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Pharmacology One Liners


Pharmacist Exams revision: Pharmacology Chapter 1 - Important One Liner questions

This post contains important one-liner questions in pharmacology which will help you to understand the basic terms in the pharmacology subject and strengthens you for the various competitive pharmacy exams.

General Pharmacology questions (one Liners) 

some important general pharmacology question on route of administration and basic terminologies..

Revision of Pharmacology, some basic points (one liners)

Pharmacology revision notes, some basic points from general pharmacology, pharmacology one liners, for pharmacy exams. 

Autonomic Nervous System.


TYPES OF CANCER


Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy Important Questions (one liners)

These questions are from hospital and clinical pharmacy topic. These important points will help every pharmacist to revise update their knowledge or to pass most of pharmacy exams. 

Add One liners


Pharmacology Practice MCQs

1 of 237

Q.1 Alupent is common brand name for-

  • Isoprenaline
  • Phenylephrine
  • Orciprenaline
  • Terbutaline


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

2 of 237

Q.2 Which of these hypnotic possess a muscle relaxant property?

  • Paraldehyde
  • Phenobarbitone
  • Barbitone
  • Diazepam


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

3 of 237

Q.3 Paracetamol is excreted as-

  • Glucuronide
  • Deacetylated product
  • Hydroxy derivatives
  • none of the above


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

4 of 237

Q.4 Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-

  • α - receptor
  • α and β receptor
  • β receptor
  • none of the above


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

5 of 237

Q.5 Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-

  • Genetic variation
  • Idiosyncracy
  • Teratogenic effect
  • none of the above


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

6 of 237

Q.6 Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-

  • inhibiting the enzyme
  • blocking the receptor
  • acting on cell membrane
  • non-specific drug action


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

7 of 237

Q.7 Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-

  • sublingual route
  • Oral route
  • Intravenous route
  • none of the above


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

8 of 237

Q.8 Methotrexate is a -

  • Enzyme inhibitor
  • Receptor blocker
  • Alkylating agent
  • Anti-metabolic


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

9 of 237

Q.9 Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?

  • Tetracycline
  • Bacitracin
  • Paramomycin
  • tobramycin


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

10 of 237

Q.10 Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-

  • Nematodes
  • Cestodes
  • Trematodes
  • all of the above


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

11 of 237

Q.11 Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?

  • Amantadine
  • Idoxuridine
  • Acyclovir
  • Haymycin


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

12 of 237

Q.12 Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-

  • Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
  • Inhibiting protein synthesis
  • Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
  • all of the above


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

13 of 237

Q.13 Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-

  • Penicillin
  • Cephalosporin
  • Sulphonamides
  • Erythromycin


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

14 of 237

Q.14 Penicillinase resistance penicillin include-

  • Penicillin G
  • Penicillin V
  • Cloxacilline
  • Ampicilline


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

15 of 237

Q.15 Which one of the antibacterial agent is effective against typhoid fever?

  • Chloramphenicol
  • Penicillin
  • Teracycline
  • Sulphathiazole


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

16 of 237

Q.16 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-

  • Tryptophan
  • 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid
  • 5-hydroxytryptamine
  • Indole


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

17 of 237

Q.17 Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-

  • CNS stimulant
  • Vasoconstriction
  • Increase in blood pressure
  • Release of histamine


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

18 of 237

Q.18 Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-

  • Atenolol
  • Atorvastatin
  • Propranalol
  • Digoxin


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

19 of 237

Q.19 Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-

  • Tuberculosis
  • Diarrhoea
  • inflammation and boils
  • Leprosy


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

20 of 237

Q.20 Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-

  • Cytosine nucleoside
  • Guanosine nucleoside
  • Thymidine nucleoside
  • Adenine nucleoside


PharmacologyD. PharmaBachelor of PharmacyDiploma in Pharmacy

21 of 237

Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:

  • Phenylbutazone
  • Piroxican
  • Benorylate
  • Indomethacin


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

22 of 237

Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?

