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Kries test is related to

Pharmacy Pharmacology D. Pharma B. Pharma

Q. 3 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 90)

Kries test is related to

  • Skin sensitivity studies
  • Identification test of resin
  • Rancidity index
  • Identification test of aloin

Ans → (c)Rancidity index

Explanation → Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.

This question is taken from this post → Online Practice Test for Pharmacy exams, previous Year questions - attemp/practice


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Q. 1 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 88)

Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:

  • Sterility test
  • Active ingredient
  • Clarity test
  • Pyrogen test

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Q. 2 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 89)

Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form

  • Diclofenace
  • Nicotine
  • Carbamazepine
  • Fentanyl

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Q. 3 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 90)

Kries test is related to

  • Skin sensitivity studies
  • Identification test of resin
  • Rancidity index
  • Identification test of aloin

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Q. 4 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 91)

Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to

  • Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
  • Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
  • Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
  • Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory

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Q. 6 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 93)

Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is

  • Nordiazepam
  • Oxazepam
  • Demoxipam
  • All of these

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Q. 7 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 94)

Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the

  • Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
  • Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
  • Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
  • Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis

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Q. 8 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 95)

Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of

  • Obsessive-compulsive disorders
  • Schizophrenia
  • Anxiety
  • Mania

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Q. 9 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 96)

Praracetamol is a derivative of:

  • p-amino phenol
  • Aryl acetic acid
  • Aryl propionic acid
  • Anthranilic acid

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Q. 10 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 97)

Efficiency of ball mill depends on

  • Rotational speed
  • Density of balls
  • Volume occupied by the balls
  • All of these

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Q. 11 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 98)

Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation

  • Flow properties
  • Chemical stability
  • Therapeutic effectiveness
  • All of these

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Q. 12 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 99)

The phosphate antiviral agent is

  • Ribavirin
  • Didanosine
  • Ganciclovir
  • Foscarnet

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Q. 14 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 101)

Which statement is not correct about levodopa?

  • In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
  • It is a prodrug
  • Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
  • Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential

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Q. 15 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 102)

Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is

  • Ethyle cellulose
  • cellulose acetate
  • cellulose nitrate
  • cellulose acetobutyrate

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Q. 16 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 103)

Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?

  • Phosphoramide mustard
  • Acrolein
  • Aldophosphamide
  • 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide

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Q. 17 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 104)

The pH of tears is about

  • 6.0
  • 8.0
  • 7.4
  • 9.0

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Q. 18 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 105)

Food poisoning is caused by :

  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium welchi
  • Clostridium botulinium
  • Clostridium septicum

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Q. 19 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 106)

Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?

  • Horse
  • Pigeon
  • Rabbit
  • Chicken

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Q. 20 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 107)

Geiger muller counter is used in :

  • UV specroscopy
  • Ionisation methods
  • IR spectroscopy
  • NMR spectroscopy

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Q. 21 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 108)

Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by

  • Trihexyphenidyl
  • Levodopa
  • Selegiline
  • Amantadine

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Q. 22 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 109)

As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to

  • Schedule L
  • Shedule X
  • Shedule R
  • Shedule O

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Q. 23 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 110)

Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of

  • Pinus leaf
  • Peppermint leaf
  • Clove buds
  • Rose marry

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Q. 24 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 111)

The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a

  • Primary amine
  • Secondary amines
  • Tertiary amines
  • Quarternary amines

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Q. 25 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 112)

Hardness of water is expressed in

  • mL
  • Dynes
  • ppm
  • Mhos

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Q. 26 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 113)

Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by

  • Gas
  • Moist heat
  • Radiation
  • Dry heat

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Q. 27 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 114)

Chlorophyll test is positive in

  • Male fern
  • Clove
  • Rhubarb
  • Pale catechu

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Q. 28 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 115)

Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may

  • Increases the toxicity
  • Decreases bitterness
  • Decreses potency
  • Increases water solubility

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Q. 30 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 117)

Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet

  • Deaggregation
  • Diffusion
  • Disintegration
  • Dissolutuin

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Q. 31 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 118)

Fenbufen is used in

  • TB
  • Plague
  • Dengu
  • Inflammation

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Q. 32 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 119)

The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of

  • Honey
  • Canthrites
  • Shellac
  • Colchicine

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Q. 33 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 120)

