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Pharmacology One Liners
Pharmacology Chapter 1 Revision: Key One-Liner Questions for Pharmacist Exams
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General Pharmacology questions (one Liners)
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Revision of Pharmacology, some basic points (one liners)
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Autonomic Nervous System.
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TYPES OF CANCER
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Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy Important Questions (one liners)
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Pharmacology Practice MCQs
Question 1 of 237
Q.1 Alupent is common brand name for-
- Isoprenaline
- Phenylephrine
- Orciprenaline
- Terbutaline
Answer ✔ (b) Phenylephrine
Explanation: Orciprenaline is also known as metaproterenol, is a bronchodilator.
Question 2 of 237
Q.2 Which of these hypnotic possess a muscle relaxant property?
- Paraldehyde
- Phenobarbitone
- Barbitone
- Diazepam
Answer ✔ (d) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam possesses anticonvulasant and skeletal muscle relaxant activity.
Question 3 of 237
Q.3 Paracetamol is excreted as-
- Glucuronide
- Deacetylated product
- Hydroxy derivatives
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Glucuronide
Explanation: Paracetamol is metabolised in the liver (90-95%) and?excreted?in the urine mainly as the glucuronide and sulphate conjugates. less than 5% is excreted as unchanged paracetamol.
Question 4 of 237
Q.4 Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-
- α - receptor
- α and β receptor
- β receptor
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) β receptor
Explanation: Ephinephrine is also known as adrenaline hormone and neurotransmitter. Cardiovascular action of epinephrine is mediated through β receptor.
Question 5 of 237
Q.5 Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-
- Genetic variation
- Idiosyncracy
- Teratogenic effect
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic variation
Explanation: Isoniazid is given in the treatment of TB. Also known as isonicotinylhydrazine. In Africans Metabolism of Isoniazid is slow due genetic variations.
Question 6 of 237
Q.6 Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-
- inhibiting the enzyme
- blocking the receptor
- acting on cell membrane
- non-specific drug action
Answer ✔ (c) acting on cell membrane
Explanation: Phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative, class 1B anti-arrythmic. It act on cell membrane by sodium channel blockade.
Question 7 of 237
Q.7 Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-
- sublingual route
- Oral route
- Intravenous route
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual route
Explanation: Isosorbide Dinitrate is used to prevent chest pain (angina attacks). It works by relaxing and widening blood vessels so blood can flow more easily to the heart. These tablets will not treat an angina attack that has already begun. They may be also used to control heart failure. generally taken as sublingual route (below the tongue) for quick absorption and action in emergency.
Question 8 of 237
Q.8 Methotrexate is a -
- Enzyme inhibitor
- Receptor blocker
- Alkylating agent
- Anti-metabolic
Answer ✔ (d) Anti-metabolic
Explanation: Methotrexate is used in cancer, autoimmune diseases and ectopic pregnancy.
Question 9 of 237
Q.9 Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?
- Tetracycline
- Bacitracin
- Paramomycin
- tobramycin
Answer ✔ (c) Paramomycin
Explanation: Paromomycin is an antimicrobial used to treat a number of parasitic infections including amebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis, and tapeworm infection. It is a first-line treatment for amebiasis or giardiasis during pregnancy. Otherwise it is generally a second line treatment option. It is used by mouth, applied to the skin, or by injection into a muscle.
Question 10 of 237
Q.10 Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-
- Nematodes
- Cestodes
- Trematodes
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Cestodes
Explanation: Niclosamide is a tenacide in the antihelmintic family especially effective against cestodes.
Question 11 of 237
Q.11 Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?
- Amantadine
- Idoxuridine
- Acyclovir
- Haymycin
Answer ✔ (d) Haymycin
Explanation: Haymycin is a polyene antimycotic agent.
Question 12 of 237
Q.12 Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-
- Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
- Inhibiting protein synthesis
- Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
Explanation: Amphotericin B id often used for treatment of systemic fungal nfections.
Question 13 of 237
Q.13 Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-
- Penicillin
- Cephalosporin
- Sulphonamides
- Erythromycin
Answer ✔ (c) Sulphonamides
Explanation: Stevens- Johnson syndrom affects the skin and mucus membrane and these is the common side effects of sulphonamides.
