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Pharmacology One Liners
Pharmacist Exams revision: Pharmacology Chapter 1 - Important One Liner questions
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General Pharmacology questions (one Liners)
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Revision of Pharmacology, some basic points (one liners)
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Autonomic Nervous System.
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TYPES OF CANCER
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Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy Important Questions (one liners)
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Pharmacology Practice MCQs
1 of 237
Q.1 Alupent is common brand name for-
- Isoprenaline
- Phenylephrine
- Orciprenaline
- Terbutaline
Answer ✔ (b) Phenylephrine
Explanation: Orciprenaline is also known as metaproterenol, is a bronchodilator.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
2 of 237
Q.2 Which of these hypnotic possess a muscle relaxant property?
- Paraldehyde
- Phenobarbitone
- Barbitone
- Diazepam
Answer ✔ (d) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam possesses anticonvulasant and skeletal muscle relaxant activity.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
3 of 237
Q.3 Paracetamol is excreted as-
- Glucuronide
- Deacetylated product
- Hydroxy derivatives
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Glucuronide
Explanation: Paracetamol is metabolised in the liver (90-95%) and?excreted?in the urine mainly as the glucuronide and sulphate conjugates. less than 5% is excreted as unchanged paracetamol.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
4 of 237
Q.4 Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-
- α - receptor
- α and β receptor
- β receptor
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) β receptor
Explanation: Ephinephrine is also known as adrenaline hormone and neurotransmitter. Cardiovascular action of epinephrine is mediated through β receptor.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
5 of 237
Q.5 Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-
- Genetic variation
- Idiosyncracy
- Teratogenic effect
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic variation
Explanation: Isoniazid is given in the treatment of TB. Also known as isonicotinylhydrazine. In Africans Metabolism of Isoniazid is slow due genetic variations.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
6 of 237
Q.6 Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-
- inhibiting the enzyme
- blocking the receptor
- acting on cell membrane
- non-specific drug action
Answer ✔ (c) acting on cell membrane
Explanation: Phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative, class 1B anti-arrythmic. It act on cell membrane by sodium channel blockade.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
7 of 237
Q.7 Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-
- sublingual route
- Oral route
- Intravenous route
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual route
Explanation: Isosorbide Dinitrate is used to prevent chest pain (angina attacks). It works by relaxing and widening blood vessels so blood can flow more easily to the heart. These tablets will not treat an angina attack that has already begun. They may be also used to control heart failure. generally taken as sublingual route (below the tongue) for quick absorption and action in emergency.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
8 of 237
Q.8 Methotrexate is a -
- Enzyme inhibitor
- Receptor blocker
- Alkylating agent
- Anti-metabolic
Answer ✔ (d) Anti-metabolic
Explanation: Methotrexate is used in cancer, autoimmune diseases and ectopic pregnancy.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
9 of 237
Q.9 Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?
- Tetracycline
- Bacitracin
- Paramomycin
- tobramycin
Answer ✔ (c) Paramomycin
Explanation: Paromomycin is an antimicrobial used to treat a number of parasitic infections including amebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis, and tapeworm infection. It is a first-line treatment for amebiasis or giardiasis during pregnancy. Otherwise it is generally a second line treatment option. It is used by mouth, applied to the skin, or by injection into a muscle.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
10 of 237
Q.10 Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-
- Nematodes
- Cestodes
- Trematodes
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Cestodes
Explanation: Niclosamide is a tenacide in the antihelmintic family especially effective against cestodes.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
11 of 237
Q.11 Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?
