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Zoology Practice MCQs

1 of 449

Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following

  • enzyme
  • substrate
  • end products
  • intermediate end products


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

2 of 449

Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

  • succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
  • cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
  • hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
  • carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

3 of 449

Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

4 of 449

Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by

  • lowering activation energy
  • increasing activation energy
  • increasing temperature and pH
  • decreasing temperature and pH


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

5 of 449

Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

  • Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
  • Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
  • Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
  • Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

6 of 449

Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

  • Uracil
  • Cytosine
  • Guanine
  • Thymine


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of

  • Peptidase
  • Amylase
  • Sucrose
  • Lipase


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

8 of 449

Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids

  • Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
  • Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
  • Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  • Both Assertion and Reason are false


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?

  • End product
  • External factors
  • Enzyme
  • Substrate


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

10 of 449

Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

  • Lactose
  • Starch
  • Glycogen
  • Dextrin


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is

  • Collagen
  • Trypsin
  • Myosin
  • Actin


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______

  • B1
  • B2
  • B3
  • B12


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

  • Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of

  • allosteric inhibition
  • feedback inhibition
  • uncompetitive inhibition
  • competitive inhibition


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is

  • DNA polymerase
  • carbonic anhydrase
  • carbonic dehydrogenase
  • DNA ligase


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.17 Lecithin is a

  • polysaccharide
  • protein
  • nucleic acid
  • lipid


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called

  • enzymatic energy
  • activation energy
  • substrate energy
  • initiation energy


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in

  • Enhancing oxidative metabolism
  • Being synthesised in the body of organisms
  • Being proteinaceous
  • Regulating metabolism


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

20 of 449

Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA

  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
  • Adenine, thymine, uracil
  • Guanine, uracil


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________

  • Saponins
  • Tannins
  • Secondary metabolite
  • Primary metabolites


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to

  • R groups of amino acids
  • Sequence of amino acids
  • Peptide bonds
  • Amino groups of amino acids


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that

  • One strand turns anticlockwise
  • Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
  • Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
  • One strand turns clockwise


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

24 of 449

Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves

  • Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
  • Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
  • Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
  • Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is

  • Sucrose
  • Fructose
  • Maltose
  • Glucose


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following

  • enzyme
  • substrate
  • end products
  • intermediate end products


ZoologyClass 11th

27 of 449

Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

  • succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
  • cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
  • hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
  • carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by

  • lowering activation energy
  • increasing activation energy
  • increasing temperature and pH
  • decreasing temperature and pH


ZoologyClass 11th

30 of 449

Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

  • Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
  • Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
  • Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
  • Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

  • Uracil
  • Cytosine
  • Guanine
  • Thymine


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of

  • Peptidase
  • Amylase
  • Sucrose
  • Lipase


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids

  • Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
  • Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
  • Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  • Both Assertion and Reason are false


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?

  • End product
  • External factors
  • Enzyme
  • Substrate


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

  • Lactose
  • Starch
  • Glycogen
  • Dextrin


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is

  • Collagen
  • Trypsin
  • Myosin
  • Actin


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______

  • B1
  • B2
  • B3
  • B12


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

  • Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Coenzyme ? Apoenzyme


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of

  • allosteric inhibition
  • feedback inhibition
  • uncompetitive inhibition
  • competitive inhibition


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is

  • DNA polymerase
  • carbonic anhydrase
  • carbonic dehydrogenase
  • DNA ligase


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.17 Lecithin is a

  • polysaccharide
  • protein
  • nucleic acid
  • lipid


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called

  • enzymatic energy
  • activation energy
  • substrate energy
  • initiation energy


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in

  • Enhancing oxidative metabolism
  • Being synthesised in the body of organisms
  • Being proteinaceous
  • Regulating metabolism


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA

  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
  • Adenine, thymine, uracil
  • Guanine, uracil


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________

  • Saponins
  • Tannins
  • Secondary metabolite
  • Primary metabolites


ZoologyClass 11th

47 of 449

Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to

  • R groups of amino acids
  • Sequence of amino acids
  • Peptide bonds
  • Amino groups of amino acids


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that

  • One strand turns anticlockwise
  • Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
  • Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
  • One strand turns clockwise


ZoologyClass 11th

49 of 449

Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves

  • Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
  • Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
  • Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
  • Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is

  • Sucrose
  • Fructose
  • Maltose
  • Glucose


ZoologyClass 11th

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Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?