Question 14 of 237
Q.14 Penicillinase resistance penicillin include-
- Penicillin G
- Penicillin V
- Cloxacilline
- Ampicilline
Answer ✔ (c) Cloxacilline
Explanation: Cloxacillin used against staphylococci that produce β- lactamase.
Question 15 of 237
Q.15 Which one of the antibacterial agent is effective against typhoid fever?
- Chloramphenicol
- Penicillin
- Teracycline
- Sulphathiazole
Answer ✔ (a) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Typhoid fever is also called pathogenic fever. Chloramphenicol is a second line agent in the treatment of tetracycline resistant cholera.
Question 16 of 237
Q.16 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-
- Tryptophan
- 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid
- 5-hydroxytryptamine
- Indole
Answer ✔ (c) 5-hydroxytryptamine
Explanation: On decarboxylation, 5-HT gives 5-Hydroxtryptamine (serotonin).
Question 17 of 237
Q.17 Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-
- CNS stimulant
- Vasoconstriction
- Increase in blood pressure
- Release of histamine
Answer ✔ (a) CNS stimulant
Explanation: Morphine is an opiod analgesic, it acts directly on the CNS.
Question 18 of 237
Q.18 Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-
- Atenolol
- Atorvastatin
- Propranalol
- Digoxin
Answer ✔ (b) Atorvastatin
Explanation: Atorvastatin is primarily used for lowering blood cholesterol for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Question 19 of 237
Q.19 Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-
- Tuberculosis
- Diarrhoea
- inflammation and boils
- Leprosy
Answer ✔ (c) inflammation and boils
Explanation: Inchthamol is used for treating some skin disease including eczema and psoriasis.
Question 20 of 237
Q.20 Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-
- Cytosine nucleoside
- Guanosine nucleoside
- Thymidine nucleoside
- Adenine nucleoside
Answer ✔ (b) Guanosine nucleoside
Explanation: Famciclovir is used for the treatment of various herpes virus infections, most commonly for herpes zoster.
Question 21 of 237
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Question 22 of 237
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Question 23 of 237
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Question 24 of 237
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Question 25 of 237
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Question 26 of 237
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Question 27 of 237
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 28 of 237
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Question 29 of 237
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Question 30 of 237
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Question 31 of 237
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Question 32 of 237
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Question 33 of 237
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 34 of 237
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Question 35 of 237
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Question 36 of 237
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Question 37 of 237
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Question 38 of 237
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Question 39 of 237
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Question 40 of 237
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Question 41 of 237
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Question 42 of 237
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
Question 43 of 237
Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Question 44 of 237
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Question 45 of 237
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Question 46 of 237
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Question 47 of 237
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Question 48 of 237
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Question 49 of 237
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Question 50 of 237
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Question 51 of 237
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Question 52 of 237
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Question 53 of 237
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Question 54 of 237
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Question 55 of 237
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Question 56 of 237
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Question 57 of 237
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 58 of 237
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Question 59 of 237
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Question 60 of 237
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Question 61 of 237
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Question 62 of 237
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Question 63 of 237
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 64 of 237
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Question 65 of 237
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Question 66 of 237
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Question 67 of 237
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Question 68 of 237
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Question 69 of 237
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Question 70 of 237
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Question 71 of 237
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Question 72 of 237
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
Question 73 of 237
Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Question 74 of 237
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Question 75 of 237
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Question 76 of 237
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Question 77 of 237
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Question 78 of 237
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Question 79 of 237
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Question 80 of 237
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Question 81 of 237
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Question 82 of 237
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Question 83 of 237
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Question 84 of 237
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Question 85 of 237
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Question 86 of 237
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Question 87 of 237
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 88 of 237
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Question 89 of 237
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Question 90 of 237
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Question 91 of 237
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Question 92 of 237
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Question 93 of 237
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 94 of 237
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Question 95 of 237
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Question 96 of 237
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Question 97 of 237
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Question 98 of 237
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Question 99 of 237
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Question 100 of 237
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Question 101 of 237
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Question 102 of 237
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
Question 103 of 237
Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Question 104 of 237
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Question 105 of 237
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Question 106 of 237
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Question 107 of 237
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Question 108 of 237
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Question 109 of 237
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Question 110 of 237
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Question 111 of 237
Q.1 Pharmacokinetic deals with the study of:
- Rate of metabolism of drug
- Rate of distribution of drug
- Rate of drug action
- Rate of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug
Answer ✔ (d) Rate of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug
Explanation: Pharmacokinetics is the study of the fate of substances administered externally i.e.,ADME
Question 112 of 237
Q.2 Idiosyncratic reaction is related to:
- Clinical pharmacology
- Pharmacogenetics
- Toxicity
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Pharmacogenetics
Explanation: Idiosyncratic reactions occur unpredictably among the population. Examples of drugs showing idiosyncratic reaction include troglitazone, valproate, amiodarone, ketoconazole, disulfiram, and isoniazid
Question 113 of 237
Q.3 Thalidomide, effective in insomnia was discarded due to its :
- Side effect
- Resistance
- Idiosyncratic reaction
- Teratogenic effect
Answer ✔ (d) Teratogenic effect
Explanation: Thalidomide causes malformation of the limb in newborns, called Phocomelia.