Tragacanth in water is associated with

  • Plastic flow
  • Pseudoplatic flow
  • Dialatant flow
  • None of these

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Q. 34 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 121)

Antioxidants are added in lipstics to

  • Impart pleasant ordour
  • Staining of lips
  • Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
  • Prevent rancidity

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Q. 35 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 122)

Borntrager test is used to identification of

  • Senna
  • Squill
  • Cinchona
  • Digitalis

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Q. 36 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 123)

Plasma protiens act as

  • Reserve protiens
  • Immunoglobulins
  • Buffers
  • All of these

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Q. 38 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 125)

An example of protien denaturation is

  • Dissolving sugar in water
  • Metabolism of meat
  • Heating milk
  • Heating egg

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Q. 39 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 126)

An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as

  • Isomerases
  • Transferases
  • Hydrolysases
  • Oxydoreductases

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Q. 40 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 127)

The constituent of essential oil is

  • Polyterpenoid
  • Tetraterpenoid
  • mono and sesquiterpenoid
  • Triterpenoid

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Q. 41 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 128)

Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?

  • Hydralazine and atenolol
  • Metochlopramide and levodopa
  • Quinidine and digoxine
  • Furosemide and lithium carbonate

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Q. 42 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 129)

Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of

  • Purine
  • Thiamine
  • Riboflavin
  • Pyrimidine

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Q. 43 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 130)

Active immunity is induced by

  • Placental transfer of antibodies
  • Infection
  • Injection of gamma-globulins
  • Injection of antibodies

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Q. 44 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 131)

HIV infection can be clinical controlled with

  • Ribavirin
  • Ganciclovir
  • Stavudine
  • Acyclovir

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Q. 45 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 132)

An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is

  • Lidocain
  • Disipyramide
  • Phenytoin
  • Amiodarone

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Q. 46 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 133)

Drug of choice for thyroid storm is

  • Carbimazole
  • Radioactive iodine
  • Propyl thiouracil
  • Centimizone

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Q. 47 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 134)

The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are

  • Lysosomes
  • Nucleolus
  • Ribosomes
  • Golgi's bodies

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Q. 48 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 135)

The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is

  • Propranolol
  • Prazocine
  • Dexamphetamine
  • Diazepam

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Q. 49 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 136)

Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year

  • 1985
  • 1996
  • 2007
  • 2015

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Q. 9 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1102)

The piperidine ring skeleton is present in 

  • Pantazocine
  • Levorphan
  • Pethidine
  • Nalorphine

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Q. 25 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1208)

Open tender means -

  • Major tender
  • Moderate tender
  • Minor tender
  • None of these

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1614)

In the EMP pathway, the steps involved are ……

  • Energy generation phase
  • Energy investment phase
  • Splitting phase
  • All of them

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Q. 23 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 666)

Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?

  • Phenelzine
  • Promethazine
  • Trifluoperazine
  • Hydroxyzine

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Q. 2 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1559)

The first edition of IP was published in …

  • 1955
  • 1965
  • 1975
  • 1985

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Q. 5 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 646)

Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -

  • Mental depression
  • Schizophrenia
  • Parkinsonism
  • None of the above

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Q. 22 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 665)

Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-

  • Oxytocic action
  • Vasoconstriction action
  • α -receptors blocking action
  • None of the above

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Q. 4 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1581)

Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .

  • Metagenic amino acids
  • Glucogenic amino acids
  • Ketogenic amino acids
  • Glutamic amino acids

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Q. 20 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 637)

In case of the schedule X drugs the prescription should be in:

  • Duplicate
  • Triplicate
  • Only one copy
  • 5 copies

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Q. 3 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 644)

Levodopa is amino acid precursor of - 

  • Adrenaline
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • All of these

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Q. 7 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1648)

Which of the following is not a type of cellular adaptation?

  • Hypertrophy
  • Superplasia
  • Hyperplasia
  • Atrophy

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1360)

Milky type colour of urine is due to the presence of-

  • Albumins
  • haemoglobin
  • Fatty acid
  • Nephritis

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Q. 13 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 656)

Tetracycline act by -

  • Inhibition of protein synthesis
  • Interfering in cell wall synthesis
  • Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
  • All of the above

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 3860)

Increase in number of erythrocytes

  • Poikilocytosis
  • Reticulocytes
  • displacia
  • Polycythemia

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Q. 13 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 630)

Schedule F2 of Drug and Cosmetic act is related to - 

  • Standards for opthalmic preparations
  • Standards for surgical dressings
  • Standards for sterilized umbilical tapes
  • Standards for disinfectant fluids

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Q. 8 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1535)

Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?