  • It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
  • It is a molecular disease.
  • It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
  • All of the above.


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.2 The first genetic material could be

  • protein
  • cabohydrates
  • DNA
  • RNA


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively

  • chromosome 21 and Y
  • chromosome 1 and X
  • chromosome 1 and Y
  • chromosome X and Y


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?

  • Rosalind Franklin
  • Maurice Wilkins
  • Erwin Chargaff
  • Meselson and Stahl


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?

  • Initiation
  • Elongation
  • Termination
  • All of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

  • DNA-replication
  • transcription
  • translation
  • none of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?

  • Chromosome 1
  • Chromosome 11
  • Chromosome 21
  • Chromosome X


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called

  • A – DNA
  • B – DNA
  • cDNA
  • rDNA


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be

  • 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
  • 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes

  • the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
  • the promoter and the terminator region
  • the structural gene and the terminator region
  • the structural gene only.


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be

  • 5’ – UAC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAU – 3’
  • 5’-AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – GUA – 3’


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

  • 5’- end
  • 3’ – end
  • anticodon site
  • DHUloop.


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to

  • the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
  • the larger ribosomal sub-unit
  • the whole ribosome
  • no such specificity exists


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when

  • lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
  • repressor binds to operator
  • RNA polymerase binds to the operator
  • lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

  • glycosidic bonds
  • phosphodiester bonds
  • peptide bonds
  • hydrogen bonds


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?

  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 30%
  • 60%


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?

  • ATGCATGCA
  • AUGCAUGCA
  • TACTACGT
  • UACGUACGU


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?

  • 2 nm
  • 3.4 nm
  • 34 nm
  • 0.34 nm


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by

  • central dogma reverse
  • reverse transcription
  • feminism
  • all of these


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.20 Histone proteins are

  • basic, negatively charged
  • basic, positively charged
  • acidic, positively charged
  • acidic, negatively charged


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called

  • nucleotides
  • nucleosides
  • histone octamer
  • nucleosomes


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,

  • It is densely packed
  • It stains dark
  • It is transcriptionally active.
  • It is late replicating


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of

  • transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
  • structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
  • Mendel’s laws of inheritance
  • biotechnology by Kary Muliis.


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are

  • phenylalanine and arginine
  • tryptophan and methionine
  • valine and proline
  • methionine and aroinine


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

  • Genetic code is ambiguous.
  • Genetic code is deqenerate
  • Genetic code is universal
  • Genetic code is non-overlanning.


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 12thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic

  • Aquatic amphibian
  • Aquatic insect
  • Bony fishes
  • Mammal


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic

  • Mammal
  • Aquatic insect
  • Terrestrial amphibian
  • Marine fishes


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic

  • Mammal
  • Reptiles
  • Birds
  • Snails


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.4 Which among is the most toxic

  • Ammonia
  • Uric acid
  • Urea
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body

  • Ammonia
  • Urea
  • Uric acid
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of

  • Planaria
  • Annelids
  • Cockroach
  • Rotifers


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.7 Kidney is present between

  • T12 L3
  • T11 L2
  • T 10 L1
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism

  • Earthworm
  • Prawn
  • Cockroach
  • Planaria


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney

  • 80-90g
  • 120-150g
  • 110-120g
  • 120-170g


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons

  • 1 million
  • 2 million
  • 2 thousand
  • 2 hundred


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney

  • Nephrons
  • Cell
  • Neurons
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as

  • Malphigian body
  • Renal corpuscle
  • Malphigian capsule
  • Both b and c


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case

  • Renal calculi
  • Renal failure
  • Uremia
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water

  • Descending loop
  • Ascending loop
  • Both the loops
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes

  • Pineal gland
  • Pancreas
  • Gall bladder
  • Sweat glands


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as

  • Ketonuria
  • Glycosides
  • Glycosuria
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as

  • Uremia
  • Renal failure
  • Renal calculi
  • Glomerulonephritis


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.20 ANF can cause

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is

  • 180 L
  • 150L
  • 130L
  • 120L


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following

  • DCT
  • Both a and c
  • PCT
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute

  • 500-800ml
  • 1100- 1200ml
  • 1500-1700ml
  • 1600-1800ml


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the

  • Haversian canal
  • endosteum
  • red bone marrow
  • pancreas


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?