  • Pethidine
  • Codeine
  • Nalorphine
  • None of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

23 of 237

Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of - 

  • Adrenaline
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • All of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

24 of 237

Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-

  • Theophylline
  • Caffeine
  • Theobromine
  • All of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

25 of 237

Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -

  • Mental depression
  • Schizophrenia
  • Parkinsonism
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

26 of 237

Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-

  • Inhibition of calcium influx
  • Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
  • Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

27 of 237

Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -

  • Arrhythmia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyper lipoproteinemia
  • Angina pectoris


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

28 of 237

Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -

  • LDL
  • VLDL
  • HDL
  • Chylomicrons


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

29 of 237

Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -

  • High blood pressure
  • Arrhythmia
  • Hyper lipoproteinemia
  • Angina pectoris


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

30 of 237

Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -

  • Calcium ion
  • Prothrombin
  • Vitamin K
  • Fibrinogen


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

31 of 237

Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :

  • Inflammation
  • Inflammation and allergy
  • Skin infections
  • Allergy


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

32 of 237

Q.12 The sulphonamides are :

  • Bactericidal in nature
  • Bacteriostatic in nature
  • Bactericidal only at high dose
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

33 of 237

Q.13 Tetracycline act by -

  • Inhibition of protein synthesis
  • Interfering in cell wall synthesis
  • Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

34 of 237

Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:

  • Candidia albicans
  • Blastomyces
  • Cryptococcus histoplasma
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

35 of 237

Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:

  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Allergic reaction


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

36 of 237

Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?

  • Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
  • Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
  • Mefloquine + Primaquine
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

37 of 237

Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?

  • L- asparginase
  • Phosphodiesterase
  • Xanthine Oxidase
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

38 of 237

Q.18 Eserine acts by -

  • Receptor mechanism
  • Acting on cell membrane
  • Drug-enzyme interactions
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

39 of 237

Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :

  • Chelating agent
  • Antimetabolite
  • Enzyme inhibitor
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

40 of 237

Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -

  • Depressing the CNS
  • Preventing influx of sodium
  • Preventing influx of calcium
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

41 of 237

Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?

  • Pentazocine
  • Pethidine
  • Diphenhydramine
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

42 of 237

Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-

  • Oxytocic action
  • Vasoconstriction action
  • α -receptors blocking action
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

43 of 237

Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?

  • Phenelzine
  • Promethazine
  • Trifluoperazine
  • Hydroxyzine


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

44 of 237

Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?

  • Atropine
  • Salbutamol
  • Tolbutamide
  • Acetylcholine


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

45 of 237

Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?

  • React with acid
  • Degradation
  • Reduction
  • Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

46 of 237

Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?

  • Verapamil
  • Nifedipine
  • Warferin
  • Dipyridamole


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

47 of 237

Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:

  • Chemical
  • Pain
  • Temperature
  • Pressure


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

48 of 237

Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?

  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Cimetidine
  • Ranitidine
  • Thioperamide


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

49 of 237

Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?

  • Fluorouracil
  • Vincristine
  • Thiotepa
  • Doxorubicin


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

50 of 237

Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?

  • Rhabdomylosis
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Rise in serum transaminase


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

51 of 237

Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:

  • Phenylbutazone
  • Piroxican
  • Benorylate
  • Indomethacin


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

52 of 237

Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?

  • Pethidine
  • Codeine
  • Nalorphine
  • None of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

53 of 237

Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of - 

  • Adrenaline
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • All of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

54 of 237

Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-

  • Theophylline
  • Caffeine
  • Theobromine
  • All of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

55 of 237

Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -

  • Mental depression
  • Schizophrenia
  • Parkinsonism
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

56 of 237

Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-

  • Inhibition of calcium influx
  • Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
  • Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

57 of 237

Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -

  • Arrhythmia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyper lipoproteinemia
  • Angina pectoris


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

58 of 237

Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -

  • LDL
  • VLDL
  • HDL
  • Chylomicrons


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

59 of 237

Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -

  • High blood pressure
  • Arrhythmia
  • Hyper lipoproteinemia
  • Angina pectoris