Question 114 of 237
Q.4 Oily injection is preferably given by :
- Subcutaneous route
- Intramuscular
- Intravenous
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Intramuscular
Explanation: Oily injections are given in an small volume upto 3ml. Intramuscular route might be applied to the buttock, thigh and deltoid.
Question 115 of 237
Q.5 The main use of eserine is in :
- Urinary retention
- Myasthenia gravis
- Glaucoma
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Glaucoma
Explanation: Serine is also known as 'Physostigmine'. It is naturally occurring alkaloid. Physostigmine increases the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
Question 116 of 237
Q.6 Which one of these is non barbiturate, used for paediatric anaesthesia?
- Nikethamide
- Morphine
- Ketamine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Ketamine
Explanation: Ketamine is a phencyclidine derivative is used as an ideal emergency drug for pediatric anaesthesia and as a pain killer in intensive care.
Question 117 of 237
Q.7 Fortwin is a common brand name for :
- Methadone
- Pentazocine
- Fentanyl
- Dextropropoxyphene
Answer ✔ (b) Pentazocine
Explanation: Pentazocine is a prototypical mixed agonist-antagonist narcotic.
Question 118 of 237
Q.8 Salicylate decreases the synthesis of one of the following
- Bradykinin
- Histamine
- Prostaglandin
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Prostaglandin
Explanation: Postaglandins are the group of compounds derived enzymatically from fatty acids.
Question 119 of 237
Q.9 In, Alcoholism, which one of these drug is used?
- Disulfiram
- Methanol
- Barbituric acid
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Disulfiram
Explanation: Disulfiram blocks the processing of alcohol in the body by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
Question 120 of 237
Q.10 First line drug for tuberculosis unclude :
- Isoniazid + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
- Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
- Isoniazid + Refampin + ethambutol + para amino salicylic acid
- Isoniazid + Cycloserine + ethambutol + pyrazinamide
Answer ✔ (b) Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
Explanation: TB can be treated effectively by using first line drugs (FLD) isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), pyrazinamide (PZA), ethambutol (EMB) and streptomycin (SM)
Question 121 of 237
Q.1 Which one of these is not a cholinergic agonist?
- Acetylcholine
- Muscarine
- Neostigmine
- Pilocarpine
Answer ✔ (c) Neostigmine
Explanation: Neostigmine is a carbamate and a reversible anticholinesterase Drug. its common dose is 15-30mg oral and 0.5 - 2.5 mg s.c./i.m. Myostigmine is it's common brand.
Question 122 of 237
Q.2 Which on of these is not a correct match for drug and classification?
- Hyosine -> Cholinergic drugs
- Hyosine butyl bromide -> Semisynthetic derivatives
- Tropicamide -> Mydriatics
- Flavoxate -> Vasicoselective
Answer ✔ (a) Hyosine -> Cholinergic drugs
Explanation: Hyosine and all of these drugs are anticholinergic drugs and classified further according to their availability and synthesis. Hyosine is a natural alkaloid.
Question 123 of 237
Q.3 Which is the correct classification for Dopamine?
- Bronchodilators
- Pressor agents
- Uterine relaxants
- CNS stimulants
Answer ✔ (b) Pressor agents
Explanation: Dopamine is an Adrenergic drug and classified as a Pressor agent (maintains or increases blood pressor ).
Question 124 of 237
Q.4 'OTRIVIN' is the common brand name for?