  • Webbed feet
  • Copulatory pads
  • Tympanum
  • All are present


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in

  • blood
  • muscle
  • Bone
  • catrilage


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.

  • Vascular system of frog is closed type.
  • Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
  • During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
  • All the statements are correct


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?

  • Bowman scapsule
  • Loop of Henle
  • Distal convoluted tubule
  • Collecting ducts


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in

  • fallopian tubes
  • blood vessels
  • mid brain
  • none of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of

  • RBC
  • plasma
  • platelets
  • all of the above


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

  • Tympanum
  • Skin
  • Sebaceous
  • Nictitating


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.9 Fats are richly found in

  • alveolar tissue
  • lymph glands
  • adipose tissue
  • liver cells


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is

  • the exchange of respiratory gases
  • the storage of fat
  • the storage of energy
  • to convert light vitamin D


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in

  • trachea
  • ureter
  • bile duct
  • intestines


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?

  • Bartholin
  • Anal
  • Prostate
  • Adrenal


General ScienceBiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that

  • the cells are loosely placed
  • they are single – layered in thickness
  • cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
  • cells are generally ciliated


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Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :

  • sublingual
  • adrenal
  • Brunners
  • lacrimal


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Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is

  • actin
  • ossein
  • collagen
  • elastin


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Q.16 Tendons connect the following

  • bone to bone
  • muscle to muscle
  • cartilage to muscle
  • bone to muscle


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Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because

  • they protect crops
  • they links food web
  • they are food to man.
  • all of these


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Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

  • Tympanum
  • Skin
  • Sebaceous
  • Nictitating


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Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?

  • Clitellum
  • Setae
  • Intersegmental grooves
  • Nephridiophores


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Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?

  • Phallic gland
  • Vestibulum
  • Gonapophyses
  • Collaterial glands


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Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified

  • Sweat glands
  • Mucous glands
  • Sebaceous glands
  • Sudoriferous glands


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Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is

  • Muscle tissue
  • Nervous tissue
  • Connective tissue
  • Epithelial tissue


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Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is

  • Squamous epithelium
  • Cuboidal epithelium
  • Columnar epithelium
  • Ciliated columnar epithelium


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Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the

  • Respiration
  • Urine
  • Skin
  • Stool


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Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material

  • Striated muscle
  • Areolar tissue
  • Stratified epithelium
  • Myelinated nerve fibres


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Q.1 Radula is found in

  • Pila sp
  • Chiton sp
  • Lamellidens sp
  • Pinctada sp


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Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes

  • Jawless
  • Bony
  • Cartilaginous
  • Freshwater


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Q.3 Turtles are

  • Arthropods
  • Pisces
  • Reptiles
  • Molluscs


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Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of

  • labial palps
  • one pair of ganglia
  • two pairs of ganglia
  • three pairs of ganglia


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Q.5 Choose the correct pair.

  • Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
  • Rana – 2-chambered heart
  • Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
  • Pavo – 3-chambered heart


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Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?

  • Lamarck
  • Darwin
  • Wallace
  • Linnaeus


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Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?

  • Platypus lays eggs
  • Camels have biconcave RBCs
  • Whales respire by gills
  • Bats do not fly


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Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to

  • class amphibia
  • super class pisces
  • super class tetrapoda
  • division agnatha


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Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?

  • Mammalia : give birth to young ones
  • Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
  • Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
  • Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton


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Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?

  • Annelida
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Nematoda


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Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?

  • Platyhelminthes
  • Aschelminthes
  • Mollusca
  • Hemi-chordates


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Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?

