
- pollination by snails
Answer ✔ (d) pollination by snails
Explanation: pollination by snails
Question 231 of 536
Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for
- allogamy
- autogamy
- chasmogamy
- cleistogamy
Answer ✔ (a) allogamy
Explanation: allogamy
Question 232 of 536
Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration
- 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
- 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
- all the formed inside mitochondria
- 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle
Answer ✔ (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Explanation: 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Question 233 of 536
Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy
- C6H12O6, 2H2O
- C12H22O11, 6H2O
- C6H12O6, 6H2O
- C12H22O11, 11H2O
Answer ✔ (c) C6H12O6, 6H2O
Explanation: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
Question 234 of 536
Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of
- numerous corolla
- androphore
- gynophore
- androgynophore
Answer ✔ (b) androphore
Question 235 of 536
Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is
- Cytochrome C
- FADH
- NADH
- oxygen
Answer ✔ (d) oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain.
Question 236 of 536
Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?
- Cytochrome c
- cytochrome a3
- cytochrome a
- FADH2
Answer ✔ (a) Cytochrome c
Explanation: Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
Question 237 of 536
Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in
- protection of delicate embryo
- enzyme synthesis
- transfer of food to cotyledons
- transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips
Answer ✔ (b) enzyme synthesis
Question 238 of 536
Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is
- fleshy seed coat
- stony pericarp
- stony mesocarp
- stony endocarp
Answer ✔ (d) stony endocarp
Explanation: stony endocarp is characteristic of drupe is
Question 239 of 536
Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as
- TCA pathway
- Glycolysis
- Hms pathway
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (b) Glycolysis
Question 240 of 536
Q.17 End product of glycolysis is
- acetyl Coenzyme A
- PEP
- pyruvate
- OAA
Answer ✔ (c) pyruvate
Explanation: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
Question 241 of 536
Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in
- mitochondrial matrix
- Cristae
- perimitochondrial space
- outer membrane
Answer ✔ (b) Cristae
Question 242 of 536
Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
- 0.9
- 1.2
- 1
- 0
Answer ✔ (c) 1
Explanation: RQ i.e. respiratory quotient is 1.RQ = volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2 consumed
Question 243 of 536
Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.
- 2
- 16
- 38
- 42
Answer ✔ (c) 38
Explanation: One molecule of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP during aerobic respiration.
Question 244 of 536
Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:
- 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
- 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
- 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
- 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
Answer ✔ (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Explanation: 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Question 245 of 536
Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when
- Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
- Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
- Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
- Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2
Answer ✔ (a) Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Explanation: Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Question 246 of 536
Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called
- Malic acid
- Tartaric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- Citric acid
Answer ✔ (d) Citric acid
Explanation: Citric acid
Question 247 of 536
Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
- 10
- 8
- 5
- 12
Answer ✔ (a) 10
Explanation: 10 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
Question 248 of 536
Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in
- Intermembrane space of mitochondria
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Inner membrane of mitochondria
- Cytoplasm
Answer ✔ (b) Mitochondrial matrix
Question 249 of 536
Q.1 R.Q is ratio of
- CO2 produced to substarate consumed
- CO2 produced to O2 consumed
- oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
- oxygen consumed to water produced
Answer ✔ (b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Explanation: CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Question 250 of 536
Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the
- 1 – celled stage
- 2 – celled stage
- 3 – celled stage
- male gamete formation stage
Answer ✔ (b) 2 – celled stage
Question 251 of 536
Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in
- cell cytoplasm
- inner mitochondrial membrane
- mitochondrial matrix
- nucleus
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: Pyruvate is transported from cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in matrix of mitochondria
Question 252 of 536
Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol
- Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- None of these
- Both of these
Answer ✔ (d) Both of these
Explanation: In fermentation, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions in which pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
Question 253 of 536
Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by
- Otto Meyerhof
- Hans Kreb
- Gustav Embden
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Hans Kreb
Explanation: TCA cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle was given by Hans Kreb. So it is also called as Kreb cycle.
Question 254 of 536
Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant
- inferior ovary
- dehiscent fruit
- pair of glumes
- fused calyx
Answer ✔ (c) pair of glumes
Explanation: pair of glumes
Question 255 of 536
Q.7 Malacophily means
- pollination by wind
- pollination by water
- pollination by insects
- pollination by snails
Answer ✔ (d) pollination by snails
Explanation: pollination by snails
Question 256 of 536
Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for
- allogamy
- autogamy
- chasmogamy
- cleistogamy
Answer ✔ (a) allogamy
Explanation: allogamy
Question 257 of 536
Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration
- 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
- 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
- all the formed inside mitochondria
- 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle
Answer ✔ (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Explanation: 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Question 258 of 536
Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy
- C6H12O6, 2H2O
- C12H22O11, 6H2O
- C6H12O6, 6H2O
- C12H22O11, 11H2O
Answer ✔ (c) C6H12O6, 6H2O
Explanation: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
Question 259 of 536
Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of
- numerous corolla
- androphore
- gynophore
- androgynophore
Answer ✔ (b) androphore
Question 260 of 536
Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is
- Cytochrome C
- FADH
- NADH
- oxygen
Answer ✔ (d) oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain.
Question 261 of 536
Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?
- Cytochrome c
- cytochrome a3
- cytochrome a
- FADH2
Answer ✔ (a) Cytochrome c
Explanation: Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
Question 262 of 536
Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in
- protection of delicate embryo
- enzyme synthesis
- transfer of food to cotyledons
- transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips
Answer ✔ (b) enzyme synthesis
Question 263 of 536
Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is
- fleshy seed coat
- stony pericarp
- stony mesocarp
- stony endocarp
Answer ✔ (d) stony endocarp
Explanation: stony endocarp is characteristic of drupe is
Question 264 of 536
Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as
- TCA pathway
- Glycolysis
- Hms pathway
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (b) Glycolysis
Question 265 of 536
Q.17 End product of glycolysis is
- acetyl Coenzyme A
- PEP
- pyruvate
- OAA
Answer ✔ (c) pyruvate
Explanation: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
Question 266 of 536
Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in
- mitochondrial matrix
- Cristae
- perimitochondrial space
- outer membrane
Answer ✔ (b) Cristae
Question 267 of 536
Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
- 0.9
- 1.2
- 1
- 0
Answer ✔ (c) 1
Explanation: RQ i.e. respiratory quotient is 1.RQ = volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2 consumed
Question 268 of 536
Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.
- 2
- 16
- 38
- 42
Answer ✔ (c) 38
Explanation: One molecule of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP during aerobic respiration.
Question 269 of 536
Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:
- 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
- 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
- 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
- 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
Answer ✔ (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Explanation: 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Question 270 of 536
Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when
- Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
- Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
- Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
- Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2
Answer ✔ (a) Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Explanation: Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Question 271 of 536
Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called
- Malic acid
- Tartaric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- Citric acid
Answer ✔ (d) Citric acid
Explanation: Citric acid
Question 272 of 536
Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
- 10
- 8
- 5
- 12
Answer ✔ (a) 10
Explanation: 10 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
Question 273 of 536
Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in
- Intermembrane space of mitochondria
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Inner membrane of mitochondria
- Cytoplasm
Answer ✔ (b) Mitochondrial matrix
Question 274 of 536