- Nephazoline
- Oxymetazoline
- Xylometazoline
- Phenylephrine
Answer ✔ (c) Xylometazoline
Explanation: Xylometazoline and all these drugs are adrenergic nasal decongestants. Otrivin comes in the market as nasal drops and nasal sprays. Common dose : 0.05% (paedriatic) and 0.1% adult.
Question 125 of 237
Q.5 Fexofenadine is __________ antihistaminics.
- Highly sedative
- Moderately sedetive
- Mildly sedative
- non-sedative
Answer ✔ (d) non-sedative
Explanation: Fexofenadine is second generation non sedating antihistaminnics. other examples of this category are : cetrizine, levocetrizine,ebastine ,Loratidine etc.
Question 126 of 237
Q.6 Vasograin is the common drug used for migraine, contains :
- Dihydroergotamine
- Ergotamine
- Codeine
- Propranolol
Answer ✔ (b) Ergotamine
Explanation: Ergotamine is an Ergot alkaloid used to treat migraine attacks.
Question 127 of 237
Q.7 Mephenamic acid is :
- Selectiv COX-2 inhibitor
- Antipiratics-analgesics
- Fenamate non-selective cox-inhibitor
- salicylates non-selective cox-inhibitor
Answer ✔ (c) Fenamate non-selective cox-inhibitor
Question 128 of 237
Q.8 Which one of these is not a mucolytic?
- Bromhexine
- Ambroxol
- Codiene
- Carbocistein
Answer ✔ (c) Codiene
Explanation: Codiene is a opiods Antitussive (Cough center suppressants)
Question 129 of 237
Q.9 Which of these Anterior Pituitary hormones are not release from Basophil cells?
- Luteinising hormone (LH)
- Growth Hormone (GH)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Answer ✔ (b) Growth Hormone (GH)
Explanation: Growth Hormone and Prolectin are released from acidophil cells.
Question 130 of 237
Q.10 Which one of these is not a Glucocorticoid?
- Hydrocortisone
- Prednisolon
- Aldosterone
- dexamethasone
Answer ✔ (c) Aldosterone
Explanation: Aldosterone is a Mineralocorticoid.
Question 131 of 237
Q.11 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are:
- Theophylline
- Theobromine
- Caffeine
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine acts as a CNS stimulant.
Question 132 of 237
Q.1 Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:
- Sterility test
- Active ingredient
- Clarity test
- Pyrogen test
Answer ✔ (d) Pyrogen test
Explanation: Ophthalmic solutions are evaluated for Sterility, Clarity and Active ingredients not for Pyrogen testing
Question 133 of 237
Q.2 Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form
- Diclofenace
- Nicotine
- Carbamazepine
- Fentanyl
Answer ✔ (c) Carbamazepine
Explanation: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug and not suitable for controlled release dosage form
Question 134 of 237
Q.3 Kries test is related to
- Skin sensitivity studies
- Identification test of resin
- Rancidity index
- Identification test of aloin
Answer ✔ (c) Rancidity index
Explanation: Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.
Question 135 of 237
Q.4 Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to
- Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
- Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
- Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
- Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory
Answer ✔ (a) Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
Explanation: Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first line medication for treatment of tuberculosis.
Question 136 of 237
Q.5 Which one of the following drug's tablet should be stored in the closely tight container to prevent loss of potency?
- Phenytoin
- Propranolol
- Nitroglycerine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Nitroglycerine
Explanation: nitroglycerine is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid most commonly produced by treating glycerol with white fuming nitric acid. It should be protected form light and air exposure.
Question 137 of 237
Q.6 Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is
- Nordiazepam
- Oxazepam
- Demoxipam
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Demoxipam
Explanation: Demoxipam is a benzodiazipine derivative. it has anticonvulsant properties.
Question 138 of 237
Q.7 Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the
- Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
- Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
- Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
- Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis
Answer ✔ (c) Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
Explanation: Aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus (lemon grass) are used in soaps, beauty products, insect repellents etc.
