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General Science Practice MCQs

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Question 1 of 536

Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following

  • enzyme
  • substrate
  • end products
  • intermediate end products

Question 2 of 536

Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

  • succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
  • cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
  • hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
  • carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Question 3 of 536

Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose

Question 4 of 536

Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by

  • lowering activation energy
  • increasing activation energy
  • increasing temperature and pH
  • decreasing temperature and pH

Question 5 of 536

Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

  • Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
  • Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
  • Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
  • Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate

Question 6 of 536

Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

  • Uracil
  • Cytosine
  • Guanine
  • Thymine

Question 7 of 536

Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of

  • Peptidase
  • Amylase
  • Sucrose
  • Lipase

Question 8 of 536

Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids

  • Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
  • Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
  • Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  • Both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 9 of 536

Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?

  • End product
  • External factors
  • Enzyme
  • Substrate

Question 10 of 536

Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

  • Lactose
  • Starch
  • Glycogen
  • Dextrin

Question 11 of 536

Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose

Question 12 of 536

Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is

  • Collagen
  • Trypsin
  • Myosin
  • Actin

Question 13 of 536

Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______

  • B1
  • B2
  • B3
  • B12

Question 14 of 536

Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

  • Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme

Question 15 of 536

Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of

  • allosteric inhibition
  • feedback inhibition
  • uncompetitive inhibition
  • competitive inhibition

Question 16 of 536

Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is

  • DNA polymerase
  • carbonic anhydrase
  • carbonic dehydrogenase
  • DNA ligase

Question 17 of 536

Q.17 Lecithin is a

  • polysaccharide
  • protein
  • nucleic acid
  • lipid

Question 18 of 536

Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called

  • enzymatic energy
  • activation energy
  • substrate energy
  • initiation energy

Question 19 of 536

Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in

  • Enhancing oxidative metabolism
  • Being synthesised in the body of organisms
  • Being proteinaceous
  • Regulating metabolism

Question 20 of 536

Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA

  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
  • Adenine, thymine, uracil
  • Guanine, uracil

Question 21 of 536

Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________

  • Saponins
  • Tannins
  • Secondary metabolite
  • Primary metabolites

Question 22 of 536

Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to

  • R groups of amino acids
  • Sequence of amino acids
  • Peptide bonds
  • Amino groups of amino acids

Question 23 of 536

Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that

  • One strand turns anticlockwise
  • Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
  • Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
  • One strand turns clockwise

Question 24 of 536

Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves

  • Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
  • Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
  • Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
  • Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 25 of 536

Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is

  • Sucrose
  • Fructose
  • Maltose
  • Glucose

Question 26 of 536

Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?

  • It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
  • It is a molecular disease.
  • It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
  • All of the above.

Question 27 of 536

Q.2 The first genetic material could be

  • protein
  • cabohydrates
  • DNA
  • RNA

Question 28 of 536

Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively

  • chromosome 21 and Y
  • chromosome 1 and X
  • chromosome 1 and Y
  • chromosome X and Y

Question 29 of 536

Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?

  • Rosalind Franklin
  • Maurice Wilkins
  • Erwin Chargaff
  • Meselson and Stahl

Question 30 of 536

Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?

  • Initiation
  • Elongation
  • Termination
  • All of the above

Question 31 of 536

Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

  • DNA-replication
  • transcription
  • translation
  • none of the above

Question 32 of 536

Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?

  • Chromosome 1
  • Chromosome 11
  • Chromosome 21
  • Chromosome X

Question 33 of 536

Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called

  • A – DNA
  • B – DNA
  • cDNA
  • rDNA

Question 34 of 536

Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be

  • 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
  • 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.

Question 35 of 536

Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes

  • the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
  • the promoter and the terminator region
  • the structural gene and the terminator region
  • the structural gene only.

