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Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during
- late telophase
- late prophase
- early anaphase
- late metaphase
Answer ✔ (b) late prophase
Explanation: Cells, when viewed under microscope at the end of prophase, do not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
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Q.2 Cell plate grows from
- walls to the centre
- centre to the walls
- in patches
- simultaneously
Answer ✔ (b) centre to the walls
Explanation: Cell plate grows during cytokinesis from centre to the walls
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Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles
- C, A, B, D
- C, B, A, D
- C, D, B, A
- A, C, D, B
Answer ✔ (b) C, B, A, D
Explanation: Duplication of centrioles occurs in S-phase.Protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase.chromatin condensation is followed by centrioles movement towards the poles. (Prophase)
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Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into
- Prophase
- Anaphase
- Telophase
- Metaphase
Answer ✔ (d) Metaphase
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Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for
- division of cytoplasm
- division of nucleoplasm
- division of nucleus
- separation of daughter chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) separation of daughter chromosomes
Explanation: Karyokinesis means separation of daughter chromosomes.Cytokinesis means division of cytoplasm
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Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
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Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
- Metaphase
- Interphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
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Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences
- II, I, IV, III
- III, II, I, IV
- IV, III, II, I
- I, IV, III, II
Answer ✔ (b) III, II, I, IV
Explanation: III, II, I, IV
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Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
- splitting of the centromeres
- splitting of the chromatids
- replication of the genetic material
- condensation of the chromatin
Answer ✔ (a) splitting of the centromeres
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Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
- Autotetraploid
- Haploid
- Triploid
- Allotetraploid
Answer ✔ (d) Allotetraploid
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Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
- Pancreas
- Liver
- Ovary
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (c) Ovary
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Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
- C, B, A, D, E
- C, A, B, E, D
- C, B, A, E, D
- D, B, C, E, A
Answer ✔ (c) C, B, A, E, D
Explanation: These are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I based on the chromosomal behaviour
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Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?
- 6
- 16
- 26
- 36
Answer ✔ (b) 16
Explanation: There are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cell.
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Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in
- Mitotic prophase
- Mitotic metaphase
- Meiotic metaphase
- Meiotic prophase
Answer ✔ (d) Meiotic prophase
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Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
- Plasma membrane
- Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
- Plastids
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
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Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of
- Ribosome
- ER
- Chromosome
- Mitochondrion
Answer ✔ (c) Chromosome
Explanation: Chromosome
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Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?
- G0
- G1
- G2
- S
Answer ✔ (c) G2
Explanation: In G2 phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised for mitosis and cell growth continues
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Q.18
- Early prophase
- Early metaphase
- Early telophase
- Early anaphase
Answer ✔ (b) Early metaphase
Explanation: Chromosomes are positioning towards the equator.
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Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (a) Anaphase
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Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.
- Zygotene
- Pachytene
- Diakinesis
- Diplotene
Answer ✔ (d) Diplotene
Explanation: Synaptonemal complex dissolves in diplotene stage of Prophase I.
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Q.21 Synapsis occurs between
- A male and female gametes
- Ribosome and m-RNA
- Spindle fibres and centromeres
- Two homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Two homologous chromosomes
Explanation: Two homologous chromosomes
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Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into
- Phargmoplast
- Polyploidy
- Uninucleate condition
- Multinucleate condition
Answer ✔ (d) Multinucleate condition
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Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during
- Cytokinesis
- Interphase
- Karyokinesis
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Cytokinesis
Explanation: Cytokinesis
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Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between
- Non-sister chromosomes
- Sister chromatids
- Non-homologous chromosome
- Homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Homologous chromosomes
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Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in
- Metaphase and M phase
- Anaphase and S phase
- Interphase and S phase
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Anaphase and S phase
Explanation: Anaphase and S phase
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Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Both a and b
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Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of
- Permanent nature
- Temporary nature
- Some are permanent some temporary
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Temporary nature
Explanation: Intercalary meristems are of temporary nature
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Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during
- Phase of cell division
- Phase of cell elongation
- Phase of cell maturation
- Phase of cell differentiation
Answer ✔ (a) Phase of cell division
Explanation: Phase of cell division
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Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve
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Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents
- ability of the plant to produce new cells
- efficiency index
- relative growth rate
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).
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Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
- Autonomic movement of variation
- Autonomic movement of locomotion
- Autonomic movement of growth
- Paratonic movement of growth
Answer ✔ (c) Autonomic movement of growth
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Q.7 Which one is incorrect?
- Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
- Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
Explanation: Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
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Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
- Organogenesis
- Cleavage
- Gastrulation
- Growth
Answer ✔ (b) Cleavage
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Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
- Ethylene
- Gibberellin
- IAA
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene
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Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
- given a dip in ascorbic acid
- maintained at room temperature
- refrigerated
- stored at the top of refrigerator
Answer ✔ (c) refrigerated
Explanation: refrigerated
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Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
- length of leaf
- increase in cell number
- surface area increase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) surface area increase
Explanation: Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf
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Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to
- presence of meristems
- presence of vascular cambium
- presence of xylem and phloem
- presence of tracheids
Answer ✔ (a) presence of meristems
Explanation: Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.
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Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Haemmerling
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Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
- Aging
- Regeneration
- Abnormal development
- Primary inductio
Answer ✔ (b) Regeneration
Explanation: Regeneration
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Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?
- Auxins
- Gibberellins
- Ethylene
- Cytokinins
Answer ✔ (b) Gibberellins
Explanation: Gibberellins especially GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry
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Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
- Auxin
- Gibberelic acid
- Cytokinin
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Abscisic acid
Explanation: Abscisic acid are the derivatives of carotenoids.
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Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.
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Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by
- auxins
- cytokinins
- gibberellins
- ethylene
Answer ✔ (c) gibberellins
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Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called
- Gastrocoele
- Blastocoele
- Coelom
- Neurocoele
Answer ✔ (c) Coelom
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Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called
- Gibberlin
- Auxin
- Cytokinin
- Absicic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Auxin
Explanation: Auxin
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Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid
- Isoleucine
- Methionine
- Niacin
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (d) Tryptophan
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Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy
- IAA
- ABA
- Cytokinin
- Ethylene
Answer ✔ (a) IAA
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Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation
- Parthenocarpy
- pseudocarpy
- Apomixis
- Parthenogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy
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Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is
- Embryos
- Roots
- Young leaves
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from
- Brian et al
- Went
- Yabuta
- Kurosawa
Answer ✔ (a) Brian et al
Explanation: Brian et al
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Q.1 R.Q is ratio of
- CO2 produced to substarate consumed
- CO2 produced to O2 consumed
- oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
- oxygen consumed to water produced
Answer ✔ (b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Explanation: CO2 produced to O2 consumed
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Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the
- 1 – celled stage
- 2 – celled stage
- 3 – celled stage
- male gamete formation stage
Answer ✔ (b) 2 – celled stage
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Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in
- cell cytoplasm
- inner mitochondrial membrane
- mitochondrial matrix
- nucleus
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: Pyruvate is transported from cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in matrix of mitochondria
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Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol
- Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- None of these
- Both of these
Answer ✔ (d) Both of these
Explanation: In fermentation, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions in which pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
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Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by
- Otto Meyerhof
- Hans Kreb
- Gustav Embden
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Hans Kreb
Explanation: TCA cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle was given by Hans Kreb. So it is also called as Kreb cycle.
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Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant
- inferior ovary
- dehiscent fruit
- pair of glumes
- fused calyx
Answer ✔ (c) pair of glumes
Explanation: pair of glumes
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Q.7 Malacophily means
- pollination by wind
- pollination by water
- pollination by insects
- pollination by snails
Answer ✔ (d) pollination by snails
Explanation: pollination by snails
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Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for
- allogamy
- autogamy
- chasmogamy
- cleistogamy
Answer ✔ (a) allogamy
Explanation: allogamy
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Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration
- 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
- 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
- all the formed inside mitochondria
- 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle
Answer ✔ (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Explanation: 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
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Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy
- C6H12O6, 2H2O
- C12H22O11, 6H2O
- C6H12O6, 6H2O
- C12H22O11, 11H2O
Answer ✔ (c) C6H12O6, 6H2O
Explanation: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
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Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of
- numerous corolla
- androphore
- gynophore
- androgynophore
Answer ✔ (b) androphore
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Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is
- Cytochrome C
- FADH
- NADH
- oxygen
Answer ✔ (d) oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain.
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Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?
- Cytochrome c
- cytochrome a3
- cytochrome a
- FADH2
Answer ✔ (a) Cytochrome c
Explanation: Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
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Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in
- protection of delicate embryo
- enzyme synthesis
- transfer of food to cotyledons
- transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips
Answer ✔ (b) enzyme synthesis
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Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is
- fleshy seed coat
- stony pericarp
- stony mesocarp
- stony endocarp
Answer ✔ (d) stony endocarp
Explanation: stony endocarp is characteristic of drupe is
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Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as
- TCA pathway
- Glycolysis
- Hms pathway
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (b) Glycolysis
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Q.17 End product of glycolysis is
- acetyl Coenzyme A
- PEP
- pyruvate
- OAA
Answer ✔ (c) pyruvate
Explanation: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
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Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in
- mitochondrial matrix
- Cristae
- perimitochondrial space
- outer membrane
Answer ✔ (b) Cristae
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Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
- 0.9
- 1.2
- 1
- 0
Answer ✔ (c) 1
Explanation: RQ i.e. respiratory quotient is 1.RQ = volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2 consumed
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Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.
- 2
- 16
- 38
- 42
Answer ✔ (c) 38
Explanation: One molecule of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP during aerobic respiration.
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Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:
- 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
- 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
- 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
- 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
Answer ✔ (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Explanation: 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
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Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when
- Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
- Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
- Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
- Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2
Answer ✔ (a) Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Explanation: Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
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Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called
- Malic acid
- Tartaric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- Citric acid
Answer ✔ (d) Citric acid
Explanation: Citric acid
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Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
- 10
- 8
- 5
- 12
Answer ✔ (a) 10
Explanation: 10 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
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Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in
- Intermembrane space of mitochondria
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Inner membrane of mitochondria
- Cytoplasm
Answer ✔ (b) Mitochondrial matrix
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Q.1 In plants, a common symptom caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the
- bending of leaf tip
- formation of anthocyanins
- poor development of vasculature
- appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Answer ✔ (d) appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Explanation: appearance of dead necrotic tissue
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Q.2 Function of zinc is
- Closing of stomata
- Biosynthesis of 3-IAA
- Synthesis of chlorophyll
- Oxidation of carbohydrate
Answer ✔ (c) Synthesis of chlorophyll
Explanation: Synthesis of chlorophyll
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Q.3 Which of the following is a group of micronutrients?
- Ca, Zn, B
- Fe, Mn, Cu
- Cl, C, Ca
- Ni, Mo, H
Answer ✔ (b) Fe, Mn, Cu
Explanation: Iron, mangenese and copper are micronutrients
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Q.4 The process of conversion of NO2– to N2 is called
- nitrification
- ammonification
- denitrification
- nitrogen fixation
Answer ✔ (c) denitrification
Explanation: The process of conversation of NO2– to N2 is called denitrification
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Q.5 The formation of first stable product of nitrogen fixation is catalysed by enzyme
- dehydrogenase
- nitrogenase
- isomerase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) nitrogenase
Explanation: The first stable product of nitrogen fixation is ammonia obtained from atmospheric nitrogen catalysed enzyme nitrogenase
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Q.6 Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of
- iron
- calcium
- magnesium
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: Manganese toxicity causes deficiency of iron, magnesium and calcium
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Q.7 Chlorosis will occur if a plant is grown in
- dark
- shade
- strong light
- Fe – free medium
Answer ✔ (d) Fe – free medium
Explanation: Fe – free medium
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Q.8 Choose the correct function of magnesium
- It is a constituent of several coenzyme
- It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
- It activates enzyme catalase
- It helps in maintaining anion-cation balance
Answer ✔ (b) It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
Explanation: Magnesium is absorbed by plants as Mg2+ it activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.It is involved in the synthesis of DNA RNA.It is the constituent of ring structure of chlorophyll.
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Q.9 Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from soil are in the form of
- Dilute solution
- Very concentrated solution
- Concentrated solution
- Very dilute solution
Answer ✔ (d) Very dilute solution
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Q.10 Which one of the following mineral elements plays an in biological nitrogen fixation?
- Copper
- Manganese
- Zinc
- Molybdenum
Answer ✔ (d) Molybdenum
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Q.11 Oxygen scavangers present in root nodules of legumes is
- haemoglobin
- leg haemoglobin
- cyano haemoglobin
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) leg haemoglobin
Explanation: Leg-haemoglobin is the oxygen scavanger in root nodules of legumes
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Q.12 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
- Magnesium
- Molybdenum
- Boron
- Zinc
Answer ✔ (a) Magnesium
Explanation: Magnesium
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Q.13 Which of the following is not a macronutrient
- iron
- calcium
- manganese
- phosphorus
Answer ✔ (c) manganese
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Q.14 Insectivorous plants grow where
- There is carbohydrate deficient soil
- There is nitrogen deficient soil
- Vitamin c is required
- Hormones are required
Answer ✔ (b) There is nitrogen deficient soil
Explanation: There is nitrogen deficient soil
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Q.15 Phytotron is meant for
- Controlled humidity
- Induction of mutations
- Controlled irradiation
- Growing plants under controlled environment
Answer ✔ (d) Growing plants under controlled environment
Explanation: Growing plants under controlled environment
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Q.16 Toxicity of which element leads to the appearance of brown spots on leaves
- Mg
- Mn
- Fe
- Cu
Answer ✔ (b) Mn
Explanation: Toxicity of mangenese leads to the appearance of the brown spots with chlorotic veins.
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Q.17 Presence of phosphorus
- brings about healthy root growth
- promotes fruit ripening
- retards protein formation
- none
Answer ✔ (c) retards protein formation
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Q.18 Which element is required for opening and closing of stomata?
- P
- K
- Ca
- Na
Answer ✔ (b) K
Explanation: Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
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Q.19 Exanthema is due to deficiency of
- B
- Mo
- Mn
- Cu
Answer ✔ (d) Cu
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Q.20 NPK denotes
- Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
- Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
- Nitrogen, Potassium, kinetin
- Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Explanation: Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
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Q.21 The nitrogen exists as two nitrogen atoms joined by
- Di covalent bonds
- tetra covalent bonds
- triple covalent bonds
- monocovalent bond
Answer ✔ (c) triple covalent bonds
Explanation: triple covalent bonds
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Q.22 Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by
- Gericke
- Nehar and Sakmann
- Liebig
- Winograndsky
Answer ✔ (d) Winograndsky
Explanation: Winograndsky
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Q.23 The enzyme involved in biological nitrogen fixation are
- Carboxylase
- Oxygenase
- Dehydrogenase
- Nitrogenase
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogenase
Explanation: Nitrogenase
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Q.24 The requirement of micro nutrient are always low if the concentration increases it leads to
- deficiency symptoms
- Cell differentiation
- toxicity
- Cell elongation
Answer ✔ (c) toxicity
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Q.25 Analysis of xylem sap shows
- presence of enzymes
- presence of organic matter
- presence of nutrients
- presence of mineral salts
Answer ✔ (d) presence of mineral salts
Explanation: presence of mineral salts
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Q.1 The anther wall consists of four wall layers where
- tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
- middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
- endothecium lies inner to middle layers
- tapetum lies next to epidermis
Answer ✔ (b) middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
Explanation: middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
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Q.2 Anther is generally
- monosporangiate
- bisporangiate
- tetrasporangiate
- trisporangiate.
Answer ✔ (c) tetrasporangiate
Explanation: tetrasporangiate
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Q.3 The stamens represent
- microsporangia
- male gametophyte
- male gametes
- microsporophylls.
Answer ✔ (d) microsporophylls.
Explanation: The stamens represent microsporophylls
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Q.4 Nonessential floral organs in a flower are
- sepals and petals
- anther and ovary
- stigma and filament
- petals only.
Answer ✔ (a) sepals and petals
Explanation: Nonessential floral organs in a flower are sepals and petals
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Q.5 Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and arrangement of flowers is called
- arboriculture
- floriculture
- horticulture
- anthology
Answer ✔ (b) floriculture
Explanation: Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and arrangement of flowers is called floriculture
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Q.6 From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium
- Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
- Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
- Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
- Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
Answer ✔ (d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
Explanation: Rest are not associated with gynoceium
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Q.7 During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
- endothecium
- microspore mother cells
- microspore tetrads
- pollen grains
Answer ✔ (b) microspore mother cells
Explanation: meiosis occurs in microspore mother cells
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Q.8 The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively
- endothecium and tapetum
- epidermis and endodermis
- epidermis and middle layer
- epidermis and tapetum.
Answer ✔ (d) epidermis and tapetum.
Explanation: epidermis and tapetum.
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Q.9 Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
- Stamen
- filament
- pollen grain
- androecium
Answer ✔ (c) pollen grain
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Q.10 An embryo may sometimes develop from any cell of embryo sac other than egg. It is termed as
- apospory
- apogamy
- parthenogenesis
- parthenocarpy
Answer ✔ (b) apogamy
Explanation: apogamy is development of embryo from any cell of embryo sac other than egg.
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Q.11 Polyembryony commonly occurs in
- banana
- tomato
- Potato
- Citrus
Answer ✔ (d) Citrus
Explanation: Citrus
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Q.12 Indentify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilisation development
- The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
- The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
- The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm.
- The ovule develops into seed.
Answer ✔ (b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
Explanation: The outer integument of ovule develops into seed.
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Q.13 Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.
- perisperm, black pepper
- perisperm, groundnut
- endosperm, black pepper
- endosperm groundnut
Answer ✔ (a) perisperm, black pepper
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Q.14 In albuminous seeds, food is stored in _______ and in non albuminous seeds, it is stored in _______
- endosperm, cotyledons
- cotyledons, endosperm
- nucellus, cotyledons
- endosperm, radicle
Answer ✔ (a) endosperm, cotyledons
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Q.15 Endospermic seeds are found in
- castor
- barley
- Coconut
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: All of these are endosperm seeds.
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Q.16 Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively coloured flowers are associated with
- hydrophily
- entomophily
- ornithophily
- anemophily
Answer ✔ (b) entomophily
Explanation: entomophily involves insects.
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Q.17 Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant ?
- Zostera
- Vallisneria
- Hydrilla
- Cannabis
Answer ✔ (d) Cannabis
Explanation: Cannabis isn’t pollinated by water
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Q.18 Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
- bees
- Butterflies
- birds
- Wind
Answer ✔ (d) Wind
Explanation: Ovaries with many ovules are pollinated by birds or insects.
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Q.19 Feathery stigma occurs in
- pea
- wheat
- Datura
- Caesalpinia
Answer ✔ (b) wheat
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Q.20 Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in
- papaya
- bottle gourd
- maize
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (a) papaya
Explanation: papaya
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Q.21 Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
- Commelina
- Zostera
- Salvia
- Fig
Answer ✔ (a) Commelina
Explanation: It is only seen in Commelina.
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Q.22 Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in
- Helianthus
- Commelina
- Rosa
- Gossypium
Answer ✔ (b) Commelina
Explanation: Commelina shows Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers
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Q.23 Polygonum type of embryo sac is
- 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
- 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
- 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled
- 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled
Answer ✔ (a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
Explanation: 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
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Q.24 The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is
- 8 – celled
- 7 – celled
- 6 – celled
- 5 – celled
Answer ✔ (b) 7 – celled
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Q.25 What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiospermic embryo sac?
- Brings about opening of the pollen tube
- Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
- Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
Explanation: Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
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Q.1 A recessive allele is expressed in
- heterozygous condition only
- homozygous condition only
- F3 generation
- both homozygous and heterozygous conditions.
Answer ✔ (b) homozygous condition only
Explanation: It is expressed in homozygous condition only.
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Q.2 The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called
- recessive characters
- dominant characters
- holandric characters
- lethal characters
Answer ✔ (b) dominant characters
Explanation: These characters are called dominant characters
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Q.3 What will be the distribution of phenotypic features in the first filial generation after a cross between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a single locus ?
- 3:01
- 1:02:01
- 1:01
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) 1:01
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Q.4 In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, percentage of pure homozygous individuals obtained in F1 generation will be
- 25%
- 50%
- 75%
- 100%
Answer ✔ (b) 50%
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Q.5 What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross betweeen two heterozygous tall pea plants ?
- Zero
- 50%
- 25%
- 100%
Answer ✔ (c) 25%
Explanation: The probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross betweeen two heterozygous tall pea plants is 25%
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Q.6 Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions ?
- TT × tt
- Tt × tt
- TT × Tt
- tt × tt
Answer ✔ (b) Tt × tt
Explanation: Tt × tt will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions
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Q.7 Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW – ZZ type of sex determination ?
- It occurs in birds and some reptiles.
- Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
- 1:1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
Explanation: Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic is incorrect.
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Q.8 A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of their having a girl next time ?
- 10%
- 50%
- 90%
- 100%
Answer ✔ (b) 50%
Explanation: Probability is 50 %.
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Q.9 Number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is
- 22 autosomes
- 22 pairs
- 23 autosomes
- 23 pairs
Answer ✔ (b) 22 pairs
Explanation: autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is 22 pairs
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Q.10 Haplodiploidy is found in
- grasshoppers and cockroaches
- birds and reptiles
- butterflies and moths
- honeybees, ants and waspe.
Answer ✔ (d) honeybees, ants and waspe.
Explanation: Haplodiploidy is found in honeybees, ants and waspe.
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Q.11 Rate of mutation is affected by
- temperature
- X rays
- gamma rays
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
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Q.12 Two or more independent genes present on different chromosomes which determine nearly same phenotype are called
- supplementary genes
- complementary genes
- duplicate genes
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) duplicate genes
Explanation: It is known as duplicate genes
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Q.13 Select the incorrect statement regarding pedigree analysis
- Solid symbols show unaffected individuals
- Proband is the person from which case history starts
- It is useful for genetic counsellors
- It is an analysis of traits in several generations of a family
Answer ✔ (a) Solid symbols show unaffected individuals
Explanation: Solid symbols show affected individuals
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Q.14 To determine the genotype of a tall plant of F2 generation, Mendel crossed this plant with a dwarf plant. This cross represents a
- test cross
- back cross
- reciprocal cross
- dihybrid cross
Answer ✔ (a) test cross
Explanation: This cross represents a test cross.
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Q.15 Mendal formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of
- monohybrid cross
- dihybrid cross
- test cross
- back cross
Answer ✔ (a) monohybrid cross
Explanation: law of purity of gametes was based on monohybrid cross
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Q.16 The inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum (dog flower) is an example of
- incomplete dominance
- co-dominance
- multiple alleles
- linkage
Answer ✔ (a) incomplete dominance
Explanation: Flower colour in Antirrhinum (dog flower) is an example of incomplete dominance
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Q.17 Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of
- complete dominance
- incomplete dominance
- over dominance
- epistasis
Answer ✔ (b) incomplete dominance
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Q.18 What can be the blood group of offspring when both parents have AB blood group ?
- AB only
- A, B and AB
- A, B, AB and O
- A and B only
Answer ✔ (b) A, B and AB
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Q.19 Inheritance of roan coat in cattle is an example of
- incomplete dominance
- codominance
- multiple allelism
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) codominance
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Q.20 How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism who is heterozygous for 4 loci ?
- 4
- 8
- 16
- 32
Answer ✔ (c) 16
Explanation: It can produce 16 gametes.
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Q.21 Law of independent assortment can be explained with the help of
- dihybrid
- test cross
- back cross
- monohybrid cross
Answer ✔ (a) dihybrid
Explanation: It can be explained by dihybrid cross
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Q.22 Which three scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work ?
- Avery, McLeod, McCarty
- Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
- Bateson, Punnet and Bridges
- de Vries, Correns and Tschemark
Answer ✔ (d) de Vries, Correns and Tschemark
Explanation: Three scientists were de Vries, Correns and Tschemark.
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Q.23 Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
- Morgan et al
- Sutton and Boveri
- Hugo deVries
- Gregor J. Mendel
Answer ✔ (b) Sutton and Boveri
Explanation: This theory was given by Sutton and Boveri.
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Q.24 Experimental verification of ‘chromosomal theory of inheritance’ was done by
- Sutton and Boveri
- Morgan et al
- Henking
- Karl Correns
Answer ✔ (b) Morgan et al
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Q.25 Genes located very close to one another on same chromosome tend to be transmitted together and are called as
- allelomorphs
- identical genes
- linked genes
- recessive genes
Answer ✔ (c) linked genes
Explanation: It is called as linked genes.
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Q.1 Quiescent centre is present in the
- apical meristem
- shoot meristem
- lateral meristem
- root meristem
Answer ✔ (d) root meristem
Explanation: root meristem
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Q.2 Closed vascular bundles lacks
- pith
- xylem
- cambium
- xylem vessels
Answer ✔ (c) cambium
Explanation: cambium
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Q.3 Which of the following is not a feature of spring wood?
- Color of the wood is light.
- Density is less.
- Cambium is active.
- Lesser number of xylary elements.
Answer ✔ (d) Lesser number of xylary elements.
Explanation: Spring season produces a wood which has large number of xylary elements having vessels with wider cavities.
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Q.4 In a monocot leaf
- bulliform cells are absent from the eqidermis
- veins from a network
- mesophyll is well differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
- mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
Answer ✔ (d) mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
Explanation: mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
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Q.5 A.T.S. of a young dicot root can be distinguished from that of a young dicot stem by the presence of
- radial arrangement of xylem and phloem
- collateral arrangement of xylem and phloem
- interfascicular cambium
- intrafascicular cambium
Answer ✔ (a) radial arrangement of xylem and phloem
Explanation: adial arrangement of xylem and phloem
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Q.6 Fusifrom initial cells of cambium from
- vascular rays
- tracheary elements
- ray parenchyma
- phloem parenchyma
Answer ✔ (b) tracheary elements
Explanation: tracheary elements
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Q.7 Callose deposition is found in
- tracheids
- companion cells
- sieve areas
- phloem parenchyma
Answer ✔ (c) sieve areas
Explanation: sieve areas
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Q.8 Stem develops from
- radicle
- cotyledon
- mesocarp
- plumule
Answer ✔ (d) plumule
Explanation: Stem develops from plumule.
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Q.9 Stem grows in girth due to
- outer cortical
- epidermis
- vascular cambium
- phellogen
Answer ✔ (c) vascular cambium
Explanation: Stem increase in girth due to the activity of vascular cambium. In this process, the outer cortical and epidermis layers gets broken. This layer is replaced with new protective cell layer
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Q.10 Which of the following is true about heartwood?
- They are dead but gives mechanical support to stem
- They are light in color
- They conduct water and minerals.
- 1 and 3
Answer ✔ (a) They are dead but gives mechanical support to stem
Explanation: Heartwood is dead and have non-conducting elements.
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Q.11 Pith is very well developed in
- monocot root and monocot stem
- monocot root and dicot root
- dicot root and monocot stem
- monocot root and dicot stem
Answer ✔ (d) monocot root and dicot stem
Explanation: monocot root and dicot stem
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Q.12 Which of the following helps in the curling of the leaf surface?
- Bulliform cells
- Xylem tissue
- Palisade parenchyma
- Bundle sheath cells
Answer ✔ (a) Bulliform cells
Explanation: In grasses, adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves into large, empty, colorless cells. These are called bulliform cells
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Q.13 Walls of sclerenchyma are
- rigid
- lignified
- pectinised
- suberised
Answer ✔ (b) lignified
Explanation: lignified
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Q.14 Fusifrom initial cells of cambium from
- vascular rays
- tracheary elements
- ray parenchyma
- phloem parenchyma
Answer ✔ (b) tracheary elements
Explanation: tracheary elements
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Q.15 Closed vascular bundles lacks
- pith
- xylem
- cambium
- xylem vessels
Answer ✔ (c) cambium
Explanation: cambium
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Q.16 After the secondary growth, the oldest layer of secondary phloem in a dicot stem is located
- just outside the vascular cambium
- just inside the vascular cambium
- just inside the vascular phloem
- just outside the secondary xylem
Answer ✔ (c) just inside the vascular phloem
Explanation: just inside the vascular phloem
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Q.17 The innermost layer of cortex which shows casparian thickenings in its cells is called as
- epidermis
- endodermis
- pericycle
- exodermis
Answer ✔ (b) endodermis
Explanation: endodermis
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Q.18 Vessels differ from tracheids
- in being living
- in being derived from a single cell
- in that they consist of vertical row of cells with cross walls dissolved
- in coducting water and minerals
Answer ✔ (c) in that they consist of vertical row of cells with cross walls dissolved
Explanation: in that they consist of vertical row of cells with cross walls dissolved
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Q.19 Endodermis cells are rich in
- cellulose
- starch grains
- fibers
- resins and wax
Answer ✔ (b) starch grains
Explanation: Endodermis cells are rich in starch grains
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Q.20 Formation of secondary xylem and phloem respectively
- Centrifugal and centripetal
- Centripetal and centrifugal
- Both centripetal
- Both centrifugal
Answer ✔ (b) Centripetal and centrifugal
Explanation: Centripetal and centrifugal
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Q.21 Bark includes all the tissues
- Lying outside the vascular cambium
- Formed by vascular cambium
- Formed by phellogen
- Phellem & phelloderm
Answer ✔ (a) Lying outside the vascular cambium
Explanation: Lying outside the vascular cambium
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Q.22 Living tissue in lenticel is called
- Conjunctive tissue
- Connective tissue
- Complementary tissue
- Phelloderm
Answer ✔ (c) Complementary tissue
Explanation: Complementary tissue
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Q.23 Which among the following are elongated or tube like cells with thick and lignified walls and tapering ends?
- Xylem fibres
- Xylem parenchyma
- vessels
- Tracheids
Answer ✔ (d) Tracheids
Explanation: Tracheids
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Q.24 Which of the following provide maximum mechanical strength to a tree trunk.
- Heart wood
- Sap wood
- Cork
- Late wood
Answer ✔ (a) Heart wood
Explanation: Heart wood
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Q.25 Vessels and companion cells are respectively present in the xylem and phloem of
- Gymnosperm
- Pteridophytes
- Angiosperm
- Bryophyta
Answer ✔ (c) Angiosperm
Explanation: Angiosperm
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Q.1 Dry seeds kept in water swell due to
- absorption
- diffusion
- imbibition
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) imbibition
Explanation: imbibition is a type of diffusion in which water is absorbed by solids or colloids which leads to increase in volume. This happens in case of dry wood and seeds
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Q.2 Choose the correct statement/statements. Pumps in active transport are A. Lipids that bind molecules to pass them through the membrane. B. Transport molecules uphill. C. These are specific transporters. D. These are sensitive to inhibitors
- A and C
- A, B and D
- B, C and D
- C and D
Answer ✔ (c) B, C and D
Explanation: Pumps in active transport are proteins that bind molecules to pass them through the membrane
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Q.3 Which of the following is the unit of ψ?
- Pascal
- Joule
- Newton
- Electron volt
Answer ✔ (a) Pascal
Explanation: Psi or ψ is expressed in pressure units e.g. pascals
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Q.4 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be
- No movement of water
- Movement of water from cell B to A
- Movement of water from cell A to B
- Equilibrium between the two
Answer ✔ (c) Movement of water from cell A to B
Explanation: Movement of water from cell A to B
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Q.5 Which of the following is decreased during increase in humidity in the atmosphere?
- Transpiration
- Photosynthesis
- Respiration
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (a) Transpiration
Explanation: With the increase in humidity in atmosphere, rate of transpiration decreases
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Q.6 Ψs is always
- positive
- zero
- negative
- one
Answer ✔ (c) negative
Explanation: Ψs is always negative
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Q.7 Two types of molecules cross the membrane in the same direction, it is called as
- Uniport
- Symport
- Antiport
- Multiport
Answer ✔ (b) Symport
Explanation: In symport, two types of molecules cross the membrane in the same direction
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Q.8 Diffusion rate is affected by
- temperature
- membrane permeability
- gradient of concentration
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: Diffusion rate is affected by the gradient of concentration, permeability of the membrane separating them, temperature and pressure
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Q.9 Cells shrink in _________ solution
- isotonic
- hypotonic
- hypertonic
- hypotonic and hypertonic
Answer ✔ (c) hypertonic
Explanation: In hypertonic solution, external solution is more concentrated as compared to cytoplasm.Cells shrink in hypertonic solutions
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Q.10 Which of the following is true about diffusion?
- There is no expenditure of energy
- Molecules move in Brownian motion
- Substances moves from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.
- Diffusion depends on the type of living system
Answer ✔ (d) Diffusion depends on the type of living system
Explanation: Diffusion is a slow process, it is not dependent on the living systems
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Q.11 Which of the following is true about diffusion?
- There is no expenditure of energy
- Molecules move in Brownian motion
- Substances moves from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration
- Diffusion depends on the type of living system
Answer ✔ (d) Diffusion depends on the type of living system
Explanation: Diffusion is a slow process, it is not dependent on the living systems.
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Q.12 Water is lost in a liquid state in some plants through hydathodes. These hydathodes
- do not show any specificity in opening and closing
- remain closed during day
- remain closed at night
- remain always open
Answer ✔ (d) remain always open
Explanation: remain always open
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Q.13 If pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water, the water potential
- increases
- decreases
- remains same
- atmospheric pressure does not affect water potential
Answer ✔ (a) increases
Explanation: If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water, the water potential increases.
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Q.14 Choose the correct sequence of water movement in the plants.
- Cortex, protoxylem, endodermis, root hair, pericycle, metaxylem
- Root hair, cortex, endodermis, pericycle, protoxylem, metaxylem
- Root hair, protoxylem, metaxylem, pericycle, cortex, endodermis
- Root hair, pericycle, endodermis, cortex, protoxylem, metaxylem
Answer ✔ (b) Root hair, cortex, endodermis, pericycle, protoxylem, metaxylem
Explanation: Water is absorbed from soil by root hair. This is then carried by cortex,then passed to endodermis.Endodermis passes water to Perivale then to protoxylem and metaxylem
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Q.15 Wilting of a plant results from excessive
- respiration
- photosynthesis
- absorption
- transpiration
Answer ✔ (d) transpiration
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Q.16 Cohesion theory of water movement in plants was put forth by
- Henry Dixon
- F. F. Blackman
- Melvin cycle
- Hans. A. Krebs
Answer ✔ (a) Henry Dixon
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Q.17 Diffusion rate is affected by
- temperature
- membrane permeability
- gradient of concentration
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: Diffusion rate is affected by the gradient of concentration, permeability of the membrane separating them, temperature and pressure
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Q.18 When a plant is girdled (ringed)
- the root and shoot die at the same time
- the shoot dies first
- the root dies first
- neither root nor shoot will die
Answer ✔ (c) the root dies first
Explanation: the root dies first
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Q.19 Choose the correct statement/statements. Pumps in active transport are A. Lipids that bind molecules to pass them through the membrane. B. Transport molecules uphill. C. These are specific transporters. D. These are sensitive to inhibitors
- A and C
- A, B and D
- B, C and D
- C and D
Answer ✔ (c) B, C and D
Explanation: Pumps in active transport are proteins that bind molecules to pass them through the membrane.
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Q.20 Assertion (A): K+ ion accumulation found in Nitella depends on its respiratory activity. Reason (R)Absorption of all ions in plants completely depends on the usage of metabolic energy. The correct answer is
- A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
- A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
- A is true but R is false
- A is false but R is true
Answer ✔ (c) A is true but R is false
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Q.21 Root hairs absorb water from soil with the help of
- Root pressure
- osmotic pressure
- Suction pressure
- Turger pressure
Answer ✔ (b) osmotic pressure
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Q.22 Proteins that form huge pores in the membrane of the certain organelles and bacteria are called as
- Porins
- Pressure gradient
- Enzymes
- Flaccid
Answer ✔ (a) Porins
Explanation: Porins
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Q.23 What is the effect of turgor pressure in Munch hypothesis?
- Increase of turgor pressure
- Decrease of turgor pressure
- No change in turgor pressure
- independent to water potential gradient
Answer ✔ (a) Increase of turgor pressure
Explanation: Increase of turgor pressure
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Q.24 Munch hypothesis is based on
- Translocation of food due to turgor pressure gradient and imbibition force
- Translocation of food due to turgor pressure gradient
- Translocation of food due to imbibition force
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Translocation of food due to turgor pressure gradient
Explanation: Translocation of food due to turgor pressure gradient
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Q.25 ψp denotes to
- Water potential
- Negative potential
- Pressure potential
- Solute potential
Answer ✔ (c) Pressure potential
Explanation: Pressure potential
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Q.1 In tamarind, the pinnate leaf is
- bipinnate
- tripinnate
- paripinnate
- imparipinnate
Answer ✔ (a) bipinnate
Explanation: bipinnate
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Q.2 Artabotrys is a hook climber in which the hooks are modified
- inflorescence axis
- petiole
- roots
- stipules
Answer ✔ (a) inflorescence axis
Explanation: inflorescence axis
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Q.3 Exceptional roots of Cuscuta are
- haustorial
- coralloid
- mucorhizal
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (a) haustorial
Explanation: haustorial
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Q.4 The petiole is swollen and spongy in
- Nepenthes
- Trapa
- Clematis
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Trapa
Explanation: Trapa
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Q.5 Which one of the following plants dose not have root – pockets
- Pistia
- Lemna
- Ficus
- Eichhornia
Answer ✔ (c) Ficus
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Q.6 The largest petal overlaps the lateral ones in _________ aestivation.
- Papilionaceous
- Valvate
- Twisted
- Imbricate
Answer ✔ (a) Papilionaceous
Explanation: n pea and bean flowers, there are five petals, the largest overlaps the two lateral petals which in turn overlaps the two smallest anterior petals. This is called Vexillary or papilionaceous aestivation.
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Q.7 In Lathyrus, the leaves are modified into
- thorns
- cladodes
- tendrils
- spines
Answer ✔ (c) tendrils
Explanation: tendrils
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Q.8 Potato tuber is an underground stem because
- Tinospora
- Jussiaea
- Viscum
- Vanda
Answer ✔ (b) Jussiaea
Explanation: Jussiaea
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Q.9 Thors and spines are
- homologous organs
- analogous organs
- thron is homologous while spine is analogous
- spine is homologous while is analogous
Answer ✔ (d) spine is homologous while is analogous
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Q.10 In which of the following plants stems do not store the food materia
- potato
- ginger
- onion
- colocasia
Answer ✔ (c) onion
Explanation: onion
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Q.11 In banana, the stem is
- underground only
- both underground and aerial
- absent
- aerial only
Answer ✔ (a) underground only
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Q.12 Srem modified to perform the function of a leaf and having many internodes is called as
- phylloclade
- cladode
- offset
- phyllode
Answer ✔ (d) phyllode
Explanation: phylloclade
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Q.13 certain plants called as runners can be easily propagated. This is due to the fact
- they are numerous in numbers
- they store the ready food
- they lie horizontally on the soil
- they can produce adventitious roots quite readily at the nodes
Answer ✔ (d) they can produce adventitious roots quite readily at the nodes
Explanation: they can produce adventitious roots quite readily at the nodes
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Q.14 The coloured part of a Bougainuillea flower is the
- corolla
- calyx
- bracts
- androecium
Answer ✔ (c) bracts
Explanation: bracts
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Q.15 The axillary buds arise
- endogenously from the pericycle
- exogenously from the tissues of the shoot apex
- endogenously from the cambium tissues
- exogenously from the innermost layers of cortex
Answer ✔ (b) exogenously from the tissues of the shoot apex
Explanation: exogenously from the tissues of the shoot apex
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Q.16 The arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud is called
- Placentation
- Aestivation
- Bracteate
- Phyllotaxy
Answer ✔ (b) Aestivation
Explanation: The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect to the other members of the same whorl is known as aestivation.
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Q.17 The term phyllotaxy is used to describe the
- type of ovary in a plant
- mode of arrangement of leaves
- type of roots
- arrangement of sepals and petals
Answer ✔ (b) mode of arrangement of leaves
Explanation: mode of arrangement of leaves
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Q.18 Blue dye is obtained from the leaves of
- Indigofera tinctoria
- Opium
- Aloe
- Delbergia sissoo
Answer ✔ (a) Indigofera tinctoria
Explanation: Indigofera tinctoria
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Q.19 Which of the following is a correct pair?
- Cuscuta – parasite
- Dischidia – insectivorous
- Opuntia – predator
- Capsella – hydrophyte
Answer ✔ (a) Cuscuta – parasite
Explanation: Cuscuta – parasite
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Q.20 The embryo in sunflower has
- one cotyledon
- two cotyledons
- many cotyledons
- no cotyledon
Answer ✔ (b) two cotyledons
Explanation: two cotyledons
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Q.21 The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in
- auxins
- proteins
- starch
- lipids
Answer ✔ (b) proteins
Explanation: proteins
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Q.22 Spinous xerophytic herb belonging to solanceae is
- Solanum tuberosum
- S. nigrum
- S. xanthocarpum
- S. melongena
Answer ✔ (c) S. xanthocarpum
Explanation: S. xanthocarpum
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Q.23 Dry indehiscent single seeded fruit formed by bi-carpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is
- Cremocarp
- Berry
- Caryopsis
- Cypsela
Answer ✔ (d) Cypsela
Explanation: Cypsela
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Q.24 Flowers in which only one set of essential organs is present are said to be
- Polygamous
- Bisexual
- Dioecious
- Unisexual
Answer ✔ (d) Unisexual
Explanation: Unisexual
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Q.25 Placentation in tomato and lemon is
- Parietal
- Free central
- Marginal
- Axile
Answer ✔ (d) Axile
Explanation: Axile
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Q.1 Rhodophyceae is called red algae because of the pigment
- Fucoxanthin
- Phycoerythrin
- Carotenoids
- Chlorophyll c
Answer ✔ (b) Phycoerythrin
Explanation: Members of Rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae because of the predominance of the red pigment, r-phycoerythrin in their body.
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Q.2 Which of the followings plant material is an efficient water imbibant?
- Agar
- Cellulose
- Lignin
- Pectin
Answer ✔ (a) Agar
Explanation: Agar
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Q.3 In a monoecious plant
- Male and female sex organs are on the same individual
- male and female gametes are of two morphologically distinct types
- Male and female sex organs are on different individuals
- All the stamens are fused to form one unit
Answer ✔ (a) Male and female sex organs are on the same individual
Explanation: Male and female sex organs are on the same individual
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Q.4 The seedless vascular plants whose sporophytes are larger than their small and independent gametophytes are
- Pteridophytes
- Angiosperms
- Gymnosperms
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pteridophytes
Explanation: Pteridophytes
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Q.5 Which of the following is a liverwort?
- Sphagnum
- Funaria
- Marchantia
- Polytrichum
Answer ✔ (c) Marchantia
Explanation: Marchantia is a liverwort. Sphagnum, Funaria and Polytrichum are mosses
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Q.6 Transgenic plants are the ones
- Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field
- Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
- Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
- Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium
Answer ✔ (c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
Explanation: Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
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Q.7 Which of the following plants is used extensively for the study of photosynthesis?
- Amaranthus
- Asparagus
- Chlorella
- Sunflower
Answer ✔ (c) Chlorella
Explanation: Chlorella
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Q.8 Which of the following is used to grow microbes?
- Laminaria
- Gelidium
- Chlorella
- Sargassum
Answer ✔ (b) Gelidium
Explanation: Agar is extracted from Gelidium and Gracilaria, it is used to grow microbes and in preparation of ice-cream and jellies
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Q.9 Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in
- Chlamydomonas
- Spirogyra
- Volvox
- Fucus
Answer ✔ (b) Spirogyra
Explanation: Spirogyra
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Q.10 Gymnosperms produce neither flower nor fruit because they do not possess
- Embryo
- Ovary
- Ovule
- Seed
Answer ✔ (b) Ovary
Explanation: Ovary
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Q.11 Rhodophyceae is called red algae because of the pigment
- Fucoxanthin
- Phycoerythrin
- Carotenoids
- Chlorophyll c
Answer ✔ (b) Phycoerythrin
Explanation: Members of Rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae because of the predominance of the red pigment, r-phycoerythrin in their body.
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Q.12 In moss stomata appears on
- Capsule
- Leaves
- Stem
- All of these
Answer ✔ (a) Capsule
Explanation: Capsule
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Q.13 The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in
- Pinus
- Polytrichum
- Adiantum
- Marchantia
Answer ✔ (a) Pinus
Explanation: pinus
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Q.14 In gymnosperms, the development of pollen grains occurs in
- Strobili
- Microsporangia
- Megasporangia
- Macrosporangia
Answer ✔ (b) Microsporangia
Explanation: In gymnosperms, the development of pollen grains occur in microsporangia.
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Q.15 Ribbon shaped chloroplasts occur in
- Ulothrix
- Spirogyra
- Chlamydomonas
- Riccia
Answer ✔ (b) Spirogyra
Explanation: Spirogyra
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Q.16 Antheridia and Archegonia are sex organs of
- Moss
- Mucor
- Spirogyra
- Puccinia
Answer ✔ (a) Moss
Explanation: Moss
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Q.17 Iodine is found in
- Spirogyra
- Laminaria
- Polysiphonia
- Chlorella
Answer ✔ (b) Laminaria
Explanation: Laminaria
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Q.18 Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom because
- These plants live in soil and depend on marine organisms for asexual reproduction
- These plants live in soil and depend on water for sexual reproduction.
- These plants live in water and depend on land animals for sexual reproduction
- These plants live near water bodies.
Answer ✔ (b) These plants live in soil and depend on water for sexual reproduction.
Explanation: Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant Kingdom because they live in soil and depend on water for sexual reproduction.
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Q.19 Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogram?
- Cedrus
- Equisetum
- Ginkgo
- Marchantia
Answer ✔ (b) Equisetum
Explanation: Equisetum
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Q.20 Pinus differs from mango in having
- Tree habit
- Green leaves
- Ovules not enclosed in ovary
- Wood
Answer ✔ (c) Ovules not enclosed in ovary
Explanation: Ovules not enclosed in ovary
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Q.21 In chlorophyta the mode of sexual reproduction is
- Isogamy
- Anisogamy
- Oogamy
- Isogamy, Anisogamy and oogamy
Answer ✔ (d) Isogamy, Anisogamy and oogamy
Explanation: Isogamy, Anisogamy and oogamy
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Q.22 An evolutionary characteristic is found in selaginella:
- Presence of ligule
- Heterophilly habits
- Sporangia present in cone
- Heterospory
Answer ✔ (d) Heterospory
Explanation: Heterospory
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Q.23 By which type of leaf is found in selaginella
- Aligulate and microphyllous
- Ligulate and megaphyllous
- Ligulate and microphyllous
- Aligulate and megaphyllous
Answer ✔ (c) Ligulate and microphyllous
Explanation: Ligulate and microphyllous
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Q.24 Bioluminescence is a phenomenon associated with
- chrysophyta
- phaeophyta
- pyrrophyta
- chlorophyta
Answer ✔ (c) pyrrophyta
Explanation: pyrrophyta
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Q.25 Yeast is different from penicillium and Rhizopus in being
- Acellular
- Unicellular
- Having unseptate hyphae
- multicellular
Answer ✔ (b) Unicellular
Explanation: Unicellular
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Q.1 Aquaculture does not include
- prawns
- fishes
- silkworms
- shell fishery
Answer ✔ (c) silkworms
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Q.2 Which of the following is correctly matched ?
- Sericulture – Fish
- Aquaculture – Mosquito
- Apiculture – Honeybee
- Pisciculture – Silkmoth
Answer ✔ (c) Apiculture – Honeybee
Explanation: Apiculture – Honeybee is correctly matched
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Q.3 Germplasm collection is the collection of
- germ cells
- semens
- plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes
- egg cells
Answer ✔ (c) plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes
Explanation: Germplasm collection is the collection of plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes
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Q.4 Major percentage of India’s Gross Domestic Product is constituted by
- industry
- agriculture
- export
- small scale cottage industry
Answer ✔ (b) agriculture
Explanation: Major percentage of India’s Gross Domestic Product is constituted by agriculture
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Q.5 The Noble Laureate, who developed semi-dwarf wheat varieties in Mexioc was
- norman E. Borlaug
- herbert Boyer
- William Harvey
- Typhoid Mary
Answer ✔ (a) norman E. Borlaug
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Q.6 Jaya and Ratna are the semi-dwarf varieties of
- wheat
- rice
- cowpea
- mustard
Answer ✔ (b) rice
Explanation: Jaya and Ratna are the semi-dwarf varieties of wheat
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Q.7 The term “inbreeding depression” is related to
- increased fertility and productivity
- increased milk production
- reduced fertility & productivity
- reduced milk production
Answer ✔ (c) reduced fertility & productivity
Explanation: The term “inbreeding depression” is related to reduced fertility & productivity
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Q.8 Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding generally results in
- inbreeding depression
- inbreeding stimulation
- inbreeding hybridisation
- inbreeding mutation
Answer ✔ (a) inbreeding depression
Explanation: It generally results in inbreeding depression
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Q.9 The breeding carried out between animals of different breeds is called
- out-crossing
- cross-breeding
- inbreeding
- both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (b) cross-breeding
Explanation: It is called cross-breeding
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Q.10 Which of the following is an example of a cross-breed ?
- Mule
- Hilsa
- Hisardale
- Sahiwal
Answer ✔ (c) Hisardale
Explanation: Hisardale is an example of a cross-breed
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Q.11 Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing
- Merino ram and Bikaneri ewe
- Assel ram and White leghorn ewe
- Rhode Island ram and White leghorn ewe
- Cochin ram and Ghagus ewe
Answer ✔ (a) Merino ram and Bikaneri ewe
Explanation: It is developed in Punjab by crossing
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Q.12 Crossing of individuals of two different species to produce a hybrid is called
- interspecific hybridisation
- intervarietal hybridisation
- intergeneric hybridisation
- intravarietal hybrididisation
Answer ✔ (a) interspecific hybridisation
Explanation: Crossing of individuals of two different species to produce a hybrid is called interspecific hybridisation
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Q.13 Artificial insemination involves
- super ovulation
- semen collection
- egg collection
- embryo collection
Answer ✔ (b) semen collection
Explanation: Artificial insemination involves semen collection
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Q.14 Artificial breeding of cattle is brough about by
- artiticial insemination
- super ovulation and embryo transplantation
- MOET
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
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Q.15 MOET stands for
- Multiple Ovulation and Egg transfer Technology
- Multiple Ovary and Embryo Transfer Technology
- Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
- Method of Egg Transfer Technology
Answer ✔ (c) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
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Q.16 Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology is related to
- transfer of super embryo
- transfer of super eggs
- super ovulation and embryo transfer
- both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (c) super ovulation and embryo transfer
Explanation: It is related to super ovulation and embryo transfer
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Q.17 Lean meat’ is cosidered to be of high quality because it has
- lesser but easily digestible protein
- lesser lipid content
- more fat that makes the meqt softer
- longer table life due to lesser chances of infection
Answer ✔ (b) lesser lipid content
Explanation: It is cosidered to be of high quality because it has lesser lipid content
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Q.18 In livestock breeding experiments, which of the following stages is transferred to surrogate mothers ?
- Unfertilised eggs
- Fertilised eggs
- 8 to 32 celled embryo
- Frozen semen
Answer ✔ (c) 8 to 32 celled embryo
Explanation: 8 to 32 celled embryo
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Q.19 The term ‘apiculture’ refers to
- tissue culture
- pisciculture
- bee-keeping
- animal-keeping
Answer ✔ (c) bee-keeping
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Directions:
Q.20 Which of the following plays a role in indigenous system of medicine ?
- Plant breeding
- Fisheries
- Apiculture
- MOET
Answer ✔ (c) Apiculture
Explanation: Apiculture plays a role in indigenous system of medicine
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Q.21 In honey, the main constituent is
- calcium
- sugar
- protein
- water
Answer ✔ (b) sugar
Explanation: sugar is the main constituent is
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Q.22 Turnip mosaic disease is caused by
- bacteria
- viruses
- nematodes
- fungi
Answer ✔ (b) viruses
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Q.23 Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
- Black rot of crucifers Bacteria
- Brown rust of wheat Fungi
- Late blight of potato Virus
- Red rot of sugarcane Fungi
Answer ✔ (c) Late blight of potato Virus
Explanation: Late blight of potato Virus
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Q.24 Which of the following dieases is caused by bacteria ?
- Tobacco mosaic
- Black rot of crucifers
- Red rot of sugarcane
- Late blight of potato
Answer ✔ (b) Black rot of crucifers
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Q.25 Black rust of wheat is caused by
- Puccinia
- Albugo
- Ustilago
- Cystopus
Answer ✔ (a) Puccinia
Explanation: Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia.
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Q.1 log S = log C + Z log A In the given equation of species-area relationship, the value of regression coefficient for a whole continent, would be
- 0.1-0.2
- 0.5-0.7
- 0.6-1.2
- 0.3-0.5
Answer ✔ (c) 0.6-1.2
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Q.2 Lion-tailed Macaque is found in:
- Western Ghats
- Caucasus
- Eastern Ghats
- Western Himalaya
Answer ✔ (a) Western Ghats
Explanation: Lion-tailed Macaque is found in Western Ghats
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Q.3 Project tiger in India was started in the year
- 1973
- 1981
- 1985
- 1986
Answer ✔ (a) 1973
Explanation: Project tiger in India was started in the year 1973
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Q.4 Dudhwa National Part is located in
- In Himachal Pradesh
- In Uttar Pradesh
- In Madhya Pradesh
- Arunachal Pradesh
Answer ✔ (b) In Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: Dudhwa National Part is located in In Uttar Pradesh
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Q.5 Which type of living organisms given below are listed in Red Data Book”?
- Rare species
- Rare and endangered species
- Endangered species
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Rare and endangered species
Explanation: Rare and endangered species are listed in Red Data Book
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Q.6 Reserve biosphere of Sundarban is situated in which of the following states
- Bihar
- Uttar Pradesh
- Assam
- West Bengal
Answer ✔ (d) West Bengal
Explanation: Reserve biosphere of Sundarban is situated in West Bengal
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Q.7 Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year
- 1996
- 1992
- 2002
- 2000
Answer ✔ (c) 2002
Explanation: Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year 2002.
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Q.8 Red Data Book is produced by
- IUCN
- WWF
- IBWL
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) IUCN
Explanation: Red Data Book is produced by IUCN
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Q.9 Kanha National Park is famous for
- Birds
- Rhinoceros
- Tigers
- Crocodiles
Answer ✔ (c) Tigers
Explanation: Kanha National Park is famous for Tigers
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Q.10 Lions m India are now found in
- Jim Corbett National Park
- Forests of Madhya Pradesh
- Forests of Western Ghats
- Fir Forests
Answer ✔ (d) Fir Forests
Explanation: These are found in Fir Forests.
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Q.11 Bandipurin Karnataka is the site of project
- Elephant
- Hangul
- Tiger
- Peacock
Answer ✔ (c) Tiger
Explanation: Bandipurin Karnataka is the site of project Tiger
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Q.12 First National park developed in India is
- Gir
- Kaziranga
- Jim Corbett
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Jim Corbett
Explanation: First National park developed in India is Jim Corbett.
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Q.13 Nandan Kanha Zoo is know for the
- Nilgiri tiger
- Hippopotamus
- White Tiger
- Whale
Answer ✔ (c) White Tiger
Explanation: Nandan Kanha Zoo is known for the White Tiger.
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Q.14 Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the river
- Jhelum
- Narmada
- Tapti
- Vyas
Answer ✔ (b) Narmada
Explanation: Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the river Narmada
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Q.15 Identify the correct matched pair
- Montreal Protocol-Global Warming
- Kyoto Protocol-Climate change
- Project Hungul-Dear
- Project Tiger-Lion
Answer ✔ (b) Kyoto Protocol-Climate change
Explanation: Kyoto Protocol-Climate change is the correct match.
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Q.16 One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is
- Wild life sanctuaries
- Biosphere reserves
- Cryopreservation
- National parks
Answer ✔ (c) Cryopreservation
Explanation: Cryopreservation
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Q.17 Which of the following is not done in a wild life sanctuary?
- Fauna is conserved
- Flora is conserved
- Soil and flora is utilised
- Hunting is prohibited
Answer ✔ (c) Soil and flora is utilised
Explanation: Soil and flora is not utilised in wildlife sanctuary.
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Q.18 First National park developed in India is
- Gir
- Kaziranga
- Jim Corbett
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Jim Corbett
Explanation: First National park developed in India is Jim Corbett
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Q.19 Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our country?
- Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch
- Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
- Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats
- Kerala and Punjab
Answer ✔ (c) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats
Explanation: Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats
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Q.20 Genetic biodiversity in agricultural crops in threatened by
- introduction of high yielding varieties
- intensine use of fertilizers
- extensive intercropping
- intensive use of biopesticides
Answer ✔ (a) introduction of high yielding varieties
Explanation: Genetic biodiversity in agricultural crops in threatened by introduction of high yielding varieties
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Q.21 in your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area?
- By creating Biosphere reserve
- By creating Botanical gardens
- By developing seed banks
- By tissue culture method
Answer ✔ (a) By creating Biosphere reserve
Explanation: creating Biosphere reserve is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity
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Q.22 Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species?
- Fishes
- Reptiles
- Birds
- Mammals
Answer ✔ (d) Mammals
Explanation: Mammals comprises the highest number of endangered species
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Q.23 The worst dangerous threat to wild life is by
- Habitat destruction
- Hunting
- Overgrazing
- Exotic species
Answer ✔ (a) Habitat destruction
Explanation: The worst dangerous threat to wild life is by Habitat destruction
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Q.24 New approach to conservation is the establishment of
- Sanctuaries
- Biosphere reserves
- National parks
- Reserve forests
Answer ✔ (b) Biosphere reserves
Explanation: New approach to conservation is the establishment of Biosphere reserves.
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Q.25 Wild life is destroyed most by
- Lack of proper care
- Mass scale hunting
- Destruction of natural habitats
- Natural calamity
Answer ✔ (c) Destruction of natural habitats
Explanation: By Destruction of natural habitats.
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Q.1 Who discovered nucleus?
- Newton
- Robert Hooke
- Robert Brown
- Albert Einstein
Answer ✔ (c) Robert Brown
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Q.1 Mycology is the study of ?
- Hydrilla
- Virus
- Fungi
- Rhizobium
Answer ✔ (c) Fungi
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Q.1 The Indian Botanical Garden is located in ?
- Lucknow
- Kolkata
- Delhi
- Bangalore
Answer ✔ (b) Kolkata
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Q.1 The top chambers of human heart are called
- Aorta
- Atrium
- Septum
- Ventricle
Answer ✔ (b) Atrium
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Q.1 The disease 'dieback of shoots' is caused due to the deficieny of the microelement
- Potassium
- Copper
- Silver
- Magnesium
Answer ✔ (b) Copper
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Q.1 What is fern prothallus ?
- Vegetative body
- Gametophyte
- Sporophyte
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Gametophyte
Botany
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