Question 139 of 237
Q.8 Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of
- Obsessive-compulsive disorders
- Schizophrenia
- Anxiety
- Mania
Answer ✔ (c) Anxiety
Question 140 of 237
Q.9 Praracetamol is a derivative of:
- p-amino phenol
- Aryl acetic acid
- Aryl propionic acid
- Anthranilic acid
Answer ✔ (a) p-amino phenol
Question 141 of 237
Q.10 Efficiency of ball mill depends on
- Rotational speed
- Density of balls
- Volume occupied by the balls
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 142 of 237
Q.11 Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation
- Flow properties
- Chemical stability
- Therapeutic effectiveness
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 143 of 237
Q.12 The phosphate antiviral agent is
- Ribavirin
- Didanosine
- Ganciclovir
- Foscarnet
Answer ✔ (d) Foscarnet
Question 144 of 237
Q.13 side effect of drugs is arise due to its intraction to cellular molucules other than the target. these effect can be minimized by their:
- specificity
- Solubility
- Affinity
- Hydrophobicity
Answer ✔ (a) specificity
Question 145 of 237
Q.14 Which statement is not correct about levodopa?
- In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
- It is a prodrug
- Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
- Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Answer ✔ (d) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Question 146 of 237
Q.15 Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is
- Ethyle cellulose
- cellulose acetate
- cellulose nitrate
- cellulose acetobutyrate
Answer ✔ (c) cellulose nitrate
Question 147 of 237
Q.16 Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?
- Phosphoramide mustard
- Acrolein
- Aldophosphamide
- 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide
Answer ✔ (a) Phosphoramide mustard
Question 148 of 237
Q.17 The pH of tears is about
- 6.0
- 8.0
- 7.4
- 9.0
Answer ✔ (c) 7.4
Question 149 of 237
Q.18 Food poisoning is caused by :
- Clostridium tetani
- Clostridium welchi
- Clostridium botulinium
- Clostridium septicum
Answer ✔ (c) Clostridium botulinium
Question 150 of 237
Q.19 Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?
- Horse
- Pigeon
- Rabbit
- Chicken
Answer ✔ (c) Rabbit
Question 151 of 237
Q.20 Geiger muller counter is used in :
- UV specroscopy
- Ionisation methods
- IR spectroscopy
- NMR spectroscopy
Answer ✔ (b) Ionisation methods
Question 152 of 237
Q.21 Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by
- Trihexyphenidyl
- Levodopa
- Selegiline
- Amantadine
Answer ✔ (a) Trihexyphenidyl
Question 153 of 237
Q.22 As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to
- Schedule L
- Shedule X
- Shedule R
- Shedule O
Answer ✔ (b) Shedule X
Question 154 of 237
Q.23 Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of
- Pinus leaf
- Peppermint leaf
- Clove buds
- Rose marry
Answer ✔ (b) Peppermint leaf
Question 155 of 237
Q.24 The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a
- Primary amine
- Secondary amines
- Tertiary amines
- Quarternary amines
Answer ✔ (b) Secondary amines
Question 156 of 237
Q.25 Hardness of water is expressed in
- mL
- Dynes
- ppm
- Mhos
Answer ✔ (c) ppm
Question 157 of 237
Q.26 Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by
- Gas
- Moist heat
- Radiation
- Dry heat
Answer ✔ (c) Radiation
Question 158 of 237
Q.27 Chlorophyll test is positive in
- Male fern
- Clove
- Rhubarb
- Pale catechu
Answer ✔ (d) Pale catechu
Question 159 of 237
Q.28 Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may
- Increases the toxicity
- Decreases bitterness
- Decreses potency
- Increases water solubility
Answer ✔ (c) Decreses potency
Question 160 of 237
Q.29 A process of sepration of molecules through the use of semi-permeable membrane is known as
- Osmosis
- Dialysis
- Seiving
- Diffusion
Answer ✔ (b) Dialysis
Question 161 of 237
Q.30 Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet
- Deaggregation
- Diffusion
- Disintegration
- Dissolutuin
Answer ✔ (c) Disintegration
Question 162 of 237
Q.31 Fenbufen is used in
- TB
- Plague
- Dengu
- Inflammation
Answer ✔ (d) Inflammation
Question 163 of 237
Q.32 The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of
- Honey
- Canthrites
- Shellac
- Colchicine
Answer ✔ (b) Canthrites
Question 164 of 237
Q.33 Tragacanth in water is associated with
- Plastic flow
- Pseudoplatic flow
- Dialatant flow
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Pseudoplatic flow
Question 165 of 237
Q.34 Antioxidants are added in lipstics to
- Impart pleasant ordour
- Staining of lips
- Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
- Prevent rancidity
Answer ✔ (d) Prevent rancidity
Question 166 of 237
Q.35 Borntrager test is used to identification of
- Senna
- Squill
- Cinchona
- Digitalis
Answer ✔ (a) Senna
Question 167 of 237
Q.36 Plasma protiens act as
- Reserve protiens
- Immunoglobulins
- Buffers
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Buffers
Question 168 of 237
Q.37 Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ
- Brain
- Liver
- Skeletal muscle
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (b) Liver
Question 169 of 237
Q.38 An example of protien denaturation is
- Dissolving sugar in water
- Metabolism of meat
- Heating milk
- Heating egg
Answer ✔ (d) Heating egg
Question 170 of 237
Q.39 An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as
- Isomerases
- Transferases
- Hydrolysases
- Oxydoreductases
Answer ✔ (a) Isomerases
Question 171 of 237
Q.40 The constituent of essential oil is
- Polyterpenoid
- Tetraterpenoid
- mono and sesquiterpenoid
- Triterpenoid
Answer ✔ (c) mono and sesquiterpenoid
Question 172 of 237
Q.41 Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?