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

60 of 237

Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -

  • Calcium ion
  • Prothrombin
  • Vitamin K
  • Fibrinogen


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

61 of 237

Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :

  • Inflammation
  • Inflammation and allergy
  • Skin infections
  • Allergy


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

62 of 237

Q.12 The sulphonamides are :

  • Bactericidal in nature
  • Bacteriostatic in nature
  • Bactericidal only at high dose
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

63 of 237

Q.13 Tetracycline act by -

  • Inhibition of protein synthesis
  • Interfering in cell wall synthesis
  • Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

64 of 237

Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:

  • Candidia albicans
  • Blastomyces
  • Cryptococcus histoplasma
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

65 of 237

Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:

  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Allergic reaction


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

66 of 237

Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?

  • Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
  • Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
  • Mefloquine + Primaquine
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

67 of 237

Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?

  • L- asparginase
  • Phosphodiesterase
  • Xanthine Oxidase
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

68 of 237

Q.18 Eserine acts by -

  • Receptor mechanism
  • Acting on cell membrane
  • Drug-enzyme interactions
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

69 of 237

Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :

  • Chelating agent
  • Antimetabolite
  • Enzyme inhibitor
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

70 of 237

Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -

  • Depressing the CNS
  • Preventing influx of sodium
  • Preventing influx of calcium
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

71 of 237

Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?

  • Pentazocine
  • Pethidine
  • Diphenhydramine
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

72 of 237

Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-

  • Oxytocic action
  • Vasoconstriction action
  • α -receptors blocking action
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

73 of 237

Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?

  • Phenelzine
  • Promethazine
  • Trifluoperazine
  • Hydroxyzine


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

74 of 237

Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?

  • Atropine
  • Salbutamol
  • Tolbutamide
  • Acetylcholine


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

75 of 237

Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?

  • React with acid
  • Degradation
  • Reduction
  • Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

76 of 237

Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?

  • Verapamil
  • Nifedipine
  • Warferin
  • Dipyridamole


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

77 of 237

Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:

  • Chemical
  • Pain
  • Temperature
  • Pressure


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

78 of 237

Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?

  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Cimetidine
  • Ranitidine
  • Thioperamide


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

79 of 237

Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?

  • Fluorouracil
  • Vincristine
  • Thiotepa
  • Doxorubicin


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

80 of 237

Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?

  • Rhabdomylosis
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Rise in serum transaminase


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

81 of 237

Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:

  • Phenylbutazone
  • Piroxican
  • Benorylate
  • Indomethacin


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

82 of 237

Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?

  • Pethidine
  • Codeine
  • Nalorphine
  • None of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

83 of 237

Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of - 

  • Adrenaline
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • All of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

84 of 237

Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-

  • Theophylline
  • Caffeine
  • Theobromine
  • All of these


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

85 of 237

Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -

  • Mental depression
  • Schizophrenia
  • Parkinsonism
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

86 of 237

Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-

  • Inhibition of calcium influx
  • Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
  • Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

87 of 237

Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -

  • Arrhythmia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyper lipoproteinemia
  • Angina pectoris


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

88 of 237

Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -

  • LDL
  • VLDL
  • HDL
  • Chylomicrons


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

89 of 237

Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -

  • High blood pressure
  • Arrhythmia
  • Hyper lipoproteinemia
  • Angina pectoris


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

90 of 237

Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -

  • Calcium ion
  • Prothrombin
  • Vitamin K
  • Fibrinogen


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

91 of 237

Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :

  • Inflammation
  • Inflammation and allergy
  • Skin infections
  • Allergy


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

92 of 237

Q.12 The sulphonamides are :

  • Bactericidal in nature
  • Bacteriostatic in nature
  • Bactericidal only at high dose
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

93 of 237

Q.13 Tetracycline act by -

  • Inhibition of protein synthesis
  • Interfering in cell wall synthesis
  • Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

94 of 237

Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:

  • Candidia albicans
  • Blastomyces
  • Cryptococcus histoplasma
  • All of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

95 of 237

Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:

  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Neurotoxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Allergic reaction


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

96 of 237

Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?

  • Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
  • Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
  • Mefloquine + Primaquine
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

97 of 237

Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?

  • L- asparginase
  • Phosphodiesterase
  • Xanthine Oxidase
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

98 of 237

Q.18 Eserine acts by -

  • Receptor mechanism
  • Acting on cell membrane
  • Drug-enzyme interactions
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

99 of 237

Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :

  • Chelating agent
  • Antimetabolite
  • Enzyme inhibitor
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

100 of 237

Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -

  • Depressing the CNS
  • Preventing influx of sodium
  • Preventing influx of calcium
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

101 of 237

Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?

  • Pentazocine
  • Pethidine
  • Diphenhydramine
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

102 of 237

Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-

  • Oxytocic action
  • Vasoconstriction action
  • α -receptors blocking action
  • None of the above


PharmacyPharmacologyBiomedical ScienceD. PharmaB. PharmaGeneral PharmacologyGeneral Pharmacology

103 of 237

Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?

  • Phenelzine
  • Promethazine
  • Trifluoperazine
  • Hydroxyzine


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Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?

  • Atropine
  • Salbutamol
  • Tolbutamide
  • Acetylcholine


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Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?

  • React with acid
  • Degradation
  • Reduction
  • Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones


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Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?

  • Verapamil
  • Nifedipine
  • Warferin
  • Dipyridamole


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Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:

  • Chemical
  • Pain
  • Temperature
  • Pressure


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Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?

  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Cimetidine
  • Ranitidine
  • Thioperamide


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Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?

  • Fluorouracil
  • Vincristine
  • Thiotepa
  • Doxorubicin


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Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?

  • Rhabdomylosis
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Rise in serum transaminase


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Q.1 Pharmacokinetic deals with the study of:

  • Rate of metabolism of drug
  • Rate of distribution of drug
  • Rate of drug action
  • Rate of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug


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Q.2 Idiosyncratic reaction is related to:

  • Clinical pharmacology
  • Pharmacogenetics
  • Toxicity
  • None of these


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Q.3 Thalidomide, effective in insomnia was discarded due to its :

  • Side effect
  • Resistance
  • Idiosyncratic reaction
  • Teratogenic effect


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Q.4 Oily injection is preferably given by :

  • Subcutaneous route
  • Intramuscular
  • Intravenous
  • None of these


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Q.5 The main use of eserine is in :

  • Urinary retention
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Glaucoma
  • All of these


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Q.6 Which one of these is non barbiturate, used for paediatric anaesthesia?

  • Nikethamide
  • Morphine
  • Ketamine
  • None of these


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Q.7 Fortwin is a common brand name for :

  • Methadone
  • Pentazocine
  • Fentanyl
  • Dextropropoxyphene


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Q.8 Salicylate decreases the synthesis of one of the following

  • Bradykinin
  • Histamine
  • Prostaglandin
  • None of these


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Q.9 In, Alcoholism, which one of these drug is used?

  • Disulfiram
  • Methanol
  • Barbituric acid
  • None of these


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Q.10 First line drug for tuberculosis unclude :

  • Isoniazid + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
  • Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
  • Isoniazid + Refampin + ethambutol + para amino salicylic acid
  • Isoniazid + Cycloserine + ethambutol + pyrazinamide


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Q.1 Which one of these is not a cholinergic agonist?

  • Acetylcholine
  • Muscarine
  • Neostigmine
  • Pilocarpine


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Q.2 Which on of these is not a correct match for drug and classification?

  • Hyosine -> Cholinergic drugs
  • Hyosine butyl bromide -> Semisynthetic derivatives
  • Tropicamide -> Mydriatics
  • Flavoxate -> Vasicoselective


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Q.3 Which is the correct classification for Dopamine?

  • Bronchodilators
  • Pressor agents
  • Uterine relaxants
  • CNS stimulants


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Q.4 'OTRIVIN' is the common brand name for?

  • Nephazoline
  • Oxymetazoline
  • Xylometazoline
  • Phenylephrine


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Q.5 Fexofenadine is __________ antihistaminics.