  • Bilateral
  • Radial
  • Asymmetry
  • None of these


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Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is

  • Platyhelminthes
  • Annelida
  • Echinoderms
  • Arthropoda


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Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on

  • Garbage
  • Human blood
  • Flower sap
  • All of the above


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Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of

  • Typhoid
  • Yellow fever
  • Typhus
  • Trench fever


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Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

  • Ventral nerve cord
  • Closed circulatory system
  • Segmentation
  • Pseudocoelom


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Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.

  • Threadworms
  • Sponges
  • Tapeworms
  • Liver fluke


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Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans

  • Blood
  • Bile
  • Digestive tract
  • Lung


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Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in

  • Sea-anemone
  • Sea-pen
  • Sea-cucumber
  • Sea-horse


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Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of

  • Tuataras
  • Lizards and snakes
  • Turtles and tortoises
  • Crocodiles, alligators, caimans


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Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito

  • Sporozoites
  • Ookinetes
  • Oocystes
  • Merozoites


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Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum

  • Annelida
  • Mollusca
  • Cnidaria
  • Echinodermata


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Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs

  • Pulmonary vein
  • Hepatic vein
  • Carotid artery
  • Pulmonary artery


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Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is

  • Urea
  • Ammonia
  • Both A and B
  • None


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Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic

  • Aschelminthes (round worms)
  • Ctenophores
  • Sponges
  • Coelenterates (Cnidarians)


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Q.1 Which among the following does not exchange o2 with CO2 through simple diffusion

  • Earthworms
  • Earthworms
  • Sponges
  • Flatworms


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Q.2 Which among the following have well developed respiratory system

  • Cockroaches
  • Earthworms
  • Sponges
  • Mammals


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Q.3 How many lobes are present in right lung

  • 2
  • 5
  • 3
  • 4


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Q.4 Name a sound box which is responsible for sound production

  • Pharynx
  • Larynx
  • Epiglottis
  • None of the above


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Q.5 Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by

  • Vertebral column
  • Sternum
  • Ribs
  • Diaphragm


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Q.6 Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs is

  • More than atm pressure
  • Less tha atm pressure
  • Equal to atm pressure
  • None of the above


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Q.7 The part starting from external nostril upto terminal bronchioles is known as

  • Conducting part
  • Exchange part
  • Respiratory part
  • None of the above


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Q.8 What is the structural and functional unit of lungs

  • Bronchioles
  • Alveoli
  • Bronchi
  • Both a and c


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Q.9 On an average healthy human breathes how many times per minute

  • 12-16
  • 15-16
  • 20-25
  • 72


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Q.10 What is the inspiratory reserve volume

  • 2500-3000 ml
  • 500 ml
  • 1000-1100 ml
  • None of the above


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Q.11 Volume air inspired or expired during normal respiration is known as

  • TV
  • IRV
  • ERV
  • RV


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Q.12 which among the following is measured by spirometer

  • Total lung capacity
  • FRC
  • RV
  • TV


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Q.13 Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gas is known as

  • Partial pressure
  • Diffusion pressure
  • Osmotic pressure
  • None of the above


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Q.14 Solubility of CO2 is how many times higher than O2

  • 10-15
  • 30-40
  • 20-21
  • 20-25


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Q.15 What is the partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere

  • 156
  • 159
  • 94
  • 40


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Q.16 What is the partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood

  • 45
  • 40
  • 95
  • 43


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Q.17 How many percent of co2 is carried by plasma in dissolved form

  • 6
  • 7
  • 20-25
  • None of the above


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Q.18 How many percent of co2 is carried as bicarbonate

  • 50
  • 97
  • 70
  • 25


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Q.19 Every 100ml of deoxy blood delivers approx

  • 2ml of co2 to alveoli
  • 3 of co2 to alveoli
  • 4ml of co2 to alveoli
  • 7ml of co2 to alveoli


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Q.20 RBC contains very high quantity of which enzyme

  • Carbonic anhydrase
  • Lysosome
  • Ligase
  • None of the above


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Q.21 which among the following is caused due to decreased respiratory surface area