- Hydralazine and atenolol
- Metochlopramide and levodopa
- Quinidine and digoxine
- Furosemide and lithium carbonate
Answer ✔ (a) Hydralazine and atenolol
Explanation: hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker
Question 173 of 237
Q.42 Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of
- Purine
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Pyrimidine
Answer ✔ (a) Purine
Question 174 of 237
Q.43 Active immunity is induced by
- Placental transfer of antibodies
- Infection
- Injection of gamma-globulins
- Injection of antibodies
Answer ✔ (b) Infection
Question 175 of 237
Q.44 HIV infection can be clinical controlled with
- Ribavirin
- Ganciclovir
- Stavudine
- Acyclovir
Answer ✔ (c) Stavudine
Explanation: stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor
Question 176 of 237
Q.45 An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is
- Lidocain
- Disipyramide
- Phenytoin
- Amiodarone
Answer ✔ (c) Phenytoin
Question 177 of 237
Q.46 Drug of choice for thyroid storm is
- Carbimazole
- Radioactive iodine
- Propyl thiouracil
- Centimizone
Answer ✔ (c) Propyl thiouracil
Explanation: Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.
Question 178 of 237
Q.47 The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are
- Lysosomes
- Nucleolus
- Ribosomes
- Golgi's bodies
Answer ✔ (a) Lysosomes
Question 179 of 237
Q.48 The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is
- Propranolol
- Prazocine
- Dexamphetamine
- Diazepam
Answer ✔ (c) Dexamphetamine
Question 180 of 237
Q.49 Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year
- 1985
- 1996
- 2007
- 2015
Answer ✔ (c) 2007
Question 181 of 237
Q.50 List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule
- M
- N
- A
- R
Answer ✔ (b) N
Question 182 of 237
Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:
- Is more painful
- Produces faster response
- Is unsuitable for depot preparations
- Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Answer ✔ (b) Produces faster response
Question 183 of 237
Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by
- Passive diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Pinocytosis
Answer ✔ (a) Passive diffusion
Question 184 of 237
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach
- Hyoscine hydrobromide
- Morphine sulfate
- Diclofenac sodium
- Quinine dihydrochloride
Answer ✔ (c) Diclofenac sodium
Question 185 of 237
Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
- Nature of the base used in the formulation
- Lipid solubility of the drug
- Molecular weight of the drug
- Site of application
Answer ✔ (b) Lipid solubility of the drug
Question 186 of 237
Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
- Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
- Is incompletely absorbed
- Is freely water soluble
- Is completely absorbed
Answer ✔ (b) Is incompletely absorbed
Question 187 of 237
Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of
- Highly plasma protein bound drugs
- Depot preparations
- Highly lipid soluble drugs
- Poorly lipid soluble drugs
Answer ✔ (c) Highly lipid soluble drugs
Question 188 of 237
Q.7 High plasma protein binding
- Increases volume of distribution of the drug
- Generally makes the drug long acting
- Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
- Minimises drug interactions
Answer ✔ (b) Generally makes the drug long acting
Question 189 of 237
Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug
- Enalapril
- Menapril
- Thiazine
- Penicillin
Answer ✔ (a) Enalapril
Question 190 of 237
Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of
- Tolerance
- Physical dependence
- Psychological dependence
- Idiosyncrasy
Answer ✔ (a) Tolerance
Question 191 of 237
Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
- Plasma protein binding
- Lipid solubility
- Degree of ionization
- Rate of tubular secretion
Answer ✔ (a) Plasma protein binding
Question 192 of 237
Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves
- Sweat glands
- Ciliary muscle
- Iris muscles
- Splenic capsule
Answer ✔ (b) Ciliary muscle
Question 193 of 237
Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut
- Nitric oxide (NO)
- Adenosine
- Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
- Kallidin
Answer ✔ (d) Kallidin
Question 194 of 237
Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site
- Neuromuscular junction
- Postganglionic parasympathetic
- Adrenal medulla
- Autonomic ganglia
Answer ✔ (b) Postganglionic parasympathetic
Question 195 of 237
Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is
- Bethanechol
- Butyrylcholine
- Methacholine
- Benzoylcholine
Answer ✔ (a) Bethanechol
Question 196 of 237
Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is
- Colon
- Gastric fundus
- Bladder trigone
- Major bronchi
Answer ✔ (c) Bladder trigone
Question 197 of 237
Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for
- Glaucoma
- Paralytic ileus
- Urinary retention
- Infection
Answer ✔ (a) Glaucoma
Question 198 of 237
Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme
- Neostigmine
- Edrophonium
- Physostigmine
- Dyflos
Answer ✔ (b) Edrophonium
Question 199 of 237
Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase
- Edrophonium
- Dyflos
- Tacrine
- Neostigmine
Answer ✔ (d) Neostigmine
Question 200 of 237
Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that
- It produces less muscarinic side effects
- It is more potent orally
- It is longer acting
- It does not have any direct action on NM receptor
Answer ✔ (c) It is longer acting
Question 201 of 237
Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is
- Canal of Schlemm
- Ciliary body
- Ciliary muscle
- Sphincter pupillae muscle
Answer ✔ (d) Sphincter pupillae muscle
Question 202 of 237
Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
Question 203 of 237
Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
Question 204 of 237
Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
Question 205 of 237
Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
Question 206 of 237
Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
Question 207 of 237
Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
Question 208 of 237
Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
Question 209 of 237
Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
Question 210 of 237
Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
Question 211 of 237
Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
Question 212 of 237
Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
Question 213 of 237
Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
Question 214 of 237
Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
Question 215 of 237
Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
Question 216 of 237
Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
Question 217 of 237
Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
Question 218 of 237
Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
Question 219 of 237
Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
Question 220 of 237
Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
Question 221 of 237
Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
Question 222 of 237
Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
Question 223 of 237
Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
Question 224 of 237
Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
Question 225 of 237
Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
Question 226 of 237
Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
Question 227 of 237
Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
Question 228 of 237
Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
Question 229 of 237
Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
Question 230 of 237
Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
Question 231 of 237
Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
Question 232 of 237
Q.1 The following are excreted faster in basicurine
- Weak acids
- Strong acids
- Weak Bases
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Weak acids
Explanation:
Question 233 of 237
Q.2 A good example of chemical antagonism
- Heparin & Protamine
- Protamine & Zinc
- Heparin & Prothrombin
- All the above
Answer ✔ (a) Heparin & Protamine
Explanation: Chemical antagonism does not involve any receptors. Protamine is a positively charged protein at physiological pH and thus antagonizes the effects of Heparin which is negatively charged at physiological pH.
Question 234 of 237
Q.3 Active transport differs from facilitated transport in following ways, except
- Carrier is involved
- It is against concentration gradient
- Energy is required
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Carrier is involved
Explanation: Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport in that it does not require energy source and it carries the transport in the direction of electrochemical gradient.
Question 235 of 237
Q.4 Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma
- Albumin
- acid glycoprotein
- Weak acids
- Heparin & Protamine
Answer ✔ (a) Albumin
Explanation: Glycoprotein binds to basic drugs and albumin binds to many acidic drugs and a small number of basic drugs.
Question 236 of 237
Q.5 _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.
- CYP378A
- CYP4B2
- CYP3A4
- CYP256
Answer ✔ (a) CYP378A
Explanation: CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of majority of drugs and is also expressed extrahepatically. In fact, poor bioavailability of many drugs is attributed to the drug metabolism by CYP3A4 in gastrointestinal tract.
Question 237 of 237
Q.6 N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except
- Dapsone
- Meperidine
- Phenytoin
- Chlorpheniramine
Answer ✔ (c) Phenytoin
Explanation: N-oxidation is involved in the metabolism of dapsone, meperidine and chloramphenicol. Metabolism of phenytoin involves oxidative Ndealkylation.
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