Question 36 of 536

Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be

  • 5’ – UAC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAU – 3’
  • 5’-AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – GUA – 3’

Question 37 of 536

Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

  • 5’- end
  • 3’ – end
  • anticodon site
  • DHUloop.

Question 38 of 536

Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to

  • the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
  • the larger ribosomal sub-unit
  • the whole ribosome
  • no such specificity exists

Question 39 of 536

Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when

  • lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
  • repressor binds to operator
  • RNA polymerase binds to the operator
  • lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.

Question 40 of 536

Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

  • glycosidic bonds
  • phosphodiester bonds
  • peptide bonds
  • hydrogen bonds

Question 41 of 536

Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?

  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 30%
  • 60%

Question 42 of 536

Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?

  • ATGCATGCA
  • AUGCAUGCA
  • TACTACGT
  • UACGUACGU

Question 43 of 536

Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?

  • 2 nm
  • 3.4 nm
  • 34 nm
  • 0.34 nm

Question 44 of 536

Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by

  • central dogma reverse
  • reverse transcription
  • feminism
  • all of these

Question 45 of 536

Q.20 Histone proteins are

  • basic, negatively charged
  • basic, positively charged
  • acidic, positively charged
  • acidic, negatively charged

Question 46 of 536

Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called

  • nucleotides
  • nucleosides
  • histone octamer
  • nucleosomes

Question 47 of 536

Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,

  • It is densely packed
  • It stains dark
  • It is transcriptionally active.
  • It is late replicating

Question 48 of 536

Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of

  • transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
  • structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
  • Mendel’s laws of inheritance
  • biotechnology by Kary Muliis.

Question 49 of 536

Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are

  • phenylalanine and arginine
  • tryptophan and methionine
  • valine and proline
  • methionine and aroinine

Question 50 of 536

Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

  • Genetic code is ambiguous.
  • Genetic code is deqenerate
  • Genetic code is universal
  • Genetic code is non-overlanning.

Question 51 of 536

Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?

  • It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
  • It is a molecular disease.
  • It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
  • All of the above.

Question 52 of 536

Q.2 The first genetic material could be

  • protein
  • cabohydrates
  • DNA
  • RNA

Question 53 of 536

Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively

  • chromosome 21 and Y
  • chromosome 1 and X
  • chromosome 1 and Y
  • chromosome X and Y

Question 54 of 536

Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?

  • Rosalind Franklin
  • Maurice Wilkins
  • Erwin Chargaff
  • Meselson and Stahl

Question 55 of 536

Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?

  • Initiation
  • Elongation
  • Termination
  • All of the above

Question 56 of 536

Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

  • DNA-replication
  • transcription
  • translation
  • none of the above

Question 57 of 536

Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?

  • Chromosome 1
  • Chromosome 11
  • Chromosome 21
  • Chromosome X

Question 58 of 536

Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called

  • A – DNA
  • B – DNA
  • cDNA
  • rDNA

Question 59 of 536

Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be

  • 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
  • 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.

Question 60 of 536

Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes

  • the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
  • the promoter and the terminator region
  • the structural gene and the terminator region
  • the structural gene only.

Question 61 of 536

Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be

  • 5’ – UAC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAU – 3’
  • 5’-AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – GUA – 3’

Question 62 of 536

Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

  • 5’- end
  • 3’ – end
  • anticodon site
  • DHUloop.

Question 63 of 536

Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to

  • the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
  • the larger ribosomal sub-unit
  • the whole ribosome
  • no such specificity exists

Question 64 of 536

Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when

  • lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
  • repressor binds to operator
  • RNA polymerase binds to the operator
  • lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.

Question 65 of 536

Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

  • glycosidic bonds
  • phosphodiester bonds
  • peptide bonds
  • hydrogen bonds

Question 66 of 536

Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?

  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 30%
  • 60%

Question 67 of 536

Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?

  • ATGCATGCA
  • AUGCAUGCA
  • TACTACGT
  • UACGUACGU

Question 68 of 536

Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?