  • Highly sedative
  • Moderately sedetive
  • Mildly sedative
  • non-sedative


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Q.6 Vasograin is the common drug used for migraine, contains :

  • Dihydroergotamine
  • Ergotamine
  • Codeine
  • Propranolol


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Q.7 Mephenamic acid is :

  • Selectiv COX-2 inhibitor
  • Antipiratics-analgesics
  • Fenamate non-selective cox-inhibitor
  • salicylates non-selective cox-inhibitor


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Q.8 Which one of these is not a mucolytic?

  • Bromhexine
  • Ambroxol
  • Codiene
  • Carbocistein


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Q.9 Which of these Anterior Pituitary hormones are not release from Basophil cells?

  • Luteinising hormone (LH)
  • Growth Hormone (GH)
  • Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)


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Q.10 Which one of these is not a Glucocorticoid?

  • Hydrocortisone
  • Prednisolon
  • Aldosterone
  • dexamethasone


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Q.11 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are:

  • Theophylline
  • Theobromine
  • Caffeine
  • All of the above


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Q.1 Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:

  • Sterility test
  • Active ingredient
  • Clarity test
  • Pyrogen test


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Q.2 Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form

  • Diclofenace
  • Nicotine
  • Carbamazepine
  • Fentanyl


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Q.3 Kries test is related to

  • Skin sensitivity studies
  • Identification test of resin
  • Rancidity index
  • Identification test of aloin


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Q.4 Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to

  • Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
  • Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
  • Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
  • Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory


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Q.5 Which one of the following drug's tablet should be stored in the closely tight container to prevent loss of potency?

  • Phenytoin
  • Propranolol
  • Nitroglycerine
  • All of these


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Q.6 Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is

  • Nordiazepam
  • Oxazepam
  • Demoxipam
  • All of these


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Q.7 Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the

  • Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
  • Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
  • Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
  • Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis


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Q.8 Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of

  • Obsessive-compulsive disorders
  • Schizophrenia
  • Anxiety
  • Mania


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Q.9 Praracetamol is a derivative of:

  • p-amino phenol
  • Aryl acetic acid
  • Aryl propionic acid
  • Anthranilic acid


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Q.10 Efficiency of ball mill depends on

  • Rotational speed
  • Density of balls
  • Volume occupied by the balls
  • All of these


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Q.11 Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation

  • Flow properties
  • Chemical stability
  • Therapeutic effectiveness
  • All of these


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Q.12 The phosphate antiviral agent is

  • Ribavirin
  • Didanosine
  • Ganciclovir
  • Foscarnet


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Q.13 side effect of drugs is arise due to its intraction to cellular molucules other than the target. these effect can be minimized by their:

  • specificity
  • Solubility
  • Affinity
  • Hydrophobicity


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Q.14 Which statement is not correct about levodopa?

  • In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
  • It is a prodrug
  • Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
  • Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential


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Q.15 Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is

  • Ethyle cellulose
  • cellulose acetate
  • cellulose nitrate
  • cellulose acetobutyrate


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Q.16 Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?

  • Phosphoramide mustard
  • Acrolein
  • Aldophosphamide
  • 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide


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Q.17 The pH of tears is about

  • 6.0
  • 8.0
  • 7.4
  • 9.0


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Q.18 Food poisoning is caused by :

  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium welchi
  • Clostridium botulinium
  • Clostridium septicum


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Q.19 Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?

  • Horse
  • Pigeon
  • Rabbit
  • Chicken


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Q.20 Geiger muller counter is used in :

  • UV specroscopy
  • Ionisation methods
  • IR spectroscopy
  • NMR spectroscopy


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Q.21 Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by

  • Trihexyphenidyl
  • Levodopa
  • Selegiline
  • Amantadine


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Q.22 As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to

  • Schedule L
  • Shedule X
  • Shedule R
  • Shedule O


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Q.23 Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of

  • Pinus leaf
  • Peppermint leaf
  • Clove buds
  • Rose marry


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Q.24 The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a

