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The mechanism by which regulatory T cells inhibit self-reactive immune responses in T cells that have already exited the thymus
Microbiology Pharmacist Competitive Exams
Q. The mechanism by which regulatory T cells inhibit self-reactive immune responses in T cells that have already exited the thymus
Ans → peripheral tolerance
Explanation →
This question is taken from the test/quiz post: One liners Microbiology| B.Pharmacy| Pharmacy file-15 - attemp/practice
More oneliners in - One liners Microbiology| B.Pharmacy| Pharmacy file-15
Q. An infection of the external ear canal, most commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa; often called swimmer’s ear
Ans → otitis externa
Explanation →
Q. A compound released from a natural killer cell that creates pores in the target cell through which other toxins (particularly granzymes) can gain access to the cytoplasm
Ans → perforin
Explanation →
Q. Test in which antigen and antisera are added to neighboring wells in an agar gel, allowing visualization of precipitin arcs
Ans → Ouchterlony assay
Explanation →
Q. Fourth stage of disease, during which the number of pathogens present in the host decreases, along with signs and symptoms of disease
Ans → period of decline
Explanation →
Q. The chemical reaction that removes electrons (often as part of H atoms) from donor molecules, leaving them oxidized
Ans → oxidation reaction
Explanation →
Q. The third stage of acute disease, during which the number of pathogens present in the host is greatest and the signs and symptoms of disease are most severe
Ans → period of illness
Explanation →
Q. The mechanism for making ATP that uses the potential energy stored within an electrochemical gradient to add Pi to ADP
Ans → oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation →
Q. A highly infectious zoonotic disease caused by Coxiella burnetii that farmers can contract from their animals by inhalation
Ans → Q fever
Explanation →
Q. The inflammation of the gums that is more severe than gingivitis, spreading deeper into the tissues
Ans → periodontitis
Explanation →
Q. The isolation of an individual for the purpose of preventing the spread of disease
Ans → quarantine
Explanation →
Q. The network of neurons that connects the CNS with organs, sensory organs, and muscles throughout the body
Ans → peripheral nervous system
Explanation →
Q. Structure of protein complexes formed by the combination of several separate polypeptides or subunits
Ans → quaternary structure
Explanation →
Q. The mechanism by which regulatory T cells inhibit self-reactive immune responses in T cells that have already exited the thymus
Ans → peripheral tolerance
Explanation →
Q. Class of antiprotozoan drugs long used for the treatment of malaria; interferes with heme detoxification
Ans → quinolines
Explanation →
More one-liners in - Microbiology
Q. Name the term that refers to a nonpolar molecule or portion of a molecule not capable of strong attraction to water molecules
Ans → hydrophobic
Explanation →
Q. The number of base pairs present in each turn (pitch) of B-form of DNA helix
Ans → 10
Explanation →
Q. A staining technique in which cells are fixed and holes dissolved in the membrane to allow passage of labeled antibodies to bind specific intracellular targets
Ans → immunocytochemistry (ICC)
Explanation →
Q. A type of inclusion containing volutin, a polymerized inorganic phosphate that appears red when stained with methylene blue
Ans → metachromatic granule
Explanation →
Q. The major dietary energy sources, besides their involvement in cell structure and various other functions is
Ans → Carbohydrates
Explanation →
Q. Name the enzyme that unwinds DNA by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous base pairs, using ATP
Ans → helicase
Explanation →
Q. The amino acid that is completely destroyed by acid hydrolysis of protein
Ans → Tryptophan
Explanation →
Q. The process of separation of a racemate into its two enantiomers by means of some chiral agency.
Ans → resolution
Explanation →
Q. Proinflammatory molecule released by basophils and mast cells in response to stimulation by other cytokines and chemical mediators
Ans → histamine
Explanation →
Q. An instrument used to measure the amount of rotation of plane polarized light by a compound, generally prepared in a solution
Ans → polarimeter
Explanation →
Q. Type of mutation involving the addition of one or more bases into a DNA sequence
Ans → insertion
Explanation →
Q. The first stage of acute disease, during which the pathogen begins multiplying in the host and signs and symptoms are not observable
Ans → incubation period
Explanation →
Q. Name the prokaryotic cell cytoplasmic structures for storing specific nutrients and other resources needed by cells
Ans → inclusions
Explanation →
Q. An equimolar mixture of the two enantiomeric isomers of a compound.
Ans → racemic mixture
Explanation →
Q. An Obstacle such as coating or embedding, which acts as a factor controlling the rate of drug release.
Ans → diffusion barrier
Explanation →
Q. An organism that requires oxygen at levels lower than atmospheric concentration
Ans → microaerophile
Explanation →
Q. A three-dimensional structure of folded fully functional proteins
Ans → native structure
Explanation →
Q. A Solid spherical particles of micron-size range, used as matrix dosage forms.
Ans → microsphere
Explanation →
Q. The bonds responsible for a majority of high-energy compounds are
Ans → Phosphoanhydride bonds
Explanation →
Q. A hydrocarbon that can undergo addition reactions, meaning it contains a double or a triple bond.
Ans → Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
Explanation →
Q. A a term applied to an atom or molecule having one or more free valencies.
Ans → radical
Explanation →
Q. Two electrons that are not shared between atoms within a molecule.
Ans → lone pair/unshared pair
Explanation →
Q. Tablet, which does not contain a disintegrant and which is sucked to dissolve in the mouth to produce either a local (e.g., antiseptic) or systemic (e.g., vitamins) effect.
Ans → lozenge
Explanation →
Q. The number of mg of KOH required to hydrolyse 1 g fat or oil is known as
Ans → Saponification number
Explanation →
Q. Name the class of T cells that is the central orchestrator of the cellular and humoral defenses of adaptive immunity and the cellular defenses of innate immunity
Ans → helper T cells
Explanation →
Q. Type of comparative bioavailability study designed in such a way as to take into account differences in bioavailability arising from differences between patients suffering from disease
Ans → crossover study
Explanation →
Q. Growth on the skin associated with infection by any of the human papilloma viruses (HPV); commonly known as a wart
Ans → papilloma
Explanation →
Q. A compound possessing hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups in its structure is known as
Ans → Ampipathic
Explanation →
Q. Surfactant (or a mixture containing one or more surfactants) having cleaning properties in dilute solutions
Ans → detergent
Explanation →
Q. Enzymes lose the catalytic activity at temperature above 70C due to
Ans → Denaturation
Explanation →
Q. A chemical processes in which the proportion of more electronegative substituents is decreased, or the charge is made more negative, or the oxidation number is lowered.
Ans → reduction
Explanation →
Q. A full agonist is an agonist that produces the largest maximal response of any known agonist that acts on the same receptor.
Ans → Full Agonist
Explanation →
Q. Memberane-body antibody monomer functioning as receptor on the surface of B cells
Ans → IgD
Explanation →
Q. Name adaptive immunity mediated by antibodies produced by B cells
Ans → humoral immunity
Explanation →