  • 2 nm
  • 3.4 nm
  • 34 nm
  • 0.34 nm

Question 69 of 536

Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by

  • central dogma reverse
  • reverse transcription
  • feminism
  • all of these

Question 70 of 536

Q.20 Histone proteins are

  • basic, negatively charged
  • basic, positively charged
  • acidic, positively charged
  • acidic, negatively charged

Question 71 of 536

Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called

  • nucleotides
  • nucleosides
  • histone octamer
  • nucleosomes

Question 72 of 536

Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,

  • It is densely packed
  • It stains dark
  • It is transcriptionally active.
  • It is late replicating

Question 73 of 536

Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of

  • transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
  • structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
  • Mendel’s laws of inheritance
  • biotechnology by Kary Muliis.

Question 74 of 536

Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are

  • phenylalanine and arginine
  • tryptophan and methionine
  • valine and proline
  • methionine and aroinine

Question 75 of 536

Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

  • Genetic code is ambiguous.
  • Genetic code is deqenerate
  • Genetic code is universal
  • Genetic code is non-overlanning.

Question 76 of 536

Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic

  • Aquatic amphibian
  • Aquatic insect
  • Bony fishes
  • Mammal

Question 77 of 536

Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic

  • Mammal
  • Aquatic insect
  • Terrestrial amphibian
  • Marine fishes

Question 78 of 536

Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic

  • Mammal
  • Reptiles
  • Birds
  • Snails

Question 79 of 536

Q.4 Which among is the most toxic

  • Ammonia
  • Uric acid
  • Urea
  • None of the above

Question 80 of 536

Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body

  • Ammonia
  • Urea
  • Uric acid
  • None of the above

Question 81 of 536

Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of

  • Planaria
  • Annelids
  • Cockroach
  • Rotifers

Question 82 of 536

Q.7 Kidney is present between

  • T12 L3
  • T11 L2
  • T 10 L1
  • None of the above

Question 83 of 536

Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism

  • Earthworm
  • Prawn
  • Cockroach
  • Planaria

Question 84 of 536

Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney

  • 80-90g
  • 120-150g
  • 110-120g
  • 120-170g

Question 85 of 536

Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons

  • 1 million
  • 2 million
  • 2 thousand
  • 2 hundred

Question 86 of 536

Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney

  • Nephrons
  • Cell
  • Neurons
  • None of the above

Question 87 of 536

Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as

  • Malphigian body
  • Renal corpuscle
  • Malphigian capsule
  • Both b and c

Question 88 of 536

Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 89 of 536

Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case

  • Renal calculi
  • Renal failure
  • Uremia
  • None of the above

Question 90 of 536

Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water

  • Descending loop
  • Ascending loop
  • Both the loops
  • None of the above

Question 91 of 536

Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes

  • Pineal gland
  • Pancreas
  • Gall bladder
  • Sweat glands

Question 92 of 536

Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as

  • Ketonuria
  • Glycosides
  • Glycosuria
  • None of the above

Question 93 of 536

Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as

  • Uremia
  • Renal failure
  • Renal calculi
  • Glomerulonephritis

Question 94 of 536

Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 95 of 536

Q.20 ANF can cause

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 96 of 536

Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is

  • 180 L
  • 150L
  • 130L
  • 120L

Question 97 of 536

Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following

  • DCT
  • Both a and c
  • PCT
  • None of the above

Question 98 of 536

Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute

  • 500-800ml
  • 1100- 1200ml
  • 1500-1700ml
  • 1600-1800ml

Question 99 of 536

Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 100 of 536

Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic

  • Aquatic amphibian
  • Aquatic insect
  • Bony fishes
  • Mammal

Question 101 of 536

Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic

  • Mammal
  • Aquatic insect
  • Terrestrial amphibian
  • Marine fishes

Question 102 of 536

Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic

  • Mammal
