Practice Quizzes and MCQs

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Question 1 of 449

Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following

enzyme
substrate
end products
intermediate end products

Question 2 of 449

Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Question 3 of 449

Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

glucose and fructose
glucose and fructose
fructose and mannose
mannose and glucose

Question 4 of 449

Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by

lowering activation energy
increasing activation energy
increasing temperature and pH
decreasing temperature and pH

Question 5 of 449

Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate

Question 6 of 449

Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

Uracil
Cytosine
Guanine
Thymine

Question 7 of 449

Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of

Peptidase
Amylase
Sucrose
Lipase

Question 8 of 449

Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
Both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 9 of 449

Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?

End product
External factors
Enzyme
Substrate

Question 10 of 449

Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

Lactose
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrin

Question 11 of 449

Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______

glucose and fructose
glucose and fructose
fructose and mannose
mannose and glucose

Question 12 of 449

Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is

Collagen
Trypsin
Myosin
Actin

Question 13 of 449

Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______

Question 14 of 449

Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme

Question 15 of 449

Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of

allosteric inhibition
feedback inhibition
uncompetitive inhibition
competitive inhibition

Question 16 of 449

Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is

DNA polymerase
carbonic anhydrase
carbonic dehydrogenase
DNA ligase

Question 17 of 449

Q.17 Lecithin is a

polysaccharide
protein
nucleic acid
lipid

Question 18 of 449

Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called

enzymatic energy
activation energy
substrate energy
initiation energy

Question 19 of 449

Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in

Enhancing oxidative metabolism
Being synthesised in the body of organisms
Being proteinaceous
Regulating metabolism

Question 20 of 449

Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA

Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Adenine, thymine, uracil
Guanine, uracil

Question 21 of 449

Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________

Saponins
Tannins
Secondary metabolite
Primary metabolites

Question 22 of 449

Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to

R groups of amino acids
Sequence of amino acids
Peptide bonds
Amino groups of amino acids

Question 23 of 449

Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that

One strand turns anticlockwise
Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
One strand turns clockwise

Question 24 of 449

Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves

Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 25 of 449

Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is

Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose
Glucose

Question 26 of 449

Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following

enzyme
substrate
end products
intermediate end products

Question 27 of 449

Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Question 28 of 449

Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

glucose and fructose
glucose and fructose
fructose and mannose
mannose and glucose

Question 29 of 449

Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by

lowering activation energy
increasing activation energy
increasing temperature and pH
decreasing temperature and pH

Question 30 of 449

Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate

Question 31 of 449

Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

Uracil
Cytosine
Guanine
Thymine

Question 32 of 449

Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of

Peptidase
Amylase
Sucrose
Lipase

Question 33 of 449

Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
Both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 34 of 449

Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?

End product
External factors
Enzyme
Substrate

Question 35 of 449

Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

Lactose
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrin

Question 36 of 449

Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______

glucose and fructose
glucose and fructose
fructose and mannose
mannose and glucose

Question 37 of 449

Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is

Collagen
Trypsin
Myosin
Actin

Question 38 of 449

Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______

Question 39 of 449

Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Holoenzyme = Coenzyme ? Apoenzyme

Question 40 of 449

Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of

allosteric inhibition
feedback inhibition
uncompetitive inhibition
competitive inhibition

Question 41 of 449

Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is

DNA polymerase
carbonic anhydrase
carbonic dehydrogenase
DNA ligase

Question 42 of 449

Q.17 Lecithin is a

polysaccharide
protein
nucleic acid
lipid

Question 43 of 449

Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called

enzymatic energy
activation energy
substrate energy
initiation energy

Question 44 of 449

Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in

Enhancing oxidative metabolism
Being synthesised in the body of organisms
Being proteinaceous
Regulating metabolism

Question 45 of 449

Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA

Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Adenine, thymine, uracil
Guanine, uracil

Question 46 of 449

Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________

Saponins
Tannins
Secondary metabolite
Primary metabolites

Question 47 of 449

Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to

R groups of amino acids
Sequence of amino acids
Peptide bonds
Amino groups of amino acids

Question 48 of 449

Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that

One strand turns anticlockwise
Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
One strand turns clockwise

Question 49 of 449

Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves

Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 50 of 449

Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is

Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose
Glucose

Question 51 of 449

Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?

It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
It is a molecular disease.
It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
All of the above.

Question 52 of 449

Q.2 The first genetic material could be

protein
cabohydrates
DNA
RNA

Question 53 of 449

Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively

chromosome 21 and Y
chromosome 1 and X
chromosome 1 and Y
chromosome X and Y

Question 54 of 449

Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?

Rosalind Franklin
Maurice Wilkins
Erwin Chargaff
Meselson and Stahl

Question 55 of 449

Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?

Initiation
Elongation
Termination
All of the above

Question 56 of 449

Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

DNA-replication
transcription
translation
none of the above

Question 57 of 449

Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?

Chromosome 1
Chromosome 11
Chromosome 21
Chromosome X

Question 58 of 449

Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called

A – DNA
B – DNA
cDNA
rDNA

Question 59 of 449

Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be

5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.

Question 60 of 449

Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes

the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
the promoter and the terminator region
the structural gene and the terminator region
the structural gene only.

Question 61 of 449

Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be

5’ – UAC – 3’
5’ – CAU – 3’
5’-AUG – 3’
5’ – GUA – 3’

Question 62 of 449

Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

5’- end
3’ – end
anticodon site
DHUloop.

Question 63 of 449

Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to

the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
the larger ribosomal sub-unit
the whole ribosome
no such specificity exists

Question 64 of 449

Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when

lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
repressor binds to operator
RNA polymerase binds to the operator
lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.

Question 65 of 449

Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

glycosidic bonds
phosphodiester bonds
peptide bonds
hydrogen bonds

Question 66 of 449

Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?

Question 67 of 449

Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?

ATGCATGCA
AUGCAUGCA
TACTACGT
UACGUACGU

Question 68 of 449

Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?

2 nm
3.4 nm
34 nm
0.34 nm

Question 69 of 449

Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by

central dogma reverse
reverse transcription
feminism
all of these

Question 70 of 449

Q.20 Histone proteins are

basic, negatively charged
basic, positively charged
acidic, positively charged
acidic, negatively charged

Question 71 of 449

Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called

nucleotides
nucleosides
histone octamer
nucleosomes

Question 72 of 449

Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,

It is densely packed
It stains dark
It is transcriptionally active.
It is late replicating

Question 73 of 449

Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of

transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Mendel’s laws of inheritance
biotechnology by Kary Muliis.

Question 74 of 449

Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are

phenylalanine and arginine
tryptophan and methionine
valine and proline
methionine and aroinine

Question 75 of 449

Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

Genetic code is ambiguous.
Genetic code is deqenerate
Genetic code is universal
Genetic code is non-overlanning.

Question 76 of 449

Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic

Aquatic amphibian
Aquatic insect
Bony fishes
Mammal

Question 77 of 449

Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic

Mammal
Aquatic insect
Terrestrial amphibian
Marine fishes

Question 78 of 449

Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic

Mammal
Reptiles
Birds
Snails

Question 79 of 449

Q.4 Which among is the most toxic

Ammonia
Uric acid
Urea
None of the above

Question 80 of 449

Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body

Ammonia
Urea
Uric acid
None of the above

Question 81 of 449

Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of

Planaria
Annelids
Cockroach
Rotifers

Question 82 of 449

Q.7 Kidney is present between

T12 L3
T11 L2
T 10 L1
None of the above

Question 83 of 449

Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism

Earthworm
Prawn
Cockroach
Planaria

Question 84 of 449

Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney

80-90g
120-150g
110-120g
120-170g

Question 85 of 449

Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons

1 million
2 million
2 thousand
2 hundred

Question 86 of 449

Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney

Nephrons
Cell
Neurons
None of the above

Question 87 of 449

Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as

Malphigian body
Renal corpuscle
Malphigian capsule
Both b and c

Question 88 of 449

Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla

Cortical nephron
Juxta medullary nephron
Both a and b
None of the above

Question 89 of 449

Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case

Renal calculi
Renal failure
Uremia
None of the above

Question 90 of 449

Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water

Descending loop
Ascending loop
Both the loops
None of the above

Question 91 of 449

Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes

Pineal gland
Pancreas
Gall bladder
Sweat glands

Question 92 of 449

Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as

Ketonuria
Glycosides
Glycosuria
None of the above

Question 93 of 449

Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as

Uremia
Renal failure
Renal calculi
Glomerulonephritis

Question 94 of 449

Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is

Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Both a and b
None of the above

Question 95 of 449

Q.20 ANF can cause

Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Both a and b
None of the above

Question 96 of 449

Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is

180 L
150L
130L
120L

Question 97 of 449

Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following

DCT
Both a and c
PCT
None of the above

Question 98 of 449

Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute

500-800ml
1100- 1200ml
1500-1700ml
1600-1800ml

Question 99 of 449

Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron

Cortical nephron
Juxta medullary nephron
Both a and b
None of the above

Question 100 of 449

Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the

Haversian canal
endosteum
red bone marrow
pancreas

Question 101 of 449

Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?

Webbed feet
Copulatory pads
Tympanum
All are present

Question 102 of 449

Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in

blood
muscle
Bone
catrilage

Question 103 of 449

Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.

Vascular system of frog is closed type.
Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
All the statements are correct

Question 104 of 449

Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?

Bowman scapsule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting ducts

Question 105 of 449

Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in

fallopian tubes
blood vessels
mid brain
none of the above

Question 106 of 449

Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of

RBC
plasma
platelets
all of the above

Question 107 of 449

Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

Tympanum
Skin
Sebaceous
Nictitating

Question 108 of 449

Q.9 Fats are richly found in

alveolar tissue
lymph glands
adipose tissue
liver cells

Question 109 of 449

Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is

the exchange of respiratory gases
the storage of fat
the storage of energy
to convert light vitamin D

Question 110 of 449

Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in

trachea
ureter
bile duct
intestines

Question 111 of 449

Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?

Bartholin
Anal
Prostate
Adrenal

Question 112 of 449

Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that

the cells are loosely placed
they are single – layered in thickness
cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
cells are generally ciliated

Question 113 of 449

Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :

sublingual
adrenal
Brunners
lacrimal

Question 114 of 449

Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is

actin
ossein
collagen
elastin

Question 115 of 449

Q.16 Tendons connect the following

bone to bone
muscle to muscle
cartilage to muscle
bone to muscle

Question 116 of 449

Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because

they protect crops
they links food web
they are food to man.
all of these

Question 117 of 449

Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

Tympanum
Skin
Sebaceous
Nictitating

Question 118 of 449

Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?

Clitellum
Setae
Intersegmental grooves
Nephridiophores

Question 119 of 449

Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?

Phallic gland
Vestibulum
Gonapophyses
Collaterial glands

Question 120 of 449

Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified

Sweat glands
Mucous glands
Sebaceous glands
Sudoriferous glands

Question 121 of 449

Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is

Muscle tissue
Nervous tissue
Connective tissue
Epithelial tissue

Question 122 of 449

Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is

Squamous epithelium
Cuboidal epithelium
Columnar epithelium
Ciliated columnar epithelium

Question 123 of 449

Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the

Respiration
Urine
Skin
Stool

Question 124 of 449

Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material

Striated muscle
Areolar tissue
Stratified epithelium
Myelinated nerve fibres

Question 125 of 449

Q.1 Radula is found in

Pila sp
Chiton sp
Lamellidens sp
Pinctada sp

Question 126 of 449

Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes

Jawless
Bony
Cartilaginous
Freshwater

Question 127 of 449

Q.3 Turtles are

Arthropods
Pisces
Reptiles
Molluscs

Question 128 of 449

Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of

labial palps
one pair of ganglia
two pairs of ganglia
three pairs of ganglia

Question 129 of 449

Q.5 Choose the correct pair.

Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
Rana – 2-chambered heart
Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
Pavo – 3-chambered heart

Question 130 of 449

Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?

Lamarck
Darwin
Wallace
Linnaeus

Question 131 of 449

Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?

Platypus lays eggs
Camels have biconcave RBCs
Whales respire by gills
Bats do not fly

Question 132 of 449

Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to

class amphibia
super class pisces
super class tetrapoda
division agnatha

Question 133 of 449

Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?

Mammalia : give birth to young ones
Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton

Question 134 of 449

Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?

Annelida
Mollusca
Echinodermata
Nematoda

Question 135 of 449

Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?

Platyhelminthes
Aschelminthes
Mollusca
Hemi-chordates

Question 136 of 449

Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?

Bilateral
Radial
Asymmetry
None of these

Question 137 of 449

Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is

Platyhelminthes
Annelida
Echinoderms
Arthropoda

Question 138 of 449

Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on

Garbage
Human blood
Flower sap
All of the above

Question 139 of 449

Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of

Typhoid
Yellow fever
Typhus
Trench fever

Question 140 of 449

Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

Ventral nerve cord
Closed circulatory system
Segmentation
Pseudocoelom

Question 141 of 449

Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.

Threadworms
Sponges
Tapeworms
Liver fluke

Question 142 of 449

Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans

Blood
Bile
Digestive tract
Lung

Question 143 of 449

Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in

Sea-anemone
Sea-pen
Sea-cucumber
Sea-horse

Question 144 of 449

Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of

Tuataras
Lizards and snakes
Turtles and tortoises
Crocodiles, alligators, caimans

Question 145 of 449

Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito

Sporozoites
Ookinetes
Oocystes
Merozoites

Question 146 of 449

Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum

Annelida
Mollusca
Cnidaria
Echinodermata

Question 147 of 449

Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs

Pulmonary vein
Hepatic vein
Carotid artery
Pulmonary artery

Question 148 of 449

Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is

Urea
Ammonia
Both A and B
None

Question 149 of 449

Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic

Aschelminthes (round worms)
Ctenophores
Sponges
Coelenterates (Cnidarians)

Question 150 of 449

Q.1 Which among the following does not exchange o2 with CO2 through simple diffusion

Earthworms
Earthworms
Sponges
Flatworms

Question 151 of 449

Q.2 Which among the following have well developed respiratory system

Cockroaches
Earthworms
Sponges
Mammals

Question 152 of 449

Q.3 How many lobes are present in right lung

Question 153 of 449

Q.4 Name a sound box which is responsible for sound production

Pharynx
Larynx
Epiglottis
None of the above

Question 154 of 449

Q.5 Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by

Vertebral column
Sternum
Ribs
Diaphragm

Question 155 of 449

Q.6 Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs is

More than atm pressure
Less tha atm pressure
Equal to atm pressure
None of the above

Question 156 of 449

Q.7 The part starting from external nostril upto terminal bronchioles is known as

Conducting part
Exchange part
Respiratory part
None of the above

Question 157 of 449

Q.8 What is the structural and functional unit of lungs

Bronchioles
Alveoli
Bronchi
Both a and c

Question 158 of 449

Q.9 On an average healthy human breathes how many times per minute

12-16
15-16
20-25
72

Question 159 of 449

Q.10 What is the inspiratory reserve volume

2500-3000 ml
500 ml
1000-1100 ml
None of the above

Question 160 of 449

Q.11 Volume air inspired or expired during normal respiration is known as

Question 161 of 449

Q.12 which among the following is measured by spirometer

Total lung capacity
FRC
RV
TV

Question 162 of 449

Q.13 Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gas is known as

Partial pressure
Diffusion pressure
Osmotic pressure
None of the above

Question 163 of 449

Q.14 Solubility of CO2 is how many times higher than O2

10-15
30-40
20-21
20-25

Question 164 of 449

Q.15 What is the partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere

Question 165 of 449

Q.16 What is the partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood

Question 166 of 449

Q.17 How many percent of co2 is carried by plasma in dissolved form

6
7
20-25
None of the above

Question 167 of 449

Q.18 How many percent of co2 is carried as bicarbonate

Question 168 of 449

Q.19 Every 100ml of deoxy blood delivers approx

2ml of co2 to alveoli
3 of co2 to alveoli
4ml of co2 to alveoli
7ml of co2 to alveoli

Question 169 of 449

Q.20 RBC contains very high quantity of which enzyme

Carbonic anhydrase
Lysosome
Ligase
None of the above

Question 170 of 449

Q.21 which among the following is caused due to decreased respiratory surface area

Astma
Emphysema
Sclerosis
None of the above

Question 171 of 449

Q.22 Whose role in respiratory rhythm regulation is insignificant

Co2
O2
Both a and b
None of the above

Question 172 of 449

Q.23 Pneumotaxic centre is present in which region of brain

Medulla
Hypothalamus
Pons
None of the above

Question 173 of 449

Q.24 Which type of curve is formed when percent of haemoglobin is plotted against po2

Straight line
Hyperbola
Sigmoid
Parabola

Question 174 of 449

Q.25 which among the following is responsible to shift o2 dissociation curve right

High Pco2
Low pco2
Low H+
None of the above

Question 175 of 449

Q.1 Each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone known as

Thecodont
Diphyodont
Heterodont
None of the above

Question 176 of 449

Q.2 A cartilagenous flap which prevents entry of food

Glottis
Pyloric spincter
Epiglottis
Cardiac spincter

Question 177 of 449

Q.3 Where is paratoid salivary gland is situated

Lower jaw
Below tongue
Upper jaw
Cheek

Question 178 of 449

Q.4 The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into which region of intestine

Jejunum
Ileum
Duodenum
Cardiac

Question 179 of 449

Q.5 Which kind of gland is pancreas

Exocrine
Endocrine
Compound gland
None of the above

Question 180 of 449

Q.6 Which cell is responsible for secretion of HCL and intrinsic factors

Parietal cell
Chief cell
Mucus cell
Peptic cell

Question 181 of 449

Q.7 Which enzyme is responsible for digestion of milk protein in infants

Renin
Rennin
Proteoses
None of the above

Question 182 of 449

Q.8 Which enzyme converts polysaccharides into disaccharides

Amylases
Lipases
Salivary amylase
None of the above

Question 183 of 449

Q.9 Which enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice

Lipases
Amylase
Nucleases
Nucleosides

Question 184 of 449

Q.10 Which pH is optimum for salivary amylase to work

Question 185 of 449

Q.11 Absorption of water in large intestine is done by

Chief cells
Haustra cells
Parietal cell
Peptic cell

Question 186 of 449

Q.12 Glucose and amino acids are transported by which transport

Facilitated diffusion
Diffusion
Active transport
Passive transport

Question 187 of 449

Q.13 Fructose are transported by which mechanism

Passive transport
Active transport
Diffusion
Facilitated diffusion