- Amantadine
- Idoxuridine
- Acyclovir
- Haymycin
Answer ✔ (d) Haymycin
Explanation: Haymycin is a polyene antimycotic agent.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
12 of 237
Q.12 Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-
- Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
- Inhibiting protein synthesis
- Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
Explanation: Amphotericin B id often used for treatment of systemic fungal nfections.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
13 of 237
Q.13 Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-
- Penicillin
- Cephalosporin
- Sulphonamides
- Erythromycin
Answer ✔ (c) Sulphonamides
Explanation: Stevens- Johnson syndrom affects the skin and mucus membrane and these is the common side effects of sulphonamides.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
14 of 237
Q.14 Penicillinase resistance penicillin include-
- Penicillin G
- Penicillin V
- Cloxacilline
- Ampicilline
Answer ✔ (c) Cloxacilline
Explanation: Cloxacillin used against staphylococci that produce β- lactamase.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
15 of 237
Q.15 Which one of the antibacterial agent is effective against typhoid fever?
- Chloramphenicol
- Penicillin
- Teracycline
- Sulphathiazole
Answer ✔ (a) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Typhoid fever is also called pathogenic fever. Chloramphenicol is a second line agent in the treatment of tetracycline resistant cholera.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
16 of 237
Q.16 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-
- Tryptophan
- 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid
- 5-hydroxytryptamine
- Indole
Answer ✔ (c) 5-hydroxytryptamine
Explanation: On decarboxylation, 5-HT gives 5-Hydroxtryptamine (serotonin).
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
17 of 237
Q.17 Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-
- CNS stimulant
- Vasoconstriction
- Increase in blood pressure
- Release of histamine
Answer ✔ (a) CNS stimulant
Explanation: Morphine is an opiod analgesic, it acts directly on the CNS.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
18 of 237
Q.18 Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-
- Atenolol
- Atorvastatin
- Propranalol
- Digoxin
Answer ✔ (b) Atorvastatin
Explanation: Atorvastatin is primarily used for lowering blood cholesterol for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
19 of 237
Q.19 Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-
- Tuberculosis
- Diarrhoea
- inflammation and boils
- Leprosy
Answer ✔ (c) inflammation and boils
Explanation: Inchthamol is used for treating some skin disease including eczema and psoriasis.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
20 of 237
Q.20 Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-
- Cytosine nucleoside
- Guanosine nucleoside
- Thymidine nucleoside
- Adenine nucleoside
Answer ✔ (b) Guanosine nucleoside
Explanation: Famciclovir is used for the treatment of various herpes virus infections, most commonly for herpes zoster.
Pharmacology • D. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy • Diploma in Pharmacy
21 of 237
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
22 of 237
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
23 of 237
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
24 of 237
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
25 of 237
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
26 of 237
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
27 of 237
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
28 of 237
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
29 of 237
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
30 of 237
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
31 of 237
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
32 of 237
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
33 of 237
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
34 of 237
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
35 of 237
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
36 of 237
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
37 of 237
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
38 of 237
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
39 of 237
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
40 of 237
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
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41 of 237
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
42 of 237
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
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Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
44 of 237
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
45 of 237
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
46 of 237
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
47 of 237
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
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48 of 237
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
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49 of 237
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
50 of 237
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
51 of 237
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
52 of 237
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
53 of 237
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
54 of 237
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
55 of 237
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
56 of 237
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
57 of 237
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
58 of 237
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
59 of 237
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
60 of 237
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
61 of 237
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
62 of 237
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
63 of 237
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
64 of 237
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
65 of 237
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
66 of 237
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
67 of 237
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
68 of 237
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
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Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
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Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
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Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
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Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
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Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
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Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
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Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
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Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
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Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
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Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
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Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
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Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
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Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
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Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
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Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
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Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
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Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
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Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
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Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
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Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
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Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
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Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
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Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
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Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
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Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
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Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
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Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
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Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
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Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
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Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
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Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
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Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Pharmacy • Pharmacology • Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • General Pharmacology • General Pharmacology
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Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
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Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
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Q.1 Pharmacokinetic deals with the study of:
- Rate of metabolism of drug
- Rate of distribution of drug
- Rate of drug action
- Rate of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug
Answer ✔ (d) Rate of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug
Explanation: Pharmacokinetics is the study of the fate of substances administered externally i.e.,ADME
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Q.2 Idiosyncratic reaction is related to:
- Clinical pharmacology
- Pharmacogenetics
- Toxicity
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Pharmacogenetics
Explanation: Idiosyncratic reactions occur unpredictably among the population. Examples of drugs showing idiosyncratic reaction include troglitazone, valproate, amiodarone, ketoconazole, disulfiram, and isoniazid
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Q.3 Thalidomide, effective in insomnia was discarded due to its :
- Side effect
- Resistance
- Idiosyncratic reaction
- Teratogenic effect
Answer ✔ (d) Teratogenic effect
Explanation: Thalidomide causes malformation of the limb in newborns, called Phocomelia.
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Q.4 Oily injection is preferably given by :
- Subcutaneous route
- Intramuscular
- Intravenous
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Intramuscular
Explanation: Oily injections are given in an small volume upto 3ml. Intramuscular route might be applied to the buttock, thigh and deltoid.
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Q.5 The main use of eserine is in :
- Urinary retention
- Myasthenia gravis
- Glaucoma
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Glaucoma
Explanation: Serine is also known as 'Physostigmine'. It is naturally occurring alkaloid. Physostigmine increases the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
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Q.6 Which one of these is non barbiturate, used for paediatric anaesthesia?
- Nikethamide
- Morphine
- Ketamine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Ketamine
Explanation: Ketamine is a phencyclidine derivative is used as an ideal emergency drug for pediatric anaesthesia and as a pain killer in intensive care.
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Q.7 Fortwin is a common brand name for :
- Methadone
- Pentazocine
- Fentanyl
- Dextropropoxyphene
Answer ✔ (b) Pentazocine
Explanation: Pentazocine is a prototypical mixed agonist-antagonist narcotic.
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Q.8 Salicylate decreases the synthesis of one of the following
- Bradykinin
- Histamine
- Prostaglandin
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Prostaglandin
Explanation: Postaglandins are the group of compounds derived enzymatically from fatty acids.
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Q.9 In, Alcoholism, which one of these drug is used?
- Disulfiram
- Methanol
- Barbituric acid
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Disulfiram
Explanation: Disulfiram blocks the processing of alcohol in the body by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
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Q.10 First line drug for tuberculosis unclude :
- Isoniazid + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
- Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
- Isoniazid + Refampin + ethambutol + para amino salicylic acid
- Isoniazid + Cycloserine + ethambutol + pyrazinamide
Answer ✔ (b) Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
Explanation: TB can be treated effectively by using first line drugs (FLD) isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), pyrazinamide (PZA), ethambutol (EMB) and streptomycin (SM)
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Q.1 Which one of these is not a cholinergic agonist?
- Acetylcholine
- Muscarine
- Neostigmine
- Pilocarpine
Answer ✔ (c) Neostigmine
Explanation: Neostigmine is a carbamate and a reversible anticholinesterase Drug. its common dose is 15-30mg oral and 0.5 - 2.5 mg s.c./i.m. Myostigmine is it's common brand.
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Q.2 Which on of these is not a correct match for drug and classification?
- Hyosine -> Cholinergic drugs
- Hyosine butyl bromide -> Semisynthetic derivatives
- Tropicamide -> Mydriatics
- Flavoxate -> Vasicoselective
Answer ✔ (a) Hyosine -> Cholinergic drugs
Explanation: Hyosine and all of these drugs are anticholinergic drugs and classified further according to their availability and synthesis. Hyosine is a natural alkaloid.
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Q.3 Which is the correct classification for Dopamine?
- Bronchodilators
- Pressor agents
- Uterine relaxants
- CNS stimulants
Answer ✔ (b) Pressor agents
Explanation: Dopamine is an Adrenergic drug and classified as a Pressor agent (maintains or increases blood pressor ).
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Q.4 'OTRIVIN' is the common brand name for?
- Nephazoline
- Oxymetazoline
- Xylometazoline
- Phenylephrine
Answer ✔ (c) Xylometazoline
Explanation: Xylometazoline and all these drugs are adrenergic nasal decongestants. Otrivin comes in the market as nasal drops and nasal sprays. Common dose : 0.05% (paedriatic) and 0.1% adult.
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Q.5 Fexofenadine is __________ antihistaminics.
- Highly sedative
- Moderately sedetive
- Mildly sedative
- non-sedative
Answer ✔ (d) non-sedative
Explanation: Fexofenadine is second generation non sedating antihistaminnics. other examples of this category are : cetrizine, levocetrizine,ebastine ,Loratidine etc.
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Q.6 Vasograin is the common drug used for migraine, contains :
- Dihydroergotamine
- Ergotamine
- Codeine
- Propranolol
Answer ✔ (b) Ergotamine
Explanation: Ergotamine is an Ergot alkaloid used to treat migraine attacks.
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Q.7 Mephenamic acid is :
- Selectiv COX-2 inhibitor
- Antipiratics-analgesics
- Fenamate non-selective cox-inhibitor
- salicylates non-selective cox-inhibitor
Answer ✔ (c) Fenamate non-selective cox-inhibitor
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Q.8 Which one of these is not a mucolytic?
- Bromhexine
- Ambroxol
- Codiene
- Carbocistein
Answer ✔ (c) Codiene
Explanation: Codiene is a opiods Antitussive (Cough center suppressants)
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Q.9 Which of these Anterior Pituitary hormones are not release from Basophil cells?
- Luteinising hormone (LH)
- Growth Hormone (GH)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Answer ✔ (b) Growth Hormone (GH)
Explanation: Growth Hormone and Prolectin are released from acidophil cells.
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Q.10 Which one of these is not a Glucocorticoid?
- Hydrocortisone
- Prednisolon
- Aldosterone
- dexamethasone
Answer ✔ (c) Aldosterone
Explanation: Aldosterone is a Mineralocorticoid.
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Q.11 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are:
- Theophylline
- Theobromine
- Caffeine
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine acts as a CNS stimulant.
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Q.1 Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:
- Sterility test
- Active ingredient
- Clarity test
- Pyrogen test
Answer ✔ (d) Pyrogen test
Explanation: Ophthalmic solutions are evaluated for Sterility, Clarity and Active ingredients not for Pyrogen testing
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Q.2 Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form
- Diclofenace
- Nicotine
- Carbamazepine
- Fentanyl
Answer ✔ (c) Carbamazepine
Explanation: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug and not suitable for controlled release dosage form
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Q.3 Kries test is related to
- Skin sensitivity studies
- Identification test of resin
- Rancidity index
- Identification test of aloin
Answer ✔ (c) Rancidity index
Explanation: Kries test refers to the spoilage of food such a way that it becomes undesirable for consumption.
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Q.4 Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to
- Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
- Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
- Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
- Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory
Answer ✔ (a) Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
Explanation: Isoniazid is an organic compound that is the first line medication for treatment of tuberculosis.
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Q.5 Which one of the following drug's tablet should be stored in the closely tight container to prevent loss of potency?
- Phenytoin
- Propranolol
- Nitroglycerine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Nitroglycerine
Explanation: nitroglycerine is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid most commonly produced by treating glycerol with white fuming nitric acid. It should be protected form light and air exposure.
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Q.6 Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is
- Nordiazepam
- Oxazepam
- Demoxipam
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Demoxipam
Explanation: Demoxipam is a benzodiazipine derivative. it has anticonvulsant properties.
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Q.7 Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the
- Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
- Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
- Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
- Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis
Answer ✔ (c) Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
Explanation: Aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus (lemon grass) are used in soaps, beauty products, insect repellents etc.
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Q.8 Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of
- Obsessive-compulsive disorders
- Schizophrenia
- Anxiety
- Mania
Answer ✔ (c) Anxiety
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Q.9 Praracetamol is a derivative of:
- p-amino phenol
- Aryl acetic acid
- Aryl propionic acid
- Anthranilic acid
Answer ✔ (a) p-amino phenol
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Q.10 Efficiency of ball mill depends on
- Rotational speed
- Density of balls
- Volume occupied by the balls
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.11 Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation
- Flow properties
- Chemical stability
- Therapeutic effectiveness
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.12 The phosphate antiviral agent is
- Ribavirin
- Didanosine
- Ganciclovir
- Foscarnet
Answer ✔ (d) Foscarnet
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Q.13 side effect of drugs is arise due to its intraction to cellular molucules other than the target. these effect can be minimized by their:
- specificity
- Solubility
- Affinity
- Hydrophobicity
Answer ✔ (a) specificity
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Q.14 Which statement is not correct about levodopa?
- In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
- It is a prodrug
- Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
- Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
Answer ✔ (d) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential
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Q.15 Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is
- Ethyle cellulose
- cellulose acetate
- cellulose nitrate
- cellulose acetobutyrate
Answer ✔ (c) cellulose nitrate
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Q.16 Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?
- Phosphoramide mustard
- Acrolein
- Aldophosphamide
- 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide
Answer ✔ (a) Phosphoramide mustard
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Q.17 The pH of tears is about
- 6.0
- 8.0
- 7.4
- 9.0
Answer ✔ (c) 7.4
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Q.18 Food poisoning is caused by :
- Clostridium tetani
- Clostridium welchi
- Clostridium botulinium
- Clostridium septicum
Answer ✔ (c) Clostridium botulinium
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Q.19 Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?
- Horse
- Pigeon
- Rabbit
- Chicken
Answer ✔ (c) Rabbit
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Q.20 Geiger muller counter is used in :
- UV specroscopy
- Ionisation methods
- IR spectroscopy
- NMR spectroscopy
Answer ✔ (b) Ionisation methods
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Q.21 Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by
- Trihexyphenidyl
- Levodopa
- Selegiline
- Amantadine
Answer ✔ (a) Trihexyphenidyl
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Q.22 As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to
- Schedule L
- Shedule X
- Shedule R
- Shedule O
Answer ✔ (b) Shedule X
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Q.23 Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of
- Pinus leaf
- Peppermint leaf
- Clove buds
- Rose marry
Answer ✔ (b) Peppermint leaf
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Q.24 The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a
- Primary amine
- Secondary amines
- Tertiary amines
- Quarternary amines
Answer ✔ (b) Secondary amines
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Q.25 Hardness of water is expressed in
- mL
- Dynes
- ppm
- Mhos
Answer ✔ (c) ppm
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Q.26 Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by
- Gas
- Moist heat
- Radiation
- Dry heat
Answer ✔ (c) Radiation
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Q.27 Chlorophyll test is positive in
- Male fern
- Clove
- Rhubarb
- Pale catechu
Answer ✔ (d) Pale catechu
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Q.28 Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may
- Increases the toxicity
- Decreases bitterness
- Decreses potency
- Increases water solubility
Answer ✔ (c) Decreses potency
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Q.29 A process of sepration of molecules through the use of semi-permeable membrane is known as
- Osmosis
- Dialysis
- Seiving
- Diffusion
Answer ✔ (b) Dialysis
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Q.30 Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet
- Deaggregation
- Diffusion
- Disintegration
- Dissolutuin
Answer ✔ (c) Disintegration
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Q.31 Fenbufen is used in
- TB
- Plague
- Dengu
- Inflammation
Answer ✔ (d) Inflammation
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Q.32 The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of
- Honey
- Canthrites
- Shellac
- Colchicine
Answer ✔ (b) Canthrites
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Q.33 Tragacanth in water is associated with
- Plastic flow
- Pseudoplatic flow
- Dialatant flow
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Pseudoplatic flow
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Q.34 Antioxidants are added in lipstics to
- Impart pleasant ordour
- Staining of lips
- Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
- Prevent rancidity
Answer ✔ (d) Prevent rancidity
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Q.35 Borntrager test is used to identification of
- Senna
- Squill
- Cinchona
- Digitalis
Answer ✔ (a) Senna
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Q.36 Plasma protiens act as
- Reserve protiens
- Immunoglobulins
- Buffers
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Buffers
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Q.37 Ketone bodies are synthesised from the fatty acid oxidisation products by which of the following organ
- Brain
- Liver
- Skeletal muscle
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (b) Liver
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Q.38 An example of protien denaturation is
- Dissolving sugar in water
- Metabolism of meat
- Heating milk
- Heating egg
Answer ✔ (d) Heating egg
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Q.39 An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as
- Isomerases
- Transferases
- Hydrolysases
- Oxydoreductases
Answer ✔ (a) Isomerases
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Q.40 The constituent of essential oil is
- Polyterpenoid
- Tetraterpenoid
- mono and sesquiterpenoid
- Triterpenoid
Answer ✔ (c) mono and sesquiterpenoid
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Q.41 Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?
- Hydralazine and atenolol
- Metochlopramide and levodopa
- Quinidine and digoxine
- Furosemide and lithium carbonate
Answer ✔ (a) Hydralazine and atenolol
Explanation: hydrolazine is vasodilator and atenolol is B-blocker
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Q.42 Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of
- Purine
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Pyrimidine
Answer ✔ (a) Purine
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Q.43 Active immunity is induced by
- Placental transfer of antibodies
- Infection
- Injection of gamma-globulins
- Injection of antibodies
Answer ✔ (b) Infection
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Q.44 HIV infection can be clinical controlled with
- Ribavirin
- Ganciclovir
- Stavudine
- Acyclovir
Answer ✔ (c) Stavudine
Explanation: stavudine is a nucleoside analogue reverse transcripted inhibitor
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Q.45 An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is
- Lidocain
- Disipyramide
- Phenytoin
- Amiodarone
Answer ✔ (c) Phenytoin
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Q.46 Drug of choice for thyroid storm is
- Carbimazole
- Radioactive iodine
- Propyl thiouracil
- Centimizone
Answer ✔ (c) Propyl thiouracil
Explanation: Propyl thiouracil is used to control hyperthyroidism condition.
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Q.47 The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are
- Lysosomes
- Nucleolus
- Ribosomes
- Golgi's bodies
Answer ✔ (a) Lysosomes
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Q.48 The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is
- Propranolol
- Prazocine
- Dexamphetamine
- Diazepam
Answer ✔ (c) Dexamphetamine
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Q.49 Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year
- 1985
- 1996
- 2007
- 2015
Answer ✔ (c) 2007
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Q.50 List of minimum equipements required for efficient running of pharmacy is given in shedule
- M
- N
- A
- R
Answer ✔ (b) N
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Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:
- Is more painful
- Produces faster response
- Is unsuitable for depot preparations
- Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Answer ✔ (b) Produces faster response
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Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by
- Passive diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Pinocytosis
Answer ✔ (a) Passive diffusion
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Directions:
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach
- Hyoscine hydrobromide
- Morphine sulfate
- Diclofenac sodium
- Quinine dihydrochloride
Answer ✔ (c) Diclofenac sodium
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Directions:
Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
- Nature of the base used in the formulation
- Lipid solubility of the drug
- Molecular weight of the drug
- Site of application
Answer ✔ (b) Lipid solubility of the drug
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Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
- Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
- Is incompletely absorbed
- Is freely water soluble
- Is completely absorbed
Answer ✔ (b) Is incompletely absorbed
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Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of
- Highly plasma protein bound drugs
- Depot preparations
- Highly lipid soluble drugs
- Poorly lipid soluble drugs
Answer ✔ (c) Highly lipid soluble drugs
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Q.7 High plasma protein binding
- Increases volume of distribution of the drug
- Generally makes the drug long acting
- Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
- Minimises drug interactions
Answer ✔ (b) Generally makes the drug long acting
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Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug
- Enalapril
- Menapril
- Thiazine
- Penicillin
Answer ✔ (a) Enalapril
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Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of
- Tolerance
- Physical dependence
- Psychological dependence
- Idiosyncrasy
Answer ✔ (a) Tolerance
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Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
- Plasma protein binding
- Lipid solubility
- Degree of ionization
- Rate of tubular secretion
Answer ✔ (a) Plasma protein binding
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Directions:
Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves
- Sweat glands
- Ciliary muscle
- Iris muscles
- Splenic capsule
Answer ✔ (b) Ciliary muscle
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Directions: .
Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut
- Nitric oxide (NO)
- Adenosine
- Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
- Kallidin
Answer ✔ (d) Kallidin
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Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site
- Neuromuscular junction
- Postganglionic parasympathetic
- Adrenal medulla
- Autonomic ganglia
Answer ✔ (b) Postganglionic parasympathetic
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Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is
- Bethanechol
- Butyrylcholine
- Methacholine
- Benzoylcholine
Answer ✔ (a) Bethanechol
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Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is
- Colon
- Gastric fundus
- Bladder trigone
- Major bronchi
Answer ✔ (c) Bladder trigone
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Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for
- Glaucoma
- Paralytic ileus
- Urinary retention
- Infection
Answer ✔ (a) Glaucoma
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Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme
- Neostigmine
- Edrophonium
- Physostigmine
- Dyflos
Answer ✔ (b) Edrophonium
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Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase
- Edrophonium
- Dyflos
- Tacrine
- Neostigmine
Answer ✔ (d) Neostigmine
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Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that
- It produces less muscarinic side effects
- It is more potent orally
- It is longer acting
- It does not have any direct action on NM receptor
Answer ✔ (c) It is longer acting
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Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is
- Canal of Schlemm
- Ciliary body
- Ciliary muscle
- Sphincter pupillae muscle
Answer ✔ (d) Sphincter pupillae muscle
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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
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Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
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Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Post Graduation • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • Diploma in Pharmacy
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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Post Graduation • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • Diploma in Pharmacy
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Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
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Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Post Graduation • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • Diploma in Pharmacy
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Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
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Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
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Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
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Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Pharmacology • Post Graduation • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • Diploma in Pharmacy
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Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
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Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
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Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
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Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
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Q.1 The following are excreted faster in basicurine
- Weak acids
- Strong acids
- Weak Bases
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Weak acids
Explanation:
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Q.2 A good example of chemical antagonism
- Heparin & Protamine
- Protamine & Zinc
- Heparin & Prothrombin
- All the above
Answer ✔ (a) Heparin & Protamine
Explanation: Chemical antagonism does not involve any receptors. Protamine is a positively charged protein at physiological pH and thus antagonizes the effects of Heparin which is negatively charged at physiological pH.
Pharmacology • B. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.3 Active transport differs from facilitated transport in following ways, except
- Carrier is involved
- It is against concentration gradient
- Energy is required
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Carrier is involved
Explanation: Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport in that it does not require energy source and it carries the transport in the direction of electrochemical gradient.
Pharmacology • B. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.4 Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma
- Albumin
- acid glycoprotein
- Weak acids
- Heparin & Protamine
Answer ✔ (a) Albumin
Explanation: Glycoprotein binds to basic drugs and albumin binds to many acidic drugs and a small number of basic drugs.
Pharmacology • B. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.5 _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.
- CYP378A
- CYP4B2
- CYP3A4
- CYP256
Answer ✔ (a) CYP378A
Explanation: CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of majority of drugs and is also expressed extrahepatically. In fact, poor bioavailability of many drugs is attributed to the drug metabolism by CYP3A4 in gastrointestinal tract.
Pharmacology • B. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.6 N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except
- Dapsone
- Meperidine
- Phenytoin
- Chlorpheniramine
Answer ✔ (c) Phenytoin
Explanation: N-oxidation is involved in the metabolism of dapsone, meperidine and chloramphenicol. Metabolism of phenytoin involves oxidative Ndealkylation.
Pharmacology • B. Pharma • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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