  • Reptiles
  • Birds
  • Snails

Question 103 of 536

Q.4 Which among is the most toxic

  • Ammonia
  • Uric acid
  • Urea
  • None of the above

Question 104 of 536

Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body

  • Ammonia
  • Urea
  • Uric acid
  • None of the above

Question 105 of 536

Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of

  • Planaria
  • Annelids
  • Cockroach
  • Rotifers

Question 106 of 536

Q.7 Kidney is present between

  • T12 L3
  • T11 L2
  • T 10 L1
  • None of the above

Question 107 of 536

Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism

  • Earthworm
  • Prawn
  • Cockroach
  • Planaria

Question 108 of 536

Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney

  • 80-90g
  • 120-150g
  • 110-120g
  • 120-170g

Question 109 of 536

Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons

  • 1 million
  • 2 million
  • 2 thousand
  • 2 hundred

Question 110 of 536

Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney

  • Nephrons
  • Cell
  • Neurons
  • None of the above

Question 111 of 536

Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as

  • Malphigian body
  • Renal corpuscle
  • Malphigian capsule
  • Both b and c

Question 112 of 536

Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 113 of 536

Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case

  • Renal calculi
  • Renal failure
  • Uremia
  • None of the above

Question 114 of 536

Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water

  • Descending loop
  • Ascending loop
  • Both the loops
  • None of the above

Question 115 of 536

Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes

  • Pineal gland
  • Pancreas
  • Gall bladder
  • Sweat glands

Question 116 of 536

Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as

  • Ketonuria
  • Glycosides
  • Glycosuria
  • None of the above

Question 117 of 536

Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as

  • Uremia
  • Renal failure
  • Renal calculi
  • Glomerulonephritis

Question 118 of 536

Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 119 of 536

Q.20 ANF can cause

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 120 of 536

Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is

  • 180 L
  • 150L
  • 130L
  • 120L

Question 121 of 536

Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following

  • DCT
  • Both a and c
  • PCT
  • None of the above

Question 122 of 536

Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute

  • 500-800ml
  • 1100- 1200ml
  • 1500-1700ml
  • 1600-1800ml

Question 123 of 536

Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 124 of 536

Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during

  • late telophase
  • late prophase
  • early anaphase
  • late metaphase

Question 125 of 536

Q.2 Cell plate grows from

  • walls to the centre
  • centre to the walls
  • in patches
  • simultaneously

Question 126 of 536

Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles

  • C, A, B, D
  • C, B, A, D
  • C, D, B, A
  • A, C, D, B

Question 127 of 536

Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into

  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
  • Metaphase

Question 128 of 536

Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for

  • division of cytoplasm
  • division of nucleoplasm
  • division of nucleus
  • separation of daughter chromosomes

Question 129 of 536

Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 130 of 536

Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during

  • Metaphase
  • Interphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 131 of 536

Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences

  • II, I, IV, III
  • III, II, I, IV
  • IV, III, II, I
  • I, IV, III, II

Question 132 of 536

Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is

  • splitting of the centromeres
  • splitting of the chromatids
  • replication of the genetic material
  • condensation of the chromatin

Question 133 of 536

Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?

  • Autotetraploid
  • Haploid
  • Triploid
  • Allotetraploid

Question 134 of 536

Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.

  • Pancreas
  • Liver
  • Ovary
  • Kidney

Question 135 of 536

Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene

  • C, B, A, D, E
  • C, A, B, E, D
  • C, B, A, E, D
  • D, B, C, E, A

Question 136 of 536

Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?

  • 6
  • 16
  • 26
  • 36

Question 137 of 536

Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in

  • Mitotic prophase
  • Mitotic metaphase
  • Meiotic metaphase
  • Meiotic prophase

Question 138 of 536

Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?