  • Astma
  • Emphysema
  • Sclerosis
  • None of the above


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Q.22 Whose role in respiratory rhythm regulation is insignificant

  • Co2
  • O2
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above


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Q.23 Pneumotaxic centre is present in which region of brain

  • Medulla
  • Hypothalamus
  • Pons
  • None of the above


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Q.24 Which type of curve is formed when percent of haemoglobin is plotted against po2

  • Straight line
  • Hyperbola
  • Sigmoid
  • Parabola


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Q.25 which among the following is responsible to shift o2 dissociation curve right

  • High Pco2
  • Low pco2
  • Low H+
  • None of the above


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Q.1 Each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone known as

  • Thecodont
  • Diphyodont
  • Heterodont
  • None of the above


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Q.2 A cartilagenous flap which prevents entry of food

  • Glottis
  • Pyloric spincter
  • Epiglottis
  • Cardiac spincter


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Q.3 Where is paratoid salivary gland is situated

  • Lower jaw
  • Below tongue
  • Upper jaw
  • Cheek


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Q.4 The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into which region of intestine

  • Jejunum
  • Ileum
  • Duodenum
  • Cardiac


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Q.5 Which kind of gland is pancreas

  • Exocrine
  • Endocrine
  • Compound gland
  • None of the above


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Q.6 Which cell is responsible for secretion of HCL and intrinsic factors

  • Parietal cell
  • Chief cell
  • Mucus cell
  • Peptic cell


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Q.7 Which enzyme is responsible for digestion of milk protein in infants

  • Renin
  • Rennin
  • Proteoses
  • None of the above


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Q.8 Which enzyme converts polysaccharides into disaccharides

  • Amylases
  • Lipases
  • Salivary amylase
  • None of the above


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Q.9 Which enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice

  • Lipases
  • Amylase
  • Nucleases
  • Nucleosides


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Q.10 Which pH is optimum for salivary amylase to work

  • 6.8
  • 5.8
  • 3.8
  • 8


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Q.11 Absorption of water in large intestine is done by

  • Chief cells
  • Haustra cells
  • Parietal cell
  • Peptic cell


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Q.12 Glucose and amino acids are transported by which transport

  • Facilitated diffusion
  • Diffusion
  • Active transport
  • Passive transport


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Q.13 Fructose are transported by which mechanism

  • Passive transport
  • Active transport
  • Diffusion
  • Facilitated diffusion


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Q.14 Which is not present in bile juice

  • Bile pigments
  • Enzymes
  • Bile salts
  • Cholesterol


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Q.15 Maltase converts maltose into

  • glucose+ glucose
  • Glucose + fructose
  • Glucose + galactose
  • Fatty acids+ glycerol


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Q.16 How many salivary glans are present

  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • None of the above


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Q.17 The small finger like foldings in small intestine is called

  • Rugae
  • Villi
  • Botha a and b
  • None of the above


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Q.18 Crypts in between bases of villi in intestine are known as

  • Crypts of lieberkuhn
  • Crypts of intestine
  • Crypts of stomach
  • None of the above


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Q.19 What are the structural and functional units of liver

  • Hepatic cells
  • Hepatic lobules
  • Hepatic glands
  • None of the above


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Q.20 Duct of paratoid gland are known as

  • Rhenius
  • Stensons
  • Warton
  • None of the above


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Q.21 Which is not the part of stomach

  • Cardiac
  • Pyloric
  • Funds
  • Ileum


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Q.22 Enamel is originated from which cell

  • Amiloblast cell
  • Odontioblast cell
  • Chief cell
  • Peptic cell


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Q.23 Dentine is originated from which cell

  • Amiloblast cell
  • Odontioblast cell
  • Chief cell
  • Peptic cell


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Q.24 In which condition the food is not digested properly leading to feeling of fullness

  • Indigestion
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhoea
  • None of the above


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Q.25 In which condition the faeces are retained in the rectum as the bowel movement occur irregularly

  • Indigestion
  • Constipation
  • Diarrhoea
  • None of the above


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Q.1 Which hormones is a stress hormone

  • Norepinephrine
  • Androgen
  • Cortisol
  • FSH


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Q.2 Secretin cause stimulation of

  • Bile juice
  • Water
  • Gastric secretion
  • Pepsinogen


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Q.3 In adults insufficient thyroxine lead to

  • Myxoedema
  • Goitre
  • Tetany
  • Cretinism


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Q.4 In the body both blood sodium and potassium is regulated by

  • Pheromones
  • Aldosterone
  • Cortisols
  • Androgens


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Q.5 Chemical name of T4 is

  • Tetradiodothyronine
  • Tridiodothyronine
  • Tetraiodothyronine
  • Triiodothyronine


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Q.6 Anabolic steroids are ___ versions of testosterone

  • Effective
  • Synthetic
  • Natural
  • Ineffective


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Q.7 which of the following acts on bones

  • Melatonin
  • Triiodothyronine
  • GH
  • Parathyroid


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Q.8 Glucagon hormone is secreted by

  • Thyroid gland
  • Pituitary
  • Adrenal
  • Pancreas


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Q.9 Which of the following is male sex organs

  • Insulins
  • Aldosterone
  • Androgens
  • Pheromones


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Q.10 Choose the incorrect statement

  • Hormones are non-nutrients chemicals
  • Exocrine glands are ductless glands
  • Invertebrates have simple endocrine system
  • All of the above statements are incorrect


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Q.11 Endemic goitre is a state of

  • Increased thyroid function
  • Normal thyroid function
  • Decreased thyroid function
  • Moderate thyroid function


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Q.12 PTH is called hypercalcemic hormone because it leads to

  • Absorption of CaCo3 from digested food
  • Reabsorption of water from renal tubules
  • Increasing blood calcium levels
  • Maintain ion balance in blood


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Q.13 Corpus leuteum secretes

  • Progesterone
  • Estrogen
  • Vasopressin
  • Glucagon


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Q.14 In children hypothyroidism lead to

  • Goitre
  • Acromegaly
  • Cretinism
  • Myxoedema


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Q.15 Diurnal rhythm of body is maintained by

  • Melatonin
  • Isthmus
  • PTH
  • Norepinephrine


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Q.16 Which hormone inhibits release of growth hormone

  • Insulin
  • Gonadotrophin
  • Somatostatin
  • Thymosin


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Q.17 Which of the following is essential for thyroid gland

  • nacl
  • I3
  • CaCo2
  • H2Co3


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Q.18 Testorone is produced by

  • Leydigs cell
  • Pituitary gland
  • Both a and b
  • Non of the above


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Q.19 The phase of menstrual cycle that last for 7-8 days are

  • Ovulatory
  • Menstruation
  • Luteal
  • Follicular


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Q.20 Blood pressure is under control of

  • Pituitary
  • Adrenal
  • Thymus
  • Thyroid


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Q.21 Master endocrine gland is

  • Pituitary
  • Parathyroid
  • Thyroid
  • Pineal


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Q.22 Largest completely endocrine gland is

  • Adrenal
  • Thyroid
  • Pituitary
  • Parathyroid


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Q.23 Implantation of embryo and placentation is under control of

  • FSH
  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone
  • Estradiol


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Q.24 Insulin is secreted by

  • Acinus
  • A cells
  • P cells
  • Y cells


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Q.25 Hormones are

  • Excretory pdt
  • Enzymatory pdt
  • Chemical messenger
  • Nerve impulse


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Q.1 Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?

  • Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
  • Pupil constriction
  • Acceleration of heart beat
  • Contraction of hair muscles


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Q.2 During resting state, fluid outside axon contains

  • low concentration of K+
  • low concentration of Na+
  • low concentration of Cl–
  • high concentration of Cl–


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Q.3 The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.

  • Cerebellum
  • Medulla oblongata
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Thalamus


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Q.4 The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of

  • Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
  • A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
  • A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
  • Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions


BiologyZoologyClass 11thNEET UGNEET UG Preparation

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Q.5 The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except

  • Generation of end-plate potential
  • Release of calcium from troponin
  • Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
  • Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP