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Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following
- enzyme
- substrate
- end products
- intermediate end products
Answer ✔ (c) end products
Explanation: end products
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
2 of 449
Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
- succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
- cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
- hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
- carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Explanation: succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
3 of 449
Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Insulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose.
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
4 of 449
Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
- lowering activation energy
- increasing activation energy
- increasing temperature and pH
- decreasing temperature and pH
Answer ✔ (a) lowering activation energy
Explanation: Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
5 of 449
Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
- Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
- Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
- Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
- Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Answer ✔ (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Explanation: Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
6 of 449
Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
- Uracil
- Cytosine
- Guanine
- Thymine
Answer ✔ (c) Guanine
Explanation: Guanine is a purine.
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
7 of 449
Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of
- Peptidase
- Amylase
- Sucrose
- Lipase
Answer ✔ (b) Amylase
Explanation: Amylase
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
8 of 449
Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids
- Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
- Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
- Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
- Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer ✔ (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are false
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
9 of 449
Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
- End product
- External factors
- Enzyme
- Substrate
Answer ✔ (a) End product
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
10 of 449
Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
- Lactose
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Dextrin
Answer ✔ (a) Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide made up of glucose and galactose.
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
11 of 449
Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Inulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
12 of 449
Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
- Collagen
- Trypsin
- Myosin
- Actin
Answer ✔ (c) Myosin
Explanation: Myosin
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
13 of 449
Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______
- B1
- B2
- B3
- B12
Answer ✔ (c) B3
Explanation: B3 also named as niacin.
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
14 of 449
Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?
- Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Explanation: Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
15 of 449
Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of
- allosteric inhibition
- feedback inhibition
- uncompetitive inhibition
- competitive inhibition
Answer ✔ (d) competitive inhibition
Explanation: When substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, it completes the reaction.When inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, it blocks the reaction
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
16 of 449
Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is
- DNA polymerase
- carbonic anhydrase
- carbonic dehydrogenase
- DNA ligase
Answer ✔ (b) carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: The fastest enzyme known is carbonic anhydrase. It converts 106 molecules of carbon dioxide molecules per second.
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
17 of 449
Q.17 Lecithin is a
- polysaccharide
- protein
- nucleic acid
- lipid
Answer ✔ (d) lipid
Explanation: Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
18 of 449
Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called
- enzymatic energy
- activation energy
- substrate energy
- initiation energy
Answer ✔ (b) activation energy
Explanation: The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called activation energy
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
19 of 449
Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in
- Enhancing oxidative metabolism
- Being synthesised in the body of organisms
- Being proteinaceous
- Regulating metabolism
Answer ✔ (d) Regulating metabolism
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
20 of 449
Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
- Adenine, thymine, uracil
- Guanine, uracil
Answer ✔ (b) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Explanation: Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
21 of 449
Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________
- Saponins
- Tannins
- Secondary metabolite
- Primary metabolites
Answer ✔ (d) Primary metabolites
Explanation: Primary metabolites
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
22 of 449
Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to
- R groups of amino acids
- Sequence of amino acids
- Peptide bonds
- Amino groups of amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Sequence of amino acids
Explanation: Sequence of amino acids
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
23 of 449
Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that
- One strand turns anticlockwise
- Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
- Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
- One strand turns clockwise
Answer ✔ (b) Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Explanation: Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
24 of 449
Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves
- Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
- Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
- Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
- Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer ✔ (d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
25 of 449
Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Maltose
- Glucose
Answer ✔ (d) Glucose
Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
26 of 449
Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following
- enzyme
- substrate
- end products
- intermediate end products
Answer ✔ (c) end products
Explanation: end products
Zoology • Class 11th
27 of 449
Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
- succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
- cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
- hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
- carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Explanation: succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Zoology • Class 11th
28 of 449
Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Insulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose.
Zoology • Class 11th
29 of 449
Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
- lowering activation energy
- increasing activation energy
- increasing temperature and pH
- decreasing temperature and pH
Answer ✔ (a) lowering activation energy
Explanation: Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Zoology • Class 11th
30 of 449
Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
- Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
- Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
- Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
- Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Answer ✔ (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Explanation: Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Zoology • Class 11th
31 of 449
Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
- Uracil
- Cytosine
- Guanine
- Thymine
Answer ✔ (c) Guanine
Explanation: Guanine is a purine.
Zoology • Class 11th
32 of 449
Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of
- Peptidase
- Amylase
- Sucrose
- Lipase
Answer ✔ (b) Amylase
Explanation: Amylase
Zoology • Class 11th
33 of 449
Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids
- Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
- Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
- Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
- Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer ✔ (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are false
Zoology • Class 11th
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Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
- End product
- External factors
- Enzyme
- Substrate
Answer ✔ (a) End product
Zoology • Class 11th
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Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
- Lactose
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Dextrin
Answer ✔ (a) Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide made up of glucose and galactose.
Zoology • Class 11th
36 of 449
Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Inulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose
Zoology • Class 11th
37 of 449
Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
- Collagen
- Trypsin
- Myosin
- Actin
Answer ✔ (c) Myosin
Explanation: Myosin
Zoology • Class 11th
38 of 449
Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______
- B1
- B2
- B3
- B12
Answer ✔ (c) B3
Explanation: B3 also named as niacin.
Zoology • Class 11th
39 of 449
Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?
- Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Coenzyme ? Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Explanation: Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Zoology • Class 11th
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Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of
- allosteric inhibition
- feedback inhibition
- uncompetitive inhibition
- competitive inhibition
Answer ✔ (d) competitive inhibition
Explanation: When substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, it completes the reaction.When inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, it blocks the reaction
Zoology • Class 11th
41 of 449
Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is
- DNA polymerase
- carbonic anhydrase
- carbonic dehydrogenase
- DNA ligase
Answer ✔ (b) carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: The fastest enzyme known is carbonic anhydrase. It converts 106 molecules of carbon dioxide molecules per second.
Zoology • Class 11th
42 of 449
Q.17 Lecithin is a
- polysaccharide
- protein
- nucleic acid
- lipid
Answer ✔ (d) lipid
Explanation: Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Zoology • Class 11th
43 of 449
Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called
- enzymatic energy
- activation energy
- substrate energy
- initiation energy
Answer ✔ (b) activation energy
Explanation: The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called activation energy
Zoology • Class 11th
44 of 449
Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in
- Enhancing oxidative metabolism
- Being synthesised in the body of organisms
- Being proteinaceous
- Regulating metabolism
Answer ✔ (d) Regulating metabolism
Zoology • Class 11th
45 of 449
Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
- Adenine, thymine, uracil
- Guanine, uracil
Answer ✔ (b) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Explanation: Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Zoology • Class 11th
46 of 449
Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________
- Saponins
- Tannins
- Secondary metabolite
- Primary metabolites
Answer ✔ (d) Primary metabolites
Explanation: Primary metabolites
Zoology • Class 11th
47 of 449
Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to
- R groups of amino acids
- Sequence of amino acids
- Peptide bonds
- Amino groups of amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Sequence of amino acids
Explanation: Sequence of amino acids
Zoology • Class 11th
48 of 449
Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that
- One strand turns anticlockwise
- Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
- Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
- One strand turns clockwise
Answer ✔ (b) Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Explanation: Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Zoology • Class 11th
49 of 449
Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves
- Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
- Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
- Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
- Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer ✔ (d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Zoology • Class 11th
50 of 449
Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Maltose
- Glucose
Answer ✔ (d) Glucose
Zoology • Class 11th
51 of 449
Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
- It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
- It is a molecular disease.
- It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
- All of the above.
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
52 of 449
Q.2 The first genetic material could be
- protein
- cabohydrates
- DNA
- RNA
Answer ✔ (d) RNA
Explanation: The first genetic material could be RNA
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
53 of 449
Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
- chromosome 21 and Y
- chromosome 1 and X
- chromosome 1 and Y
- chromosome X and Y
Answer ✔ (c) chromosome 1 and Y
Explanation: chromosome 1 and Y is the correct answer.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
54 of 449
Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?
- Rosalind Franklin
- Maurice Wilkins
- Erwin Chargaff
- Meselson and Stahl
Answer ✔ (b) Maurice Wilkins
Explanation: Maurice Wilkins contributed in development of double helix model
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
55 of 449
Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?
- Initiation
- Elongation
- Termination
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
56 of 449
Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
- DNA-replication
- transcription
- translation
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) transcription
Explanation: It takes place at the level of transcription
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
57 of 449
Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
- Chromosome 1
- Chromosome 11
- Chromosome 21
- Chromosome X
Answer ✔ (d) Chromosome X
Explanation: Chromosome X was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
58 of 449
Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
- A – DNA
- B – DNA
- cDNA
- rDNA
Answer ✔ (c) cDNA
Explanation: Such a DNA is called cDNA
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
59 of 449
Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
- 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
- 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
- 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
- 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Answer ✔ (d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Explanation: Sequence will be 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
60 of 449
Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes
- the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
- the promoter and the terminator region
- the structural gene and the terminator region
- the structural gene only.
Answer ✔ (b) the promoter and the terminator region
Explanation: The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes the promoter and the terminator region
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
61 of 449
Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be
- 5’ – UAC – 3’
- 5’ – CAU – 3’
- 5’-AUG – 3’
- 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer ✔ (b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
62 of 449
Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
- 5’- end
- 3’ – end
- anticodon site
- DHUloop.
Answer ✔ (b) 3’ – end
Explanation: The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its 3’ – end
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
63 of 449
Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to
- the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
- the larger ribosomal sub-unit
- the whole ribosome
- no such specificity exists
Answer ✔ (a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Explanation: bind to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
64 of 449
Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
- lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
- repressor binds to operator
- RNA polymerase binds to the operator
- lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
Answer ✔ (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Explanation: In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
- glycosidic bonds
- phosphodiester bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
Answer ✔ (b) phosphodiester bonds
Explanation: In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by phosphodiester bonds
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
66 of 449
Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
- 20%
- 40%
- 30%
- 60%
Answer ✔ (c) 30%
Explanation: 30%
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
67 of 449
Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?
- ATGCATGCA
- AUGCAUGCA
- TACTACGT
- UACGUACGU
Answer ✔ (c) TACTACGT
Explanation: The sequence of bases on complementary strand TACTACGT
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
68 of 449
Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
- 2 nm
- 3.4 nm
- 34 nm
- 0.34 nm
Answer ✔ (d) 0.34 nm
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
69 of 449
Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
- central dogma reverse
- reverse transcription
- feminism
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.20 Histone proteins are
- basic, negatively charged
- basic, positively charged
- acidic, positively charged
- acidic, negatively charged
Answer ✔ (b) basic, positively charged
Explanation: Histone proteins are basic, positively charged
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
71 of 449
Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called
- nucleotides
- nucleosides
- histone octamer
- nucleosomes
Answer ✔ (d) nucleosomes
Explanation: seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called nucleosomes
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
- It is densely packed
- It stains dark
- It is transcriptionally active.
- It is late replicating
Answer ✔ (c) It is transcriptionally active.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
- transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
- structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
- Mendel’s laws of inheritance
- biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer ✔ (b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Explanation: They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
74 of 449
Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are
- phenylalanine and arginine
- tryptophan and methionine
- valine and proline
- methionine and aroinine
Answer ✔ (b) tryptophan and methionine
Explanation: Amino acids which are specified by single codons are tryptophan and methionine
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
75 of 449
Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
- Genetic code is ambiguous.
- Genetic code is deqenerate
- Genetic code is universal
- Genetic code is non-overlanning.
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
Explanation: Genetic code is ambiguous is incorrect.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic
- Aquatic amphibian
- Aquatic insect
- Bony fishes
- Mammal
Answer ✔ (d) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic
- Mammal
- Aquatic insect
- Terrestrial amphibian
- Marine fishes
Answer ✔ (b) Aquatic insect
Explanation: Aquatic insect is ammonotelic
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic
- Mammal
- Reptiles
- Birds
- Snails
Answer ✔ (a) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.4 Which among is the most toxic
- Ammonia
- Uric acid
- Urea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is the most toxic
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body
- Ammonia
- Urea
- Uric acid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Uric acid
Explanation: Uric acid is least toxic thus requires less water
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of
- Planaria
- Annelids
- Cockroach
- Rotifers
Answer ✔ (c) Cockroach
Explanation: They have malphigian body for excretion
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 11th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.7 Kidney is present between
- T12 L3
- T11 L2
- T 10 L1
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) T12 L3
Explanation: Present between last thoracic and third lumbar
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Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism
- Earthworm
- Prawn
- Cockroach
- Planaria
Answer ✔ (b) Prawn
Explanation: Planaria have flame cells, cockroach have malphigian tubules and earthworm have nephridia
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Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney
- 80-90g
- 120-150g
- 110-120g
- 120-170g
Answer ✔ (d) 120-170g
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Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons
- 1 million
- 2 million
- 2 thousand
- 2 hundred
Answer ✔ (b) 2 million
Explanation: 2 million nephrons are present in each kidney
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Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney
- Nephrons
- Cell
- Neurons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Nephrons
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Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as
- Malphigian body
- Renal corpuscle
- Malphigian capsule
- Both b and c
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Malphigian capsul is an excretory structure.
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Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Juxta medullary nephron
Explanation: Cortical nephron is short in length
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Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case
- Renal calculi
- Renal failure
- Uremia
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Renal failure
Explanation: A functioning kidney is used in transplantation
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Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water
- Descending loop
- Ascending loop
- Both the loops
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Descending loop
Explanation: Only descending loop of henle is permeable to water.
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Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
- Pineal gland
- Pancreas
- Gall bladder
- Sweat glands
Answer ✔ (d) Sweat glands
Explanation: Sweat glands release these substances
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Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as
- Ketonuria
- Glycosides
- Glycosuria
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Glycosuria
Explanation: Ketonuria is presence of ketone body in urine
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Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Renal calculi
- Glomerulonephritis
Answer ✔ (d) Glomerulonephritis
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Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Vasoconstriction
Explanation: It only cause vasoconstriction
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Q.20 ANF can cause
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasodilation
Explanation: It only cause vasodilation
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Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is
- 180 L
- 150L
- 130L
- 120L
Answer ✔ (a) 180 L
Explanation: Its approx 125 ml/min I.e 180L per day
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Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following
- DCT
- Both a and c
- PCT
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) PCT
Explanation: In DCT columnar cells are present w/o cilia
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Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute
- 500-800ml
- 1100- 1200ml
- 1500-1700ml
- 1600-1800ml
Answer ✔ (b) 1100- 1200ml
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Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Cortical nephron
Explanation: Its absent or highly reduced in cortical nephron
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Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the
- Haversian canal
- endosteum
- red bone marrow
- pancreas
Answer ✔ (c) red bone marrow
Explanation: red bone marrow
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Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?
- Webbed feet
- Copulatory pads
- Tympanum
- All are present
Answer ✔ (b) Copulatory pads
Explanation: Copulatory pads are absent in female frog.These are present on the first digit of the fore limbs.
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Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in
- blood
- muscle
- Bone
- catrilage
Answer ✔ (c) Bone
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Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.
- Vascular system of frog is closed type.
- Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
- During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
- All the statements are correct
Answer ✔ (b) Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
Explanation: Vascular system of frogs is closed and they have 3-chambered heart.
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Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?
- Bowman scapsule
- Loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Collecting ducts
Answer ✔ (d) Collecting ducts
Explanation: Collecting ducts
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Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in
- fallopian tubes
- blood vessels
- mid brain
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) fallopian tubes
Explanation: Ciliated epithelium is present in inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles ando fallopian tubes.
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Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of
- RBC
- plasma
- platelets
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: all of the above
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Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water.
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Q.9 Fats are richly found in
- alveolar tissue
- lymph glands
- adipose tissue
- liver cells
Answer ✔ (c) adipose tissue
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Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is
- the exchange of respiratory gases
- the storage of fat
- the storage of energy
- to convert light vitamin D
Answer ✔ (a) the exchange of respiratory gases
Explanation: the exchange of respiratory gases
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Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in
- trachea
- ureter
- bile duct
- intestines
Answer ✔ (a) trachea
Explanation: trachea
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Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?
- Bartholin
- Anal
- Prostate
- Adrenal
Answer ✔ (b) Anal
Explanation: Anal
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Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that
- the cells are loosely placed
- they are single – layered in thickness
- cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
- cells are generally ciliated
Answer ✔ (b) they are single – layered in thickness
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Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :
- sublingual
- adrenal
- Brunners
- lacrimal
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual
Explanation: sublingual
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Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is
- actin
- ossein
- collagen
- elastin
Answer ✔ (a) actin
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Q.16 Tendons connect the following
- bone to bone
- muscle to muscle
- cartilage to muscle
- bone to muscle
Answer ✔ (d) bone to muscle
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Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because
- they protect crops
- they links food web
- they are food to man.
- all of these
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Frogs are beneficial to man because they protect crops and eat insects.They maintain ecological balance.They link food chain and food web.Muscular leg of frog is used as food by man
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Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water
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Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?
- Clitellum
- Setae
- Intersegmental grooves
- Nephridiophores
Answer ✔ (c) Intersegmental grooves
Explanation: Setae helps in locomotion of earthworms
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Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?
- Phallic gland
- Vestibulum
- Gonapophyses
- Collaterial glands
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Phallic gland is a part of male reproductive system of cockroach.It helps in formation of spermatophores
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Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified
- Sweat glands
- Mucous glands
- Sebaceous glands
- Sudoriferous glands
Answer ✔ (c) Sebaceous glands
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Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is
- Muscle tissue
- Nervous tissue
- Connective tissue
- Epithelial tissue
Answer ✔ (c) Connective tissue
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Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is
- Squamous epithelium
- Cuboidal epithelium
- Columnar epithelium
- Ciliated columnar epithelium
Answer ✔ (c) Columnar epithelium
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Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the
- Respiration
- Urine
- Skin
- Stool
Answer ✔ (c) Skin
Explanation: Skin
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Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material
- Striated muscle
- Areolar tissue
- Stratified epithelium
- Myelinated nerve fibres
Answer ✔ (b) Areolar tissue
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Q.1 Radula is found in
- Pila sp
- Chiton sp
- Lamellidens sp
- Pinctada sp
Answer ✔ (a) Pila sp
Explanation: Pila sp.
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Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes
- Jawless
- Bony
- Cartilaginous
- Freshwater
Answer ✔ (c) Cartilaginous
Explanation: Cartilaginous
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Q.3 Turtles are
- Arthropods
- Pisces
- Reptiles
- Molluscs
Answer ✔ (c) Reptiles
Explanation: Reptiles
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Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of
- labial palps
- one pair of ganglia
- two pairs of ganglia
- three pairs of ganglia
Answer ✔ (d) three pairs of ganglia
Explanation: hree pairs of ganglia
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Q.5 Choose the correct pair.
- Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
- Rana – 2-chambered heart
- Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
- Pavo – 3-chambered heart
Answer ✔ (c) Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
Explanation: Crocodilus (crocodile) belongs to class reptilia. It is an exception in reptiles.
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Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?
- Lamarck
- Darwin
- Wallace
- Linnaeus
Answer ✔ (d) Linnaeus
Explanation: Linnaeus
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Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?
- Platypus lays eggs
- Camels have biconcave RBCs
- Whales respire by gills
- Bats do not fly
Answer ✔ (a) Platypus lays eggs
Explanation: Platypus lays eggs
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Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to
- class amphibia
- super class pisces
- super class tetrapoda
- division agnatha
Answer ✔ (b) super class pisces
Explanation: super class pisces
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Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?
- Mammalia : give birth to young ones
- Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
- Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
- Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Answer ✔ (d) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Explanation: Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
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Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Echinodermata
- Nematoda
Answer ✔ (d) Nematoda
Explanation: Nematoda
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Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?
- Platyhelminthes
- Aschelminthes
- Mollusca
- Hemi-chordates
Answer ✔ (b) Aschelminthes
Explanation: Aschelminthes is a pseudocoelomate.
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Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?
- Bilateral
- Radial
- Asymmetry
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Radial
Explanation: Radial
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Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is
- Platyhelminthes
- Annelida
- Echinoderms
- Arthropoda
Answer ✔ (a) Platyhelminthes
Explanation: Platyhelminthes
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Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on
- Garbage
- Human blood
- Flower sap
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Flower sap
Explanation: Flower sap
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Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of
- Typhoid
- Yellow fever
- Typhus
- Trench fever
Answer ✔ (c) Typhus
Explanation: Typhus
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Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
- Ventral nerve cord
- Closed circulatory system
- Segmentation
- Pseudocoelom
Answer ✔ (d) Pseudocoelom
Explanation: Pseudocoelom
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Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.
- Threadworms
- Sponges
- Tapeworms
- Liver fluke
Answer ✔ (b) Sponges
Explanation: Sponges
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Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans
- Blood
- Bile
- Digestive tract
- Lung
Answer ✔ (c) Digestive tract
Explanation: Digestive tract
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Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in
- Sea-anemone
- Sea-pen
- Sea-cucumber
- Sea-horse
Answer ✔ (c) Sea-cucumber
Explanation: Sea-cucumber
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Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of
- Tuataras
- Lizards and snakes
- Turtles and tortoises
- Crocodiles, alligators, caimans
Answer ✔ (a) Tuataras
Explanation: Tuataras
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Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito
- Sporozoites
- Ookinetes
- Oocystes
- Merozoites
Answer ✔ (d) Merozoites
Explanation: Merozoites
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Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Cnidaria
- Echinodermata
Answer ✔ (d) Echinodermata
Explanation: Echinodermata
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Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs
- Pulmonary vein
- Hepatic vein
- Carotid artery
- Pulmonary artery
Answer ✔ (d) Pulmonary artery
Explanation: Pulmonary artery
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Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is
- Urea
- Ammonia
- Both A and B
- None
Answer ✔ (a) Urea
Explanation: Urea
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Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
- Aschelminthes (round worms)
- Ctenophores
- Sponges
- Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Answer ✔ (a) Aschelminthes (round worms)
Explanation: Aschelminthes (round worms)
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Q.1 Which among the following does not exchange o2 with CO2 through simple diffusion
- Earthworms
- Earthworms
- Sponges
- Flatworms
Answer ✔ (b) Earthworms
Explanation: They use moist cuticle for exchange
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Q.2 Which among the following have well developed respiratory system
- Cockroaches
- Earthworms
- Sponges
- Mammals
Answer ✔ (d) Mammals
Explanation: Mammals well developed system includes lungs, alveoli, bronchi and bronchioles
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Q.3 How many lobes are present in right lung
- 2
- 5
- 3
- 4
Answer ✔ (c) 3
Explanation: Left lung is 2 lobed whereas right lung is 3 lobed
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Q.4 Name a sound box which is responsible for sound production
- Pharynx
- Larynx
- Epiglottis
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Larynx
Explanation: Pharynx is common passage for food and air, epiglottis prevent entry of food into wind pipe
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Q.5 Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by
- Vertebral column
- Sternum
- Ribs
- Diaphragm
Answer ✔ (a) Vertebral column
Explanation: Sternum is ventrally formed, ribs laterally and diaphragm on the lower side
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Q.6 Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs is
- More than atm pressure
- Less tha atm pressure
- Equal to atm pressure
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Less tha atm pressure
Explanation: If the pressure is more than expiration occurs
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Q.7 The part starting from external nostril upto terminal bronchioles is known as
- Conducting part
- Exchange part
- Respiratory part
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Conducting part
Explanation: Alveoli and their ducts form exchange or the respiratory part
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Q.8 What is the structural and functional unit of lungs
- Bronchioles
- Alveoli
- Bronchi
- Both a and c
Answer ✔ (b) Alveoli
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Q.9 On an average healthy human breathes how many times per minute
- 12-16
- 15-16
- 20-25
- 72
Answer ✔ (a) 12-16
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Q.10 What is the inspiratory reserve volume
- 2500-3000 ml
- 500 ml
- 1000-1100 ml
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) 2500-3000 ml
Explanation: 500ml is tidal volume, 1000-1100 ml is expiratory reserve volume
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Q.11 Volume air inspired or expired during normal respiration is known as
- TV
- IRV
- ERV
- RV
Answer ✔ (a) TV
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Q.12 which among the following is measured by spirometer
- Total lung capacity
- FRC
- RV
- TV
Answer ✔ (d) TV
Explanation: Rest all aren?t measured by spirometer
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Q.13 Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gas is known as
- Partial pressure
- Diffusion pressure
- Osmotic pressure
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Partial pressure
Explanation: Partial pressure is exerted by individual gases
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Q.14 Solubility of CO2 is how many times higher than O2
- 10-15
- 30-40
- 20-21
- 20-25
Answer ✔ (d) 20-25
Explanation: Its 20-25 times higher
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Q.15 What is the partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere
- 156
- 159
- 94
- 40
Answer ✔ (b) 159
Explanation: O2 pressure is 159 and co2 is 0.3
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Q.16 What is the partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood
- 45
- 40
- 95
- 43
Answer ✔ (b) 40
Explanation: C02 pressure in deoxy blood is 45
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Q.17 How many percent of co2 is carried by plasma in dissolved form
- 6
- 7
- 20-25
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) 7
Explanation: 7 percent is carried by plasma
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Q.18 How many percent of co2 is carried as bicarbonate
- 50
- 97
- 70
- 25
Answer ✔ (c) 70
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Q.19 Every 100ml of deoxy blood delivers approx
- 2ml of co2 to alveoli
- 3 of co2 to alveoli
- 4ml of co2 to alveoli
- 7ml of co2 to alveoli
Answer ✔ (c) 4ml of co2 to alveoli
Explanation: It delivers of 4ml of co2
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Q.20 RBC contains very high quantity of which enzyme
- Carbonic anhydrase
- Lysosome
- Ligase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: Only carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC
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Q.21 which among the following is caused due to decreased respiratory surface area
- Astma
- Emphysema
- Sclerosis
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Emphysema
Explanation: Astma occurs due to inflammation of bronchioles
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Q.22 Whose role in respiratory rhythm regulation is insignificant
- Co2
- O2
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) O2
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Q.23 Pneumotaxic centre is present in which region of brain
- Medulla
- Hypothalamus
- Pons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Pons
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Q.24 Which type of curve is formed when percent of haemoglobin is plotted against po2
- Straight line
- Hyperbola
- Sigmoid
- Parabola
Answer ✔ (c) Sigmoid
Explanation: Sigmoid curve is obtained
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Q.25 which among the following is responsible to shift o2 dissociation curve right
- High Pco2
- Low pco2
- Low H+
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) High Pco2
Explanation: Option b and c shift the curve left
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Q.1 Each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone known as
- Thecodont
- Diphyodont
- Heterodont
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Reference ncert last para
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Q.2 A cartilagenous flap which prevents entry of food
- Glottis
- Pyloric spincter
- Epiglottis
- Cardiac spincter
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Epiglottis prevent entry of food into glottis
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Q.3 Where is paratoid salivary gland is situated
- Lower jaw
- Below tongue
- Upper jaw
- Cheek
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Its situated in cheek
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Q.4 The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into which region of intestine
- Jejunum
- Ileum
- Duodenum
- Cardiac
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: It opens in duodenum as hepato- pancreatic duct
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Q.5 Which kind of gland is pancreas
- Exocrine
- Endocrine
- Compound gland
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (C)
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Q.6 Which cell is responsible for secretion of HCL and intrinsic factors
- Parietal cell
- Chief cell
- Mucus cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.7 Which enzyme is responsible for digestion of milk protein in infants
- Renin
- Rennin
- Proteoses
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin
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Q.8 Which enzyme converts polysaccharides into disaccharides
- Amylases
- Lipases
- Salivary amylase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.9 Which enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice
- Lipases
- Amylase
- Nucleases
- Nucleosides
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Its present in intestinal juice
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Q.10 Which pH is optimum for salivary amylase to work
- 6.8
- 5.8
- 3.8
- 8
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.11 Absorption of water in large intestine is done by
- Chief cells
- Haustra cells
- Parietal cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: These cells absorb water and minerals
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Q.12 Glucose and amino acids are transported by which transport
- Facilitated diffusion
- Diffusion
- Active transport
- Passive transport
Answer ✔ (c) Active transport
Explanation: amino acid and glucose are transported by "active" transport.
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Q.13 Fructose are transported by which mechanism
- Passive transport
- Active transport
- Diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: These are transported by facilitated
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Q.14 Which is not present in bile juice
- Bile pigments
- Enzymes
- Bile salts
- Cholesterol
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Enzymes are absent in bile
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Q.15 Maltase converts maltose into
- glucose+ glucose
- Glucose + fructose
- Glucose + galactose
- Fatty acids+ glycerol
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.16 How many salivary glans are present
- 2
- 3
- 4
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Paratoid , maxillary, sub lingual
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Q.17 The small finger like foldings in small intestine is called
- Rugae
- Villi
- Botha a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Rug is present in stomach
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Q.18 Crypts in between bases of villi in intestine are known as
- Crypts of lieberkuhn
- Crypts of intestine
- Crypts of stomach
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.19 What are the structural and functional units of liver
- Hepatic cells
- Hepatic lobules
- Hepatic glands
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Hepatic lobules are the functional and structural unit of liver
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Q.20 Duct of paratoid gland are known as
- Rhenius
- Stensons
- Warton
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Rhenius is duct for sub lingual and warton is for sub maxillary
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Q.21 Which is not the part of stomach
- Cardiac
- Pyloric
- Funds
- Ileum
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Its the part of small intestine
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Q.22 Enamel is originated from which cell
- Amiloblast cell
- Odontioblast cell
- Chief cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.23 Dentine is originated from which cell
- Amiloblast cell
- Odontioblast cell
- Chief cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.24 In which condition the food is not digested properly leading to feeling of fullness
- Indigestion
- Constipation
- Diarrhoea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.25 In which condition the faeces are retained in the rectum as the bowel movement occur irregularly
- Indigestion
- Constipation
- Diarrhoea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.1 Which hormones is a stress hormone
- Norepinephrine
- Androgen
- Cortisol
- FSH
Answer ✔ (a) Norepinephrine
Explanation: Epinephrine and norepinephrine is released during emergency or stress.
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Q.2 Secretin cause stimulation of
- Bile juice
- Water
- Gastric secretion
- Pepsinogen
Answer ✔ (b) Water
Explanation: It acts on exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions
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Q.3 In adults insufficient thyroxine lead to
- Myxoedema
- Goitre
- Tetany
- Cretinism
Answer ✔ (a) Myxoedema
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Q.4 In the body both blood sodium and potassium is regulated by
- Pheromones
- Aldosterone
- Cortisols
- Androgens
Answer ✔ (b) Aldosterone
Explanation: Aldosterone is released
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Q.5 Chemical name of T4 is
- Tetradiodothyronine
- Tridiodothyronine
- Tetraiodothyronine
- Triiodothyronine
Answer ✔ (c) Tetraiodothyronine
Explanation: T3 is triiodothyronine and T4 is tetraiodothronine
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Q.6 Anabolic steroids are ___ versions of testosterone
- Effective
- Synthetic
- Natural
- Ineffective
Answer ✔ (b) Synthetic
Explanation: Synthetic
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Q.7 which of the following acts on bones
- Melatonin
- Triiodothyronine
- GH
- Parathyroid
Answer ✔ (d) Parathyroid
Explanation: Parathyroid hormone also stimulates bone reabsorption
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Q.8 Glucagon hormone is secreted by
- Thyroid gland
- Pituitary
- Adrenal
- Pancreas
Answer ✔ (d) Pancreas
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Q.9 Which of the following is male sex organs
- Insulins
- Aldosterone
- Androgens
- Pheromones
Answer ✔ (c) Androgens
Explanation: Rest all are not male sex organs
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Q.10 Choose the incorrect statement
- Hormones are non-nutrients chemicals
- Exocrine glands are ductless glands
- Invertebrates have simple endocrine system
- All of the above statements are incorrect
Answer ✔ (b) Exocrine glands are ductless glands
Explanation: Endocrine are ductless glands
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Q.11 Endemic goitre is a state of
- Increased thyroid function
- Normal thyroid function
- Decreased thyroid function
- Moderate thyroid function
Answer ✔ (c) Decreased thyroid function
Explanation: Decreased thyroid function
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Q.12 PTH is called hypercalcemic hormone because it leads to
- Absorption of CaCo3 from digested food
- Reabsorption of water from renal tubules
- Increasing blood calcium levels
- Maintain ion balance in blood
Answer ✔ (c) Increasing blood calcium levels
Explanation: This is called so because PTH stimulates reabsorption of calcium by renal tubules and increase calcium reabsorption from digested food
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Q.13 Corpus leuteum secretes
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- Vasopressin
- Glucagon
Answer ✔ (a) Progesterone
Explanation: After ovulation follicles convert into corpus leuteum and release progesterone
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Q.14 In children hypothyroidism lead to
- Goitre
- Acromegaly
- Cretinism
- Myxoedema
Answer ✔ (c) Cretinism
Explanation: Cretinism
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Q.15 Diurnal rhythm of body is maintained by
- Melatonin
- Isthmus
- PTH
- Norepinephrine
Answer ✔ (a) Melatonin
Explanation: Melatonin is released by pineal gland
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Q.16 Which hormone inhibits release of growth hormone
- Insulin
- Gonadotrophin
- Somatostatin
- Thymosin
Answer ✔ (c) Somatostatin
Explanation: Somatostatin is released from hypothalamus
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Q.17 Which of the following is essential for thyroid gland
- nacl
- I3
- CaCo2
- H2Co3
Answer ✔ (b) I3
Explanation: Iodine is essential for thyroid gland
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Q.18 Testorone is produced by
- Leydigs cell
- Pituitary gland
- Both a and b
- Non of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Leydigs cell
Explanation: Leydig cell
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Q.19 The phase of menstrual cycle that last for 7-8 days are
- Ovulatory
- Menstruation
- Luteal
- Follicular
Answer ✔ (a) Ovulatory
Explanation: Ovulatory phase
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Q.20 Blood pressure is under control of
- Pituitary
- Adrenal
- Thymus
- Thyroid
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenal
Explanation: Adrenal gland regulates bp
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Q.21 Master endocrine gland is
- Pituitary
- Parathyroid
- Thyroid
- Pineal
Answer ✔ (a) Pituitary
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Q.22 Largest completely endocrine gland is
- Adrenal
- Thyroid
- Pituitary
- Parathyroid
Answer ✔ (b) Thyroid
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Q.23 Implantation of embryo and placentation is under control of
- FSH
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Estradiol
Answer ✔ (c) Progesterone
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Q.24 Insulin is secreted by
- Acinus
- A cells
- P cells
- Y cells
Answer ✔ (c) P cells
Explanation: P cells
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Q.25 Hormones are
- Excretory pdt
- Enzymatory pdt
- Chemical messenger
- Nerve impulse
Answer ✔ (c) Chemical messenger
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Q.1 Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?
- Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
- Pupil constriction
- Acceleration of heart beat
- Contraction of hair muscles
Answer ✔ (b) Pupil constriction
Explanation: Pupil constriction
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Q.2 During resting state, fluid outside axon contains
- low concentration of K+
- low concentration of Na+
- low concentration of Cl–
- high concentration of Cl–
Answer ✔ (a) low concentration of K+
Explanation: During resting state (when neuron is not conducting any impulse), axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+ The fluid outside axon contains low concentration of K+.
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Q.3 The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.
- Cerebellum
- Medulla oblongata
- Cerebral cortex
- Thalamus
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Medulla oblongata
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Q.4 The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of
- Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
- A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
- A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
- Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions
Answer ✔ (c) A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
Explanation: A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
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Q.5 The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except
- Generation of end-plate potential
- Release of calcium from troponin
- Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
- Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP
Answer ✔ (b) Release of calcium from troponin
Explanation: Release of calcium from troponin
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Q.6 Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness?
- Thalamus
- Reticular formation
- Hypothalamus
- Limbic system
Answer ✔ (d) Limbic system
Explanation: Limbic system
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Q.7 Vestibular apparatus is made up of three semi circular canals. These canals lies at ____ degree angle to each other.
- 30
- 45
- 60
- 90
Answer ✔ (d) 90
Explanation: Semicircular canals lies at right angle to each other.
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Q.8 At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.
- Acetylcholine
- Epinephrine
- Adrenaline
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine
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Q.9 There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
- 8
- 12
- 18
- 25
Answer ✔ (b) 12
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Q.10 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
- Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
- Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
- Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
- Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Answer ✔ (a) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
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Q.11 Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
- Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
- Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
- Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
- Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
Answer ✔ (b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
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Q.12 The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to
- Initiate the heart beat
- Reduce the heart beat
- Accelerate the heart beat
- Maintain constant heart beat
Answer ✔ (b) Reduce the heart beat
Explanation: Reduce the heart beat
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Q.13 Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?
- Abducens nerve
- Oculomotor nerve
- Olfactory nerve
- Trigeminal nerve
Answer ✔ (d) Trigeminal nerve
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Q.14 Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?
- Peristalsis
- Digestion
- Excretion
- Memory and learning
Answer ✔ (d) Memory and learning
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Q.15 Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are regulated by ______ system.
- Parasympathetic
- Sympathetic
- Central nervous
- Autonomic
Answer ✔ (d) Autonomic
Explanation: Functions of skeletal muscles is controlled by CNS
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Q.16 Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?
- Satellite cells
- Schwann cells
- Both (A) and (B)
- Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer ✔ (b) Schwann cells
Explanation: Myelin sheath is produced by schwan cells
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Q.17 Which layer is in contact with brain tissues?
- Piamater
- Arachnoid
- Duramater
- Piamater and Arachnoid
Answer ✔ (a) Piamater
Explanation: Brain is covered by cranial meninges.1) Duramater (outer)2) Arachnoid (middle)3) Piamater (inner)- in contact with brain tissues)
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Q.18 The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is
- Medulla oblongata
- Thalamus
- Cerebral cortex
- Meninges
Answer ✔ (c) Cerebral cortex
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Q.19 Find the odd one.
- Schwann cells
- Nissl s granules
- nephrons
- synaptic knob
Answer ✔ (c) nephrons
Explanation: Schwann cells, Nissl s granules and synaptic knobs are the parts of neurons.
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Q.20 Select the correct statement from the ones given below
- Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
- Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
- Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
- Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
Answer ✔ (c) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
Explanation: Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
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Q.21 cyton has
- Single nucleus
- Double nucleus
- Three nucleus
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Single nucleus
Explanation: It only have one nucleus
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Q.22 Neurons are excitable cells because the membrane is
- Non polar
- Apolar
- polar
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) polar
Explanation: Membranes are in polarised state
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Q.23 In Na-K pump how much ions of Na are transported outwards
- 2
- 3
- 6
- 5
Answer ✔ (b) 3
Explanation: 2
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Q.24 Which among is faster impulse transmission
- Chemical
- Both
- Electrical
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Electrical
Explanation: Electrical signal is faster
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Q.25 Which is not part of brain stem
- Pons
- Medulla
- Mid brain
- Cerebellum
Answer ✔ (d) Cerebellum
Explanation: Cerebellum is not part of brain stem
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Q.1 Which of the following groups is formed only of the hermaphrodite organisms?
- Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog
- Earthworm, tapeworm, seahorse housefly
- Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm
- Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge
Answer ✔ (d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge
Explanation: roundworm, housefly, frog, seahorse aren’t hermaphrodite
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Q.2 Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only?
- Amoeba, sponge, leech
- Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
- Earthworm, sponge, leech
- Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Amoeba,cockroach, honeybee,Tapeworm aren’t bisexual.
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Q.3 Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.
- Cucurbits and coconuts are monoecious plants
- Papayas and date palms are dioecious plants.
- Leeches and tapeworms are bisexual animals.
- Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals
Answer ✔ (d) Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals
Explanation: Sponges and coelenterates are bisexual animals
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Q.4 Meiosis does not occur in
- asexually reproducing diploid individuals
- sexually reproducing haploid individuals
- sexually reproducing diploid individuals
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (a) asexually reproducing diploid individuals
Explanation: It occurs in all except asexually reproducing diploid individuals
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Q.5 A diploid parent plant body produces ________ gametes and a haploid parent plant body produces ________gametes.
- diploid, haploid
- haploid, diploid
- diploid, diploid
- haploid, haploid
Answer ✔ (d) haploid, haploid
Explanation: haploid, haploid
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Q.6 Which of the following organisms has the highest number of chromosomes?
- Housefly
- Butterfly
- Ophioglossum
- Onion
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Ophioglossum has 1260 chromosomes.
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Q.7 In maize, a meiocyte has 20 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in its somatic cell?
- 40
- 30
- 20
- 10
Answer ✔ (c) 20
Explanation: 20
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Q.8 If a butterfly has chromosome number 360 in its meiocyte (2n). What will be the chromosome number in its gametes?
- 190
- 380
- 95
- 760
Answer ✔ (a) 190
Explanation: 190
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Q.9 In flowering plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile. The method to bring them together for fertilisation is
- water
- air
- pollination
- apomixis
Answer ✔ (c) pollination
Explanation: pollination is the only method to bring fertilisation
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Q.10 In which of the following plants, sepals do not fall off after fertilisation and remain attached to the fruit?
- brinjal
- cucumber
- papaya
- Bitter gourd
Answer ✔ (a) brinjal
Explanation: brinjal sepals do not fall off after fertilisation and remain attached to the fruit
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Q.11 The wall of the ovary forms
- pericarp
- fruit wall
- fruit
- both (a) and (b).
Answer ✔ (d) both (a) and (b).
Explanation: both (a) and (b).
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Q.12 The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because
- offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
- DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
- offspring are formed at different times
- DNA of parent and offspring are completely different
Answer ✔ (a) offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
Explanation: Because offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
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Q.13 The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively
- 12, 24, 12
- 24, 12, 12
- 12, 24, 24
- 24, 12, 24
Answer ✔ (c) 12, 24, 24
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Q.14 Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane and ginger is mainly because
- nodes are shorter than intemodes
- nodes have meristematic cells
- nodes are located near the soil
- nodes have non-photosynthetic cells.
Answer ✔ (b) nodes have meristematic cells
Explanation: nodes have meristematic cells
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Q.15 There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because
- they cannot reproduce sexually
- they reproduce be binary fission
- parental body is distributed among the offspring
- they are microscopic.
Answer ✔ (c) parental body is distributed among the offspring
Explanation: because parental body is distributed among the offspring
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Q.16 There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on
- the habitat and morphology of the organism
- morphology of the organism
- morphology and physiology of the organism
- the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
Answer ✔ (d) the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
Explanation: It depends on the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
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Q.17 Which of the following is a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants?
- Transfer of pollen grains
- Embryo development
- Formation of flower
- Formation of pollen grains
Answer ✔ (b) Embryo development
Explanation: Only Embryo development comes under post fertilisation event.
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Q.18 The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosomes in the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall be
- 20
- 10
- 40
- 15
Answer ✔ (a) 20
Explanation: 20
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Q.19 The growth phase of an organism before attaining sexual maturity is referred to as
- juvenile phase
- vegetative phase
- both (a) and (b)
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) both (a) and (b)
Explanation: both (a) and (b)
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Q.20 Select the monocarpic plant out of the following.
- Bamboo
- Litchi
- Mango
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (a) Bamboo
Explanation: Bamboo is the monocarpic plant
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Q.21 Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases cannot be observed in
- annual plants
- perennial plants
- biennial plants
- ephemeral plants.
Answer ✔ (b) perennial plants
Explanation: In perennial Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases
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Q.22 Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in
- 5 years
- 12 years
- 20 years
- 50 years
Answer ✔ (b) 12 years
Explanation: 12 years
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Q.23 Strobilanthus kunthiana differs from bamboo in
- being monocarpic
- length of juvenile phase
- being polycarpic
- none of these.
Answer ✔ (b) length of juvenile phase
Explanation: length of juvenile phase
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Q.24 Oestrous cycle is reported in
- cows and sheep
- humans and monkeys
- chimpanzees and gorillas
- none of these.
Answer ✔ (a) cows and sheep
Explanation: Rest doesn’t show oestrous cycle
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Q.25 Which of the following animals show menstrual cycle?
- Gorillas and chimpanzees
- Monkeys and humans
- Orangutans and monkeys
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: All of these
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Q.1 IUDs prevent pregnancy by
- inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation
- increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
- suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
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Q.2 Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
- prevent ovulation
- make uterus unsuitable for implantation
- decrease phagocytosis of sperms
- suppress sperm motility
Answer ✔ (d) suppress sperm motility
Explanation: Cu suppress sperm motility
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Q.3 Confirmatory test for STDs is
- ELISA
- PCR
- DNA hybridisation
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
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Q.4 Hepatitis B is transmitted through
- blood transfusion
- intimate physical contact
- sexual contact
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
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Q.5 Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?
- Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
- Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
- AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
- AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Answer ✔ (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Explanation: AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B aren’t curable.
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Q.6 World AIDS day is
- Dec 21
- Dec 1
- Nov 1
- Jun 11
Answer ✔ (b) Dec 1
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Q.7 In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube ?
- Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
- Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
- Embro of 32 cell stage
- Zygote only
Answer ✔ (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Explanation: Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
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Q.8 From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs
- Syphilis
- AIDS
- Gonorrhea
- Genital warts
Answer ✔ (b) AIDS
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Q.9 Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
- These are effective barriers for insemination
- They do not interfere with coital act
- These help in reducing the risk of STDs
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
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Q.10 The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
- ovariectomy
- hysterectomy
- vasectomy
- castration
Answer ✔ (c) vasectomy
Explanation: Corect method is vasectomy
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Q.11 RCH stands for
- routine check-up of health
- reproduction cum hygiene
- reversible contraceptive hazards
- reproductive and child health care
Answer ✔ (d) reproductive and child health care
Explanation: It stands for reproductive and child health care
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Q.12 Amminocentesis is a technique used to
- determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
- pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
- determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
- all of these
Answer ✔ (a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
Explanation: It determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
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Q.13 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
- Jaundice
- Down’s syndrome
- Cystic fibrosis
- Colourblindness
Answer ✔ (a) Jaundice
Explanation: Jaundice can’t be determined.
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Q.14 In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?
- 12th – 14th week
- 8th – 10th week
- 5th – 7th week
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) 8th – 10th week
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Q.15 Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
- increase in birth rate
- decrease in death rate
- lack of education
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (d) all of these.
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Q.16 Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?
- Natality and immigration
- Mortality and emigration
- Natality and emigration
- Mortality and immigration
Answer ✔ (a) Natality and immigration
Explanation: Natality and immigration contributes to an increase in population
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Q.17 Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?
- It increases the poverty of a country
- It leads to shortage of food supply
- It results in unemployment
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.18 The best way to decrease population of a country is
- to educate people
- to have better houses
- to kill people on a large scale
- to practice and implement familay planning
Answer ✔ (d) to practice and implement familay planning
Explanation: It can be decreased by family planning
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Q.19 Which of the following correctly describes the measures hat can be used to control over-population ?
- Educating people about the advantages of a small family
- Raising the age of marriage
- Encouraging family planning programme
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.20 Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?
- User-friendly
- Irreversible
- Easily available
- Least side-effects
Answer ✔ (b) Irreversible
Explanation: It should be reversible
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Q.21 Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ?
- Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
- Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial
- HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
- Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not
Answer ✔ (c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
Explanation: HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
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Q.22 Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria only ?
- Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
- Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
- Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
- Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis
Answer ✔ (a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Explanation: Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
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Q.23 The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
- who cannot produce an ovum
- who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
- who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
- all of these
Answer ✔ (a) who cannot produce an ovum
Explanation: It is used where who cannot produce an ovum
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Q.24 Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment ?
- IUD
- GIFT
- IUI
- IUI
Answer ✔ (b) GIFT
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Q.25 Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
- suppression of gonadotropins
- hypersecretion of gonadotropins
- suppression of gametic transport
- suppression of fertilisation
Answer ✔ (a) suppression of gonadotropins
Explanation: Because of suppression of gonadotropins
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Q.1 Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle
- at the mind secretory phase
- just before the end of the secretory phase
- at the beginning of the proliferative phase
- at the end of the proliferative phase
Answer ✔ (d) at the end of the proliferative phase
Explanation: It takes place at the end of the proliferative phase.
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Q.2 After ovulation Graafian follicle regreses into
- corpus atresia
- corpus callosum
- corpus luteum
- corpus albicans
Answer ✔ (c) corpus luteum
Explanation: Graafian follicle regreses into corpus luteum
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Q.3 Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as
- chorion
- zona pellucida
- corona radiata
- vitelline membrane.
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: membrane is known as vitelline membrane.
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Q.4 Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle ?
- Release of egg : 5 th day
- Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 days
- Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation: 11 – 18 days
- Rise in progesterone level : 1 – 15 days
Answer ✔ (b) Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 days
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Q.5 If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely ?
- Corpus luteum will distintegrate.
- Progesterone secretion rapidly declines.
- Estrogen secretion increases.
- Primary follicle starts developing
Answer ✔ (c) Estrogen secretion increases.
Explanation: Estrogen secretion increases and menstruation occurs
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Q.6 A human female reaches menopause aroung the age of__ yrs
- 50
- 15
- 70
- 25
Answer ✔ (a) 50
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Q.7 A reaction of granules content which harden the zona pellucida and ensures sure block to polyspermy is
- acrosomal reaction
- cortical reaction
- acrosin reaction
- bindin reaction
Answer ✔ (b) cortical reaction
Explanation: It is known as cortical reaction.
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Q.8 Which part of the sperm plays an important role in penetrating the egg membrane ?
- Allosome
- Tail
- Autosome
- Acrosome
Answer ✔ (d) Acrosome
Explanation: Acrosome penetrates the egg membrane.
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Q.9 In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in
- ovary
- abdominal cavity
- Fallopian tube
- uterus.
Answer ✔ (c) Fallopian tube
Explanation: secondary maturation occurs in Fallopian tube
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Q.10 Besides activating the egg another role of a sperm is to carry to egg
- RNA
- mitochondria
- DNA
- ribosomes
Answer ✔ (c) DNA
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Q.11 Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is
- spermiation
- cortical reaction
- spermiogenesis
- capacitation
Answer ✔ (a) spermiation
Explanation: Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is known as spermiation
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Q.12 The function of the secretion of prostate gland is to
- inhibit sperm activity
- attract sperms
- stimulate sperm activity
- none of these.
Answer ✔ (c) stimulate sperm activity
Explanation: secretion of prostate gland is to stimulate sperm activity
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Q.13 Lower narrow end of uterus is called
- urethra
- cervix
- clitoris
- vulva
Answer ✔ (b) cervix
Explanation: Lower narrow end of uterus is called cervix
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Q.14 Bartholin’s glands are situated
- on the either side of vagina in humans
- on either side of vas deferens in humans
- on either side of penis in humans
- on either side of Fallopian tube in humans
Answer ✔ (a) on the either side of vagina in humans
Explanation: It is situated on the either side of vagina in humans.
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Q.15 In human adult females oxytocin
- stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
- causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
- is secreted by anterior pituitary
- stimulates growth of mammary glands
Answer ✔ (b) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
Explanation: It causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
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Q.16 The third stage of parturition is called “after-birth”. In this stage
- excessive bleeding occurs
- fetus is bom and cervix and vagina contraction to normal condition happens
- fetus is bom and contraction of uterine wall prevents excessive bleeding
- placenta is expelled out
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: In this stage placenta is expelled out
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Q.17 spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system
- Rate testis
- Epididymis
- Vasa efferentia
- Isthmus
Answer ✔ (d) Isthmus
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Q.18 In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the
- spermatids
- spermatogonia
- primary spermatocytes
- secondary spermatocytes
Answer ✔ (d) secondary spermatocytes
Explanation: It differentiate into secondary spermatocytes
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Q.19 How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte ?
- 4
- 8
- 2
- 1
Answer ✔ (c) 2
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Q.20 How many sperms are formed from 4 primary spermatocytes ?
- 4
- 1
- 16
- 32
Answer ✔ (c) 16
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Q.21 In spermatogenesis, reduction division of chromosome occurs during conversion of
- spermatogonia to primary spermatocytes
- primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
- secondary spermatocytes to spermatids
- spermatids to sperms
Answer ✔ (b) primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
Explanation: It occurs during conversion of primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
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Q.22 Which of the following groups of cells in the male gonad, represent haploid cells ?
- Spermatogonial cells
- Germinal epithelial cells
- Secondary spermatocytes
- Primary spermatocytes
Answer ✔ (c) Secondary spermatocytes
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Q.23 The process of release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into cavity of the seminiferous tubules is called
- spermiogenesis
- spermatogenesis
- spermatocytogenesis
- spermiation
Answer ✔ (d) spermiation
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Q.24 Acrosome is a type of
- lysosome
- flagellum
- ribosome
- basal body
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Acrosome is a type of lysosome
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Q.25 At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a human female ?
- At puberty
- During menarch
- During menopause
- During embryonic development
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: It initiates at puberty.
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Q.1 A person with sickle cell anaemia is
- more prone to malaria
- more prone to typhoid
- less prone to malaria
- less prone to typhoid
Answer ✔ (c) less prone to malaria
Explanation: A person with sickle cell anaemia is less prone to malaria
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Q.2 Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?
- Diphtheria
- Flu
- Cancer
- Malaria
Answer ✔ (c) Cancer
Explanation: Cancer
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Q.3 Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively ?
- Typhoid and AIDS
- AIDS and cancer
- Pneumonia and malaria
- Cancer and malaria
Answer ✔ (b) AIDS and cancer
Explanation: AIDS and cancer contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively
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Q.4 Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by
- Plasmodium vivax
- Trichophyton
- Salmonella typhi
- Rhinoviruses
Answer ✔ (c) Salmonella typhi
Explanation: Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by Salmonella typhi
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Q.5 Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ?
- Dysentery
- Malaria
- Plague
- Both (a) & (c)
Answer ✔ (d) Both (a) & (c)
Explanation: Both (a) & (c) is the bacterial disease in humans
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Q.6 Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ?
- Legionella spp.
- Burcella melitensis
- Vibrio cholerae
- Burcella melitensis
Answer ✔ (b) Burcella melitensis
Explanation: Burcella melitensis causes whooping coough
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Q.7 Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ?
- Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
- Diptheria, leprosy, plague
- Cholera, typhoid, mumps
- Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits
Answer ✔ (b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
Explanation: Diptheria, leprosy, plague sets includes bacterial diseases
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Q.8 The common cold is caused by
- Rhino viruses
- Streptococcus pnemoniae
- Salmonella typhimurium
- Plasmodium vivax.
Answer ✔ (a) Rhino viruses
Explanation: The common cold is caused by Rhino viruses.
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Q.9 Hepatitis B is transmitted through
- sneezing
- female Anopheles
- coughing
- blood transfusion
Answer ✔ (b) female Anopheles
Explanation: female Anopheles
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Q.10 A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in malarial fever, is
- interferon
- haemozoin
- hirudin
- colostrum
Answer ✔ (b) haemozoin
Explanation: haemozoin
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Q.11 Humoral immunity is associated with
- T-cells
- B-cells
- macrophages
- both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (b) B-cells
Explanation: Humoral immunity is associated with B-cells
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Q.12 The antibody which can cross placental barrier is
- IgA
- JgE
- IgM
- IgG
Answer ✔ (d) IgG
Explanation: IgG
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Q.13 The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is
- IgA
- IgG
- IgE
- IgM
Answer ✔ (b) IgG
Explanation: IgG
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Q.14 A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation.
- antigen
- antibiotics
- exotoxin
- endotoxins
Answer ✔ (a) antigen
Explanation: A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation is known as antigen
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Q.15 Passive immunity can be conferred directly by
- vaccines
- antitoxins
- colostrum
- both (b) & (c)
Answer ✔ (d) both (b) & (c)
Explanation: both (b) & (c)
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Q.16 Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ?
- Activated and strong pathogenic antigens
- Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
- Hyperactive and strong pathogen
- Preformed antibodies
Answer ✔ (b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
Explanation: Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
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Q.17 Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ?
- Active immunisation
- Passive immunisation
- Auto-immunisation
- Humoral immunisation
Answer ✔ (b) Passive immunisation
Explanation: Passive immunisation
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Q.18 The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing
- B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes
- antibodies to the toxin
- weakend pathogen
- inactivated T-lymphocytes.
Answer ✔ (b) antibodies to the toxin
Explanation: The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing antibodies to the toxin
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Q.19 Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of
- auto-immunisation
- passive immunisation
- active immunisation
- simple immunisation
Answer ✔ (c) active immunisation
Explanation: active immunisation
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Q.20 During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the following hosts ?
- Human
- Female Anopheles mosquito
- Male Anopheles mosquito
- Both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (b) Female Anopheles mosquito
Explanation: During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in Female Anopheles mosquito
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Q.21 Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by
- Entamoeba histolytica
- E. coli
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Trichophyton
Answer ✔ (a) Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation: Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by Entamoeba histolytica
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Q.22 Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ?
- Plague
- Amoebiasis
- Leprosy
- Whooping cough
Answer ✔ (b) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Amoebiasis cannot be cured by taking antibiotics
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Q.23 Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by
- Ascaris
- E.coli
- Wuchereria
- Trichophyton
Answer ✔ (c) Wuchereria
Explanation: Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by Wuchereria
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Q.24 Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?
- Lymphatic vessels
- Respiratory system
- Nervous system
- Blood circulation
Answer ✔ (a) Lymphatic vessels
Explanation: Lymphatic vessels
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Q.25 Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector ?
- Filariasis
- Amoebiasis
- Typhoid
- Pneumonia
Answer ✔ (a) Filariasis
Explanation: Filariasis
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Q.1 Integrated Pest Management (IPM) discourages the excessive used of
- biological methods
- chemical pesticides
- mechanical methods
- all of these
Answer ✔ (b) chemical pesticides
Explanation: chemical pesticides
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Q.2 Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?
- Trichoderma harzianum
- Nucleopolyhedrovirus
- Xanthomonas campestris
- Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer ✔ (c) Xanthomonas campestris
Explanation: Xanthomonas campestris is not used as a biopesticide
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Q.3 Organic farming does not include
- green manures
- chemical fertilisers
- farmyard manures
- compost
Answer ✔ (b) chemical fertilisers
Explanation: chemical fertilisers
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Q.4 Organic farming includes
- use of fertilisers and pesticides of biological origin
- IPM (Integrated Pest Management)
- locally developed pest resistant varieties
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
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Q.5 Living organisms used to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil are called as
- biocontrol agents
- biofertilisers
- synthetic fertilisers
- natural fertilisers
Answer ✔ (d) natural fertilisers
Explanation: Living organisms used to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil are called as natural fertilisers
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Q.6 Biofertilisers are
- some bacteria and cyanobacteria
- fertilisers formed by ploughing in barseem
- fertilisers obtained by decay of dead organisms
- fertilisers prepared by mixing cattle dung with crop residues
Answer ✔ (a) some bacteria and cyanobacteria
Explanation: These are some bacteria and cyanobacteria
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Q.7 Biofertilisers are the living organisms which
- bring about soil nutrient enrichment
- maximise the ecological benefits
- minimise the environmental hazards
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
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Q.8 Which one of the following can be used as biofertiliser in cotton field ?
- Azolla-Anabaena
- Streptococcus
- Azospirillum
- Azotobacter chroococcum
Answer ✔ (d) Azotobacter chroococcum
Explanation: Azotobacter chroococcum used as biofertiliser in cotton field
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Q.9 The symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants is referred to as
- lichen
- mycorrhiza
- biofertiliser
- biocontrol agent
Answer ✔ (b) mycorrhiza
Explanation: mycorrhiza
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Q.10 Cyanobacteria are
- heterotrophs
- chemotrophs
- autotrophs
- organotrophs
Answer ✔ (c) autotrophs
Explanation: Cyanobacteria are autotrophs
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Q.11 Enzyme which has the fibrinolytic effect is
- protease
- amylase
- lipase
- streptokinase
Answer ✔ (d) streptokinase
Explanation: Enzyme which has the fibrinolytic effect is streptokinase
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Q.12 Statins used for lowering blood cholesterol level are extracted from
- algae
- bacteria
- viruses
- yeast
Answer ✔ (d) yeast
Explanation: Statins used for lowering blood cholesterol level are extracted from yeast
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Q.13 Monascus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in the production of
- citric acid
- ethanol
- blood cholesterol lowering statins
- streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels
Answer ✔ (c) blood cholesterol lowering statins
Explanation: Monascus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in the production of blood cholesterol lowering statins
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Q.14 During the primary treatment of sewage, solid particles that settle down are called
- floes
- primary sludge
- activated sludge
- anaerobic sludge
Answer ✔ (b) primary sludge
Explanation: solid particles that settle down are called primary sludge
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Q.15 The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to
- reduce BOD
- increase BOD
- reduce sedimentation
- increase sedimentation
Answer ✔ (a) reduce BOD
Explanation: The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to reduce BOD
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Q.16 The masses of bacteria held together by slime and fungal filaments to form mesh-like structures are called as
- primary sludge
- floes
- activated sludge
- anaerobic sludge
Answer ✔ (b) floes
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Q.17 BOD is………..in polluted water and in potable water.
- more, less
- less, more
- less in both
- medium in both
Answer ✔ (a) more, less
Explanation: more, less
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Q.18 n the sewage treatment, bacterial floes are allowed to sediment in a settling tank. This sediment is called as
- inactivated sludge
- activated sludge
- primary sludge
- secondary sluge
Answer ✔ (b) activated sludge
Explanation: This sediment is called as activated sludge.
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Q.19 Which of the following steps is taken by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to protect rivers from water pollition ?
- Ganga Action Plan
- Narmada Action Plan
- Yamuna Action Plan
- Both (a) and (c)
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Both (a) and (c)
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Q.20 Methanogens, growing anaerobically on cellulosic material produce
- methane
- methane and carbon dioxide
- methane and hydrogen
- methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Answer ✔ (d) methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Explanation: They produce methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
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Q.21 Which of the following bacteria is present in the rumen of cattle ?
- Azotobacter
- Rhizobium
- Methanobacterium
- Azospirillum
Answer ✔ (c) Methanobacterium
Explanation: Methanobacterium is present in the rumen of cattle.
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Q.22 Process of biogas production is
- aerobic process
- anaerobic process
- active process
- passive process
Answer ✔ (b) anaerobic process
Explanation: Process of biogas production is anaerobic process
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Q.23 Biogas is produced by
- aerobic breakdown of biomass
- anaerobic breakdown of biomass
- with the help of methanogenic bacteria
- both (b) and (c)
Answer ✔ (d) both (b) and (c)
Explanation: Biogas is produced by both (b) and (c)
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Q.24 Dragonflies are used to get rid of
- mosquitoes
- aphids
- butterfly caterpillars
- both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (a) mosquitoes
Explanation: mosquitoes
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Q.25 A microbial biocontrol agent that can be used to control butterfly caterpillars is
- Trichoderma polysporum
- Bacillus thuringiensis
- Streptococcus
- mycorrhiza
Answer ✔ (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
Explanation: Bacillus thuringiensis
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Q.1 Desired properties of plants and Animals are possible by which reproduction?
- Genetic Engineering
- Chromosomal Engineering
- Ekabana technology
- Bonsai technology
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic Engineering
Explanation: It is possible by Genetic Engineering
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Q.2 By means of following Trans gene expression obtained:
- Inhibition of a Innate gene
- An occured Biosynthetic passway develop
- A protein occured with genotype expressed his desired
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (d) None of the above
Explanation: None of the above
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Q.3 First Transjenic crop was :
- Cotton
- Alsi
- Pea
- Tobacco
Answer ✔ (d) Tobacco
Explanation: First Transjenic crop was Tobacco
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Q.4 Adjoining of exotic gene in crop is called :
- Genetic Engineering
- Bio architecture
- Tissue culture
- Immunisation
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic Engineering
Explanation: Adjoining of exotic gene is crop is called Genetic Engineering
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Q.5 Transgenic Bacteria is used in the making of following :
- Epinephrin
- Human Insullin
- Glutanin
- Thyroxin
Answer ✔ (b) Human Insullin
Explanation: Human Insullin is made by Transgenic Bacteria
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Q.6 Transgenic Golden Rice has Highly Nutrient value for:
- Lysine
- Methionine
- Glutanin
- Vitamin-A
Answer ✔ (d) Vitamin-A
Explanation: Transgenic Golden Rice has Highly Nutrient value for Vitamin-A
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Q.7 Bt Toxin is :
- Intracellular lipid
- Intracellular crystal protein
- Extracellular Crystal protein
- Lipid
Answer ✔ (b) Intracellular crystal protein
Explanation: Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) toxin is Intracellular crystal protein
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Q.8 In a Transgenic crop gene is for the following:
- New protein synthesis
- Resistance from Antibiotics
- In the formation enzyme for Antibiotics
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: All of these
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Q.9 Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from
- One parent for one antigen
- Different parents for one antigen
- One parent for many antigens
- Many parents for many antigens
Answer ✔ (b) Different parents for one antigen
Explanation: Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from Different parents for one antigen
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Q.10 Somatic hybridization can be done by:
- By Protoplast fusion
- By Haploid anther
- By cell culture
- By Pollen culture
Answer ✔ (a) By Protoplast fusion
Explanation: Somatic hybridization can be done by Protoplast fusion
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Q.11 Which Vitamin has been transferred to golden rice?
- Vit-B12
- Vit-A
- Vit-D
- Vit-C
Answer ✔ (b) Vit-A
Explanation: Vit-A
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Q.12 Which one of the following is a step of PCR?
- Denaturation
- Annealing
- Extension
- All of these
Answer ✔ (a) Denaturation
Explanation: Denaturation is a step of PCR
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Q.13 The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from:
- Bacillus thruingiensis
- E. Coii
- Agrobacterium hizogenes
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer ✔ (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Explanation: The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from Agrobacterium tumefaciens
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Q.14 From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared.
- Cymohopogen
- Tephrosia
- Crysanthemum
- Vitivera
Answer ✔ (c) Crysanthemum
Explanation: Crysanthemum
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Q.15 The sheep ‘Dolly’ was cloned by using somatic cells from donor’s:
- Udder
- Skin
- Tongue
- Earlobe
Answer ✔ (c) Tongue
Explanation: The sheep ‘Dolly’ was cloned by using somatic cells from donor’s Tongue
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Q.16 The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDS is:
- ELISA
- Western Plot
- ESR
- PCR
Answer ✔ (a) ELISA
Explanation: The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDS is ELISA.
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Q.17 Natural genetic engineer is :
- Bacillus subtilis
- Pseudomonas sp
- Escherichia coli
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer ✔ (a) Bacillus subtilis
Explanation: Natural genetic engineer is Bacillus subtilis
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Q.18 Bt toxin is :
- intracellular lipid
- Intracellular crystalline protein
- Extracellular crystalline protein
- Lipid
Answer ✔ (a) intracellular lipid
Explanation: Bt toxin is intracellular lipid
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Q.19 Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trail:
- Insect resistance
- Hight lysine (essential amino acid) content
- High protein content
- High vitamin A content
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the High protein content
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Q.20 First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic engineering:
- Human insulin
- Penicillin
- Interferons
- Fertility factor
Answer ✔ (b) Penicillin
Explanation: First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic engineering Penicillin
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Q.21 A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed percentage is:
- Polymerase chain reaction
- DNA finger printing
- None of these
- Both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (b) DNA finger printing
Explanation: A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed percentage is DNA finger printing
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Q.22 Anticoagulant hirudin is found in:
- In Snake
- In Lizard
- In Leech
- In Scorpion
Answer ✔ (c) In Leech
Explanation: Anticoagulant hirudin is found in Leech
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Q.23 Herbicide resistant gene in plants is:
- Ct
- Mt
- Bt
- Gst
Answer ✔ (d) Gst
Explanation: Herbicide resistant gene in plants is Gst
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Q.24 The species used as natural genetic engineer is :
- Agrobacterim tumefaciens
- Bacillus thruingiensis
- Aspergillus
- Drosophila
Answer ✔ (d) Drosophila
Explanation: The species used as natural genetic engineer is Drosophila
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Q.25 Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing nobel:
- Biofertilizers
- Biometallurgical techniques
- Biomineralization processes
- Bioinsecticidal plants
Answer ✔ (a) Biofertilizers
Explanation: Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing nobel Biofertilizers
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Q.1 For human population, the age pyramids generally show age distribution of
- Only males
- Only females
- Of males and females
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Of males and females
Explanation: the age pyramids generally show age distribution of Of males and females
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Q.2 The size of the population tells us a lot about its status in the
- Environment
- Sex-ratio
- Age pyramid
- Habitat
Answer ✔ (d) Habitat
Explanation: The size of the population tells us a lot about its status in the Habitat
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Q.3 The number of deaths in the population during a given period is referred to
- Natality
- Mortality
- Sex-ratio
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Mortality
Explanation: The number of deaths in the population during a given period is referred to Mortality
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Q.4 The number of birth during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density is referred to
- Natality
- Mortality
- Sex-ratio
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Natality
Explanation: It is referred as Natality
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Q.5 Parasites that live inside the host body at different sities are called
- Ecto parasites
- Endo parasites
- Brood parasitism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Endo parasites
Explanation: Parasites that live inside the host body at different sities are called Endo parasites
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Q.6 Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called
- Ecto parasites
- Endo parasites
- Brood parasitism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ecto parasites
Explanation: Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called Ecto parasites
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Q.7 If one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected is called
- Commensalism
- Amensalism
- Mutualism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Commensalism
Explanation: It is called as Commensalism.
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Q.8 The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called
- Commensalism
- Amensalism
- Mutualism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Commensalism
Explanation: It is called as Commensalism.
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Q.9 One species benefit in
- Parasitism
- Predation
- Mutualism
- Both (a) and (b)
Answer ✔ (d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Both (a) and (b)
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Q.10 Both species lose in
- Mutualism
- Competition
- Parasitism
- Predation
Answer ✔ (b) Competition
Explanation: Both species lose in Competition
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Q.11 Both the species benefit in
- Parasitism
- Mutualism
- Competition
- Predation
Answer ✔ (b) Mutualism
Explanation: Both the species benefit in Mutualism
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Q.12 A stage of suspended development is called
- Diapause
- Suspend
- Migrate
- Aestivation
Answer ✔ (a) Diapause
Explanation: A stage of suspended development is called Diapause
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Q.13 To avoid summer-related problems – heat and desiccation by organism is called
- Hibernation
- Suspend
- Migrate
- Aestivation
Answer ✔ (d) Aestivation
Explanation: To avoid summer-related problems – heat and desiccation by organism is called Aestivation
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Q.14 Winter sleep is also called as
- Hibernation
- Suspend
- Migrate
- Aestivation
Answer ✔ (a) Hibernation
Explanation: Winter sleep is also called as Hibernation
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Q.15 The shifting of an organism temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return when stressful period is over is called
- Suspend
- Migrate
- Hibernation
- Aestivation
Answer ✔ (b) Migrate
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Q.16 Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its:
- Topography
- Trophic level
- Boundary
- Ecological niche
Answer ✔ (d) Ecological niche
Explanation: Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its Ecological niche
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Q.17 The maximum growth rate occurs in
- Lag phase
- Exponential, phase
- Stationary phase
- Senescent phase
Answer ✔ (b) Exponential, phase
Explanation: Exponential, phase
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Q.18 In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface view most?
- Shrub land
- Forest
- Desert
- Grassland
Answer ✔ (c) Desert
Explanation: In desert the diurnal temperature of soil surface view most.
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Q.19 Science linking heredity with environment is:
- Ecology
- Ecophysiology
- Genecology
- Genetics
Answer ✔ (c) Genecology
Explanation: Science linking heredity with environment is Genecology
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.20 Submerged hydrophytes have disseced leaves for
- Decreasing surface area
- Increasing surface area
- Reducing effect pf water currents
- Increasing number of stomata
Answer ✔ (c) Reducing effect pf water currents
Explanation: For Reducing effect pf water currents
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Q.21 Water holding capacity is maximum in
- Clay
- Sand
- Slit
- Gravel
Answer ✔ (a) Clay
Explanation: Water holding capacity is maximum in Clay
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Q.22 Animals undergo inactive stage during winters. It is called
- Acclimatisation
- Hibernation
- Aestivation
- Adapatation
Answer ✔ (b) Hibernation
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Q.23 Praying mantis is a good example of
- Camouflage
- Mullarian mimicry
- Warning colouration
- Social insect
Answer ✔ (a) Camouflage
Explanation: Praying mantis is a good example of Camouflage
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.24 Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Select the incorrect example:
- Colour change in Chameleon
- Enlargement of body by swallowing air in puffer fish
- Poison fangas of snakes
- Melaninin in moths
Answer ✔ (c) Poison fangas of snakes
Explanation: Poison fangas of snakes is incorrect
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.25 Ozone protects biosphere from high energetic:
- Infra-red rays
- Ultraviolet rays
- X-rays
- gamma rays
Answer ✔ (b) Ultraviolet rays
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.1 Best soil for plant growth is:
- Grit
- Sandy
- Soily
- Clay
Answer ✔ (d) Clay
Explanation: Best soil for plant growth is Clay
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.2 Soil particle determine the character of
- Organisation
- Biomass
- Area capacity
- Soil plants
Answer ✔ (a) Organisation
Explanation: Soil particle determine the character of Organisation
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.3 Plant roots soil water is
- Cellular water
- Surface water
- Humidity water
- Gravitational water
Answer ✔ (d) Gravitational water
Explanation: Plant roots soil water is Gravitational water
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.4 Exchange of water in submerged plant
- Stomata
- Normal surface
- Hydathode
- Lenticel
Answer ✔ (b) Normal surface
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Q.5 Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are:
- Uticularia
- Prapa
- Nymphea
- vallisnaria
Answer ✔ (d) vallisnaria
Explanation: Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are known as vallisnaria
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.6 Water co-deficient contains:
- Large thin walled cells
- Large-vacuoles
- Membrane
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Membrane
Explanation: Water co-deficient contains Membrane
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.7 Xerophyte Contains
- Deep roots
- Sunken stomata
- Thick cuticle
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.8 Small extremite animals of tropical region
- Allen’s law
- Bergmen’s law
- Dollo’s law
- Cope’s law
Answer ✔ (d) Cope’s law
Explanation: It is associated with Cope’s law.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.9 Hibernation of some animals
- Regular
- Periodic
- Suddenly
- Temporary
Answer ✔ (a) Regular
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Q.10 Physical and chemical properties of soil studied by
- Climatic factor
- Biotic factor
- Soil factor
- Topographic factor
Answer ✔ (b) Biotic factor
Explanation: It is studied by Biotic factor
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.11 Identity the Hetero Organism
- Pistia
- Hydrilla
- Vallisnaria
- Casurina
Answer ✔ (c) Vallisnaria
Explanation: Vallisnaria
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.12 That animal who can bear one third loss of water of one third body weight is
- Necturus
- Camel
- Wall Lizzard
- Kyton
Answer ✔ (b) Camel
Explanation: Camel can bear one third loss of water of one third body weight.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.13 Root hair absent in
- Hydrophyte
- Halophyte
- Mesophyte
- Heliophyte
Answer ✔ (a) Hydrophyte
Explanation: Root hair absent in Hydrophyte.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.14 A water co-efficient Mesophyte is
- Cappais
- Agave
- Acacia
- Hemeris
Answer ✔ (b) Agave
Explanation: A water co-efficient Mesophyte is Agave.
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.15 Gravitated carried soil is
- Alluvial
- Muddy
- Glacier
- Compound
Answer ✔ (d) Compound
Explanation: Gravitated carried soil is Compound
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.16 Kanha National Park is famous for
- For Birds
- For Tendua
- For Tiger
- For Crocodile
Answer ✔ (b) For Tendua
Explanation: It is famous for Tendua
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.17 During food chain the maximum energy is stored in
- Producers
- Decomposers
- Herbivoures
- Camivourse
Answer ✔ (a) Producers
Explanation: During food chain the maximum energy is stored in Producers
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.18 The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivoure to carnivorce level is
- 5%
- 10%
- 20%
- 30%
Answer ✔ (b) 10%
Explanation: 10%
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.19 Ecological pyramids were first devised by
- Charles Eltom
- R. Hesse
- R.A. Lindemann
- Justus von Liebig
Answer ✔ (a) Charles Eltom
Explanation: Ecological pyramids were first devised by Charles Eltom
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.20 Which of the following ecosystem has highest gross primary productivity
- Grassland
- Coral reefs
- Mangrooves
- Rainforests
Answer ✔ (b) Coral reefs
Explanation: Coral reefs has highest gross primary productivity
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.21 In the phosphorus cycle, weathring makes phosophate available first to
- Producers
- Decomposers
- Consumers
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Producers
Explanation: Producers
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.22 Which types of the following pyramid are never inverted?
- Pyramid of energy
- Pyramid of biomass
- Pyramid of number
- Pyramid of dry biomass
Answer ✔ (a) Pyramid of energy
Explanation: Pyramid of energy
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.23 Biosphere means
- Atmosphere
- Lithosphere and ionosphered
- Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
- Hydrosphere lithosphere and ionsophere
Answer ✔ (c) Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
Explanation: Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.24 Best type of pyramid which is always true is:
- Pyramid or energy
- Pyramid of Biomass
- Pyramid of number
- Both (a) and (c)
Answer ✔ (a) Pyramid or energy
Explanation: Pyramid or energy
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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Q.25 decomposers are
- Autotrophs
- Autohetrotrophs
- Organotrophs
- Heterotrophs
Answer ✔ (d) Heterotrophs
Explanation: Heterotrophs
General Science • Biology • Zoology • Class 12th • NEET UG • NEET UG Preparation
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