  • Plasma membrane
  • Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
  • Plastids
  • none of these

Question 139 of 536

Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of

  • Ribosome
  • ER
  • Chromosome
  • Mitochondrion

Question 140 of 536

Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • S

Question 141 of 536

Q.18

  • Early prophase
  • Early metaphase
  • Early telophase
  • Early anaphase

Question 142 of 536

Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 143 of 536

Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.

  • Zygotene
  • Pachytene
  • Diakinesis
  • Diplotene

Question 144 of 536

Q.21 Synapsis occurs between

  • A male and female gametes
  • Ribosome and m-RNA
  • Spindle fibres and centromeres
  • Two homologous chromosomes

Question 145 of 536

Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into

  • Phargmoplast
  • Polyploidy
  • Uninucleate condition
  • Multinucleate condition

Question 146 of 536

Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during

  • Cytokinesis
  • Interphase
  • Karyokinesis
  • None of these

Question 147 of 536

Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between

  • Non-sister chromosomes
  • Sister chromatids
  • Non-homologous chromosome
  • Homologous chromosomes

Question 148 of 536

Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in

  • Metaphase and M phase
  • Anaphase and S phase
  • Interphase and S phase
  • None of these

Question 149 of 536

Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during

  • late telophase
  • late prophase
  • early anaphase
  • late metaphase

Question 150 of 536

Q.2 Cell plate grows from

  • walls to the centre
  • centre to the walls
  • in patches
  • simultaneously

Question 151 of 536

Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles

  • C, A, B, D
  • C, B, A, D
  • C, D, B, A
  • A, C, D, B

Question 152 of 536

Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into

  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
  • Metaphase

Question 153 of 536

Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for

  • division of cytoplasm
  • division of nucleoplasm
  • division of nucleus
  • separation of daughter chromosomes

Question 154 of 536

Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 155 of 536

Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during

  • Metaphase
  • Interphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 156 of 536

Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences

  • II, I, IV, III
  • III, II, I, IV
  • IV, III, II, I
  • I, IV, III, II

Question 157 of 536

Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is

  • splitting of the centromeres
  • splitting of the chromatids
  • replication of the genetic material
  • condensation of the chromatin

Question 158 of 536

Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?

  • Autotetraploid
  • Haploid
  • Triploid
  • Allotetraploid

Question 159 of 536

Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.

  • Pancreas
  • Liver
  • Ovary
  • Kidney

Question 160 of 536

Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene

  • C, B, A, D, E
  • C, A, B, E, D
  • C, B, A, E, D
  • D, B, C, E, A

Question 161 of 536

Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?

  • 6
  • 16
  • 26
  • 36

Question 162 of 536

Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in

  • Mitotic prophase
  • Mitotic metaphase
  • Meiotic metaphase
  • Meiotic prophase

Question 163 of 536

Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?

  • Plasma membrane
  • Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
  • Plastids
  • none of these

Question 164 of 536

Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of

  • Ribosome
  • ER
  • Chromosome
  • Mitochondrion

Question 165 of 536

Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • S

Question 166 of 536

Q.18

  • Early prophase
  • Early metaphase
  • Early telophase
  • Early anaphase

Question 167 of 536

Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 168 of 536

Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.

  • Zygotene
  • Pachytene
  • Diakinesis
  • Diplotene

Question 169 of 536

Q.21 Synapsis occurs between

  • A male and female gametes
  • Ribosome and m-RNA
  • Spindle fibres and centromeres
  • Two homologous chromosomes

Question 170 of 536

Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into

  • Phargmoplast
  • Polyploidy
  • Uninucleate condition
  • Multinucleate condition

Question 171 of 536

Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during

  • Cytokinesis
  • Interphase
  • Karyokinesis
  • None of these

Question 172 of 536

Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between

  • Non-sister chromosomes
  • Sister chromatids
  • Non-homologous chromosome
  • Homologous chromosomes

Question 173 of 536

Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in

  • Metaphase and M phase
  • Anaphase and S phase
  • Interphase and S phase
  • None of these