  • Primary amine
  • Secondary amines
  • Tertiary amines
  • Quarternary amines


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Q.25 Hardness of water is expressed in

  • mL
  • Dynes
  • ppm
  • Mhos


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Q.26 Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by

  • Gas
  • Moist heat
  • Radiation
  • Dry heat


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Q.27 Chlorophyll test is positive in

  • Male fern
  • Clove
  • Rhubarb
  • Pale catechu


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Q.28 Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may

  • Increases the toxicity
  • Decreases bitterness
  • Decreses potency
  • Increases water solubility


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Q.29 A process of sepration of molecules through the use of semi-permeable membrane is known as

  • Osmosis
  • Dialysis
  • Seiving
  • Diffusion


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Q.30 Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet

  • Deaggregation
  • Diffusion
  • Disintegration
  • Dissolutuin


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Q.31 Fenbufen is used in

  • TB
  • Plague
  • Dengu
  • Inflammation


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Q.32 The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of

  • Honey
  • Canthrites
  • Shellac
  • Colchicine


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Q.33 Tragacanth in water is associated with

  • Plastic flow
  • Pseudoplatic flow
  • Dialatant flow
  • None of these


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Q.34 Antioxidants are added in lipstics to

  • Impart pleasant ordour
  • Staining of lips
  • Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
  • Prevent rancidity


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Q.35 Borntrager test is used to identification of

  • Senna
  • Squill
  • Cinchona
  • Digitalis


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Q.36 Plasma protiens act as

  • Reserve protiens
  • Immunoglobulins
  • Buffers
  • All of these


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Q.37 Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ

  • Brain
  • Liver
  • Skeletal muscle
  • Kidney


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Q.38 An example of protien denaturation is

  • Dissolving sugar in water
  • Metabolism of meat
  • Heating milk
  • Heating egg


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Q.39 An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as

  • Isomerases
  • Transferases
  • Hydrolysases
  • Oxydoreductases


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Q.40 The constituent of essential oil is

  • Polyterpenoid
  • Tetraterpenoid
  • mono and sesquiterpenoid
  • Triterpenoid


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Q.41 Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?

  • Hydralazine and atenolol
  • Metochlopramide and levodopa
  • Quinidine and digoxine
  • Furosemide and lithium carbonate


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Q.42 Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of

  • Purine
  • Thiamine
  • Riboflavin
  • Pyrimidine


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Q.43 Active immunity is induced by

  • Placental transfer of antibodies
  • Infection
  • Injection of gamma-globulins
  • Injection of antibodies


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Q.44 HIV infection can be clinical controlled with

  • Ribavirin
  • Ganciclovir
  • Stavudine
  • Acyclovir


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Q.45 An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is

  • Lidocain
  • Disipyramide
  • Phenytoin
  • Amiodarone


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Q.46 Drug of choice for thyroid storm is

  • Carbimazole
  • Radioactive iodine
  • Propyl thiouracil
  • Centimizone


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Q.47 The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are

  • Lysosomes
  • Nucleolus
  • Ribosomes
  • Golgi's bodies


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Q.48 The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is

  • Propranolol
  • Prazocine
  • Dexamphetamine
  • Diazepam


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Q.49 Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year

  • 1985
  • 1996
  • 2007
  • 2015


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Q.50 List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule

  • M
  • N
  • A
  • R


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Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:

  • Is more painful
  • Produces faster response
  • Is unsuitable for depot preparations
  • Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction


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Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by

  • Passive diffusion
  • Facilitated diffusion
  • Active transport
  • Pinocytosis


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Directions:

Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach

  • Hyoscine hydrobromide
  • Morphine sulfate
  • Diclofenac sodium
  • Quinine dihydrochloride


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Directions:

Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is

  • Nature of the base used in the formulation
  • Lipid solubility of the drug
  • Molecular weight of the drug
  • Site of application


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Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug

  • Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
  • Is incompletely absorbed
  • Is freely water soluble
  • Is completely absorbed


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Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of

  • Highly plasma protein bound drugs
  • Depot preparations
  • Highly lipid soluble drugs
  • Poorly lipid soluble drugs