  • the mitochondria
  • the nucleus
  • peripheral proteins
  • the endoplasmic reticulum

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1193)

Uniform part of a loan raised by a company is known as -

  • Public deposit
  • Equity shares
  • Debentures
  • Borrowed capital

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1193)

Uniform part of a loan raised by a company is known as -

  • Public deposit
  • Equity shares
  • Debentures
  • Borrowed capital

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Q. 11 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 654)

Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :

  • Inflammation
  • Inflammation and allergy
  • Skin infections
  • Allergy

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Q. 27 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 670)

Nociceptors are associated with:

  • Chemical
  • Pain
  • Temperature
  • Pressure

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Q. 6 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1543)

Latin term "mitte" means the following

  • inject
  • give
  • send
  • take

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Q. 6 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 3906)

Milky type colour of urine gets elevated in

  • Albimins
  • Haemoglobin
  • Fatty acid
  • Nephritis

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Q. 15 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1138)

Name the suspending agent used in calamine lotion?

  • ZnO
  • Bentonite
  • Sodium citrate
  • Glycerol

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Q. 66 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 243)

Which one of these paraffin base is used in the eye ointment?

  • White soft paraffin
  • Yellow soft paraffin
  • Hard paraffin
  • None of these

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Q. 23 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1373)

Double helix structure of DNA was proposed by-

  • Lewis
  • Chargaff's
  • James Watson and crick
  • Mandel

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Q. 11 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 654)

Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :

  • Inflammation
  • Inflammation and allergy
  • Skin infections
  • Allergy

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Q. 7 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 94)

Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the

  • Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
  • Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
  • Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
  • Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis

Discuss View Answer

Directions :

Q. 11 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 561)

The air becomes heated by-

  • Conduction
  • Convection
  • Radiation
  • Expansion

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Directions : For each question, choose a correct option from given four options (A, B, C and D)

Q. 8 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1222)

The drug contraindicated in active tuberculosis?

  • INH
  • PABA
  • PAS
  • Hdrocortisone

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Q. 19 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1697)

Which one of these is used to treat dandruff?

  • Sulphur
  • Selenium sulphide
  • yellow mercuric oxide
  • none of the above

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Q. 21 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 3871)

Heparin is a

  • Monosaccharide
  • Disaccharide
  • Mucopolysaccharide
  • Heteropolysaccharide

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Q. 4 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1354)

one example of glycoside is-

  • Cholesterol
  • Sphingomyelin
  • Lecithin
  • Gangliosides

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Q. 43 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 130)

Active immunity is induced by

  • Placental transfer of antibodies
  • Infection
  • Injection of gamma-globulins
  • Injection of antibodies

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Q. 23 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1701)

Titrant used in the assay of ferrous sulphate I.P.1996 is-

  • Potassium parmangnate
  • cerric ammonium sulphate
  • sulphuric acid
  • none of the above

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Q. 24 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1333)

Fixed rate of divident is given to-

  • Equity share holders
  • Preference share holders
  • Differed shares
  • Any of the above

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Q. 2 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1680)

Most widely used anticaries agent is-

  • sodium bicarbonate
  • sodium carbonate
  • sodium fluoride
  • acacia

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Q. 13 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 686)

Sera are used to provide

  • Artificial passive immunity
  • Artificial active immunity
  • Natural passive immunity
  • none of these

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Q. 29 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1182)

Number of fluid ounce present in one pint is -

  • 15
  • 20
  • 30
  • 40

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Directions : For each question, choose a correct option from given four options (A, B, C and D)

Q. 5 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1219)

which one of these is used to increase the serum level of penicilline?

  • Aspirin
  • Ranitidine
  • Probenecid
  • Aluminium hydroxide gel

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Q. 11 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1194)

Induction training is meant for -

  • Existing employees
  • New employees
  • Both (a) and (b)
  • None of the above

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