Question 174 of 536

Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 175 of 536

Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of

  • Permanent nature
  • Temporary nature
  • Some are permanent some temporary
  • None of these

Question 176 of 536

Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during

  • Phase of cell division
  • Phase of cell elongation
  • Phase of cell maturation
  • Phase of cell differentiation

Question 177 of 536

Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 178 of 536

Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents

  • ability of the plant to produce new cells
  • efficiency index
  • relative growth rate
  • all of the above

Question 179 of 536

Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:

  • Autonomic movement of variation
  • Autonomic movement of locomotion
  • Autonomic movement of growth
  • Paratonic movement of growth

Question 180 of 536

Q.7 Which one is incorrect?

  • Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
  • Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast

Question 181 of 536

Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is

  • Organogenesis
  • Cleavage
  • Gastrulation
  • Growth

Question 182 of 536

Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?

  • Ethylene
  • Gibberellin
  • IAA
  • Abscisic acid

Question 183 of 536

Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be

  • given a dip in ascorbic acid
  • maintained at room temperature
  • refrigerated
  • stored at the top of refrigerator

Question 184 of 536

Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of

  • length of leaf
  • increase in cell number
  • surface area increase
  • none of these

Question 185 of 536

Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to

  • presence of meristems
  • presence of vascular cambium
  • presence of xylem and phloem
  • presence of tracheids

Question 186 of 536

Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 187 of 536

Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is

  • Aging
  • Regeneration
  • Abnormal development
  • Primary inductio

Question 188 of 536

Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?

  • Auxins
  • Gibberellins
  • Ethylene
  • Cytokinins

Question 189 of 536

Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?

  • Auxin
  • Gibberelic acid
  • Cytokinin
  • Abscisic acid

Question 190 of 536

Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 191 of 536

Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by

  • auxins
  • cytokinins
  • gibberellins
  • ethylene

Question 192 of 536

Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called

  • Gastrocoele
  • Blastocoele
  • Coelom
  • Neurocoele

Question 193 of 536

Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called

  • Gibberlin
  • Auxin
  • Cytokinin
  • Absicic acid

Question 194 of 536

Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid

  • Isoleucine
  • Methionine
  • Niacin
  • Tryptophan

Question 195 of 536

Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy

  • IAA
  • ABA
  • Cytokinin
  • Ethylene

Question 196 of 536

Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation

  • Parthenocarpy
  • pseudocarpy
  • Apomixis
  • Parthenogenesis

Question 197 of 536

Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is

  • Embryos
  • Roots
  • Young leaves
  • All of these

Question 198 of 536

Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from

  • Brian et al
  • Went
  • Yabuta
  • Kurosawa

Question 199 of 536

Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 200 of 536

Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of

  • Permanent nature
  • Temporary nature
  • Some are permanent some temporary
  • None of these

Question 201 of 536

Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during

  • Phase of cell division
  • Phase of cell elongation
  • Phase of cell maturation
  • Phase of cell differentiation

Question 202 of 536

Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 203 of 536

Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents

  • ability of the plant to produce new cells
  • efficiency index
  • relative growth rate
  • all of the above

Question 204 of 536

Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:

  • Autonomic movement of variation
  • Autonomic movement of locomotion
  • Autonomic movement of growth
  • Paratonic movement of growth

Question 205 of 536

Q.7 Which one is incorrect?

  • Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
  • Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast

Question 206 of 536

Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is

  • Organogenesis
  • Cleavage
  • Gastrulation
  • Growth

Question 207 of 536

Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?

  • Ethylene
  • Gibberellin
  • IAA
  • Abscisic acid

Question 208 of 536

Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be

  • given a dip in ascorbic acid
  • maintained at room temperature
  • refrigerated
  • stored at the top of refrigerator

Question 209 of 536

Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of

  • length of leaf
  • increase in cell number
  • surface area increase
  • none of these

Question 210 of 536

Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to

  • presence of meristems
  • presence of vascular cambium
  • presence of xylem and phloem
  • presence of tracheids

Question 211 of 536

Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 212 of 536

Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is

  • Aging
  • Regeneration
  • Abnormal development
  • Primary inductio

Question 213 of 536

Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?

  • Auxins
  • Gibberellins
  • Ethylene
  • Cytokinins

Question 214 of 536

Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?

  • Auxin
  • Gibberelic acid
  • Cytokinin
  • Abscisic acid

Question 215 of 536

Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 216 of 536

Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by

  • auxins
  • cytokinins
  • gibberellins
  • ethylene

Question 217 of 536

Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called

  • Gastrocoele
  • Blastocoele
  • Coelom
  • Neurocoele

Question 218 of 536

Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called

  • Gibberlin
  • Auxin
  • Cytokinin
  • Absicic acid

Question 219 of 536

Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid

  • Isoleucine
  • Methionine
  • Niacin
  • Tryptophan

Question 220 of 536

Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy

  • IAA
  • ABA
  • Cytokinin
  • Ethylene

Question 221 of 536

Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation

  • Parthenocarpy
  • pseudocarpy
  • Apomixis
  • Parthenogenesis

Question 222 of 536

Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is

  • Embryos
  • Roots
  • Young leaves
  • All of these

Question 223 of 536

Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from

  • Brian et al
  • Went
  • Yabuta
  • Kurosawa

Question 224 of 536

Q.1 R.Q is ratio of

  • CO2 produced to substarate consumed
  • CO2 produced to O2 consumed
  • oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
  • oxygen consumed to water produced

Question 225 of 536

Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the

  • 1 – celled stage
  • 2 – celled stage
  • 3 – celled stage
  • male gamete formation stage

Question 226 of 536

Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in

  • cell cytoplasm
  • inner mitochondrial membrane
  • mitochondrial matrix
  • nucleus

Question 227 of 536

Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol

  • Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
  • Alcohol dehydrogenase
  • None of these
  • Both of these

Question 228 of 536

Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by

  • Otto Meyerhof
  • Hans Kreb
  • Gustav Embden
  • All of these

Question 229 of 536

Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant

  • inferior ovary
  • dehiscent fruit
  • pair of glumes
  • fused calyx

Question 230 of 536

Q.7 Malacophily means

  • pollination by wind
  • pollination by water
  • pollination by insects
  • pollination by snails

Question 231 of 536

Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for

  • allogamy
  • autogamy
  • chasmogamy
  • cleistogamy

Question 232 of 536

Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration

  • 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
  • 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
  • all the formed inside mitochondria
  • 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle

Question 233 of 536

Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy

  • C6H12O6, 2H2O
  • C12H22O11, 6H2O
  • C6H12O6, 6H2O
  • C12H22O11, 11H2O

Question 234 of 536

Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of

  • numerous corolla
  • androphore
  • gynophore
  • androgynophore

Question 235 of 536

Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

  • Cytochrome C
  • FADH
  • NADH
  • oxygen

Question 236 of 536

Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?

  • Cytochrome c
  • cytochrome a3
  • cytochrome a
  • FADH2

Question 237 of 536

Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in

  • protection of delicate embryo
  • enzyme synthesis
  • transfer of food to cotyledons
  • transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips

Question 238 of 536

Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is

  • fleshy seed coat
  • stony pericarp
  • stony mesocarp
  • stony endocarp

Question 239 of 536

Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as

  • TCA pathway
  • Glycolysis
  • Hms pathway
  • Glycolysis

Question 240 of 536

Q.17 End product of glycolysis is

  • acetyl Coenzyme A
  • PEP
  • pyruvate
  • OAA

Question 241 of 536

Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in

  • mitochondrial matrix
  • Cristae
  • perimitochondrial space
  • outer membrane

Question 242 of 536

Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is

  • 0.9
  • 1.2
  • 1
  • 0

Question 243 of 536

Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.

  • 2
  • 16
  • 38
  • 42

Question 244 of 536

Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:

  • 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
  • 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
  • 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
  • 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules

Question 245 of 536

Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when

  • Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
  • Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
  • Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
  • Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2

Question 246 of 536

Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called

  • Malic acid
  • Tartaric acid
  • Pyruvic acid
  • Citric acid

Question 247 of 536

Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate

  • 10
  • 8
  • 5
  • 12

Question 248 of 536

Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in

  • Intermembrane space of mitochondria
  • Mitochondrial matrix
  • Inner membrane of mitochondria
  • Cytoplasm

Question 249 of 536

Q.1 R.Q is ratio of

  • CO2 produced to substarate consumed
  • CO2 produced to O2 consumed
  • oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
  • oxygen consumed to water produced

Question 250 of 536

Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the

  • 1 – celled stage
  • 2 – celled stage
  • 3 – celled stage
  • male gamete formation stage

Question 251 of 536

Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in

  • cell cytoplasm
  • inner mitochondrial membrane
  • mitochondrial matrix
  • nucleus

Question 252 of 536

Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol

  • Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
  • Alcohol dehydrogenase
  • None of these
  • Both of these

Question 253 of 536

Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by

  • Otto Meyerhof
  • Hans Kreb
  • Gustav Embden
  • All of these

Question 254 of 536

Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant

  • inferior ovary
  • dehiscent fruit
  • pair of glumes
  • fused calyx

Question 255 of 536

Q.7 Malacophily means

  • pollination by wind
  • pollination by water
  • pollination by insects
  • pollination by snails

Question 256 of 536

Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for

  • allogamy
  • autogamy
  • chasmogamy
  • cleistogamy

Question 257 of 536

Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration

  • 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
  • 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
  • all the formed inside mitochondria
  • 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle

Question 258 of 536

Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy

  • C6H12O6, 2H2O
  • C12H22O11, 6H2O
  • C6H12O6, 6H2O
  • C12H22O11, 11H2O

Question 259 of 536

Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of

  • numerous corolla
  • androphore
  • gynophore
  • androgynophore

Question 260 of 536

Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

  • Cytochrome C
  • FADH
  • NADH
  • oxygen

Question 261 of 536

Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?

  • Cytochrome c
  • cytochrome a3
  • cytochrome a
  • FADH2

Question 262 of 536

Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in

  • protection of delicate embryo
  • enzyme synthesis
  • transfer of food to cotyledons
  • transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips

Question 263 of 536

Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is

  • fleshy seed coat
  • stony pericarp
  • stony mesocarp
  • stony endocarp

Question 264 of 536

Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as

  • TCA pathway
  • Glycolysis
  • Hms pathway
  • Glycolysis

Question 265 of 536

Q.17 End product of glycolysis is

  • acetyl Coenzyme A
  • PEP
  • pyruvate
  • OAA

Question 266 of 536

Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in

  • mitochondrial matrix
  • Cristae
  • perimitochondrial space
  • outer membrane

Question 267 of 536

Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is

  • 0.9
  • 1.2
  • 1
  • 0

Question 268 of 536

Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.

  • 2
  • 16
  • 38
  • 42

Question 269 of 536

Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:

  • 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
  • 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
  • 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
  • 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules

Question 270 of 536

Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when

  • Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
  • Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
  • Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
  • Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2

Question 271 of 536

Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called

  • Malic acid
  • Tartaric acid
  • Pyruvic acid
  • Citric acid

Question 272 of 536

Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate

  • 10
  • 8
  • 5
  • 12

Question 273 of 536

Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in

  • Intermembrane space of mitochondria
  • Mitochondrial matrix
  • Inner membrane of mitochondria
  • Cytoplasm

Question 274 of 536