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Q.7 High plasma protein binding

  • Increases volume of distribution of the drug
  • Generally makes the drug long acting
  • Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
  • Minimises drug interactions


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Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug

  • Enalapril
  • Menapril
  • Thiazine
  • Penicillin


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Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of

  • Tolerance
  • Physical dependence
  • Psychological dependence
  • Idiosyncrasy


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Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its

  • Plasma protein binding
  • Lipid solubility
  • Degree of ionization
  • Rate of tubular secretion


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Directions:

Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves

  • Sweat glands
  • Ciliary muscle
  • Iris muscles
  • Splenic capsule


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Directions: .

Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut

  • Nitric oxide (NO)
  • Adenosine
  • Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
  • Kallidin


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Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site

  • Neuromuscular junction
  • Postganglionic parasympathetic
  • Adrenal medulla
  • Autonomic ganglia


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Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is

  • Bethanechol
  • Butyrylcholine
  • Methacholine
  • Benzoylcholine


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Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is

  • Colon
  • Gastric fundus
  • Bladder trigone
  • Major bronchi


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Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for

  • Glaucoma
  • Paralytic ileus
  • Urinary retention
  • Infection


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Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme

  • Neostigmine
  • Edrophonium
  • Physostigmine
  • Dyflos


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Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase

  • Edrophonium
  • Dyflos
  • Tacrine
  • Neostigmine


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Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that

  • It produces less muscarinic side effects
  • It is more potent orally
  • It is longer acting
  • It does not have any direct action on NM receptor


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Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is

  • Canal of Schlemm
  • Ciliary body
  • Ciliary muscle
  • Sphincter pupillae muscle


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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that

  • It has additional α1 blocking property
  • It is a selective βS1 blocker
  • It does not undergo first pass metabolism
  • All of the above


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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties

  • Celiprolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Carvedilol
  • Acebutolol


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Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion

  • Atenolol
  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Dompirol


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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker

  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Esmolol
  • Propalol


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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol

  • Raynaud’s disease
  • Infection
  • Heart attack
  • Epilepsy


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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men

  • Albendazole
  • Mebendazole
  • Cocaine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure

  • Doxazosin
  • Alprostadil
  • Tamsulosin
  • Yohimbine


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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by

  • Adrenergic α1 agonists
  • Adrenergic α1 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 agonists


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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is

  • Tolazoline
  • Desmopressin
  • Ergotamine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP

  • Noradrenaline
  • Mephentermine
  • Isoxsuprine
  • Oxymetazoline


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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that

  • It has additional α1 blocking property
  • It is a selective βS1 blocker
  • It does not undergo first pass metabolism
  • All of the above


PharmacologyPharmacologyPharmacologyPost GraduationD. PharmaB. PharmaDiploma in Pharmacy

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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties

  • Celiprolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Carvedilol
  • Acebutolol


PharmacologyPharmacologyPharmacologyPost GraduationD. PharmaB. PharmaDiploma in Pharmacy

214 of 237

Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion

  • Atenolol
  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Dompirol


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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker

  • Carbinol
  • Ethanol
  • Esmolol
  • Propalol


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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol

  • Raynaud’s disease
  • Infection
  • Heart attack
  • Epilepsy


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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men

  • Albendazole
  • Mebendazole
  • Cocaine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure

  • Doxazosin
  • Alprostadil
  • Tamsulosin
  • Yohimbine


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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by

  • Adrenergic α1 agonists
  • Adrenergic α1 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 antagonists
  • Adrenergic α2 agonists


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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is

  • Tolazoline
  • Desmopressin
  • Ergotamine
  • Sildenafil


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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP

  • Noradrenaline
  • Mephentermine
  • Isoxsuprine
  • Oxymetazoline


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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that

  • It has additional α1 blocking property
  • It is a selective βS1 blocker
  • It does not undergo first pass metabolism
  • All of the above


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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties

  • Celiprolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Carvedilol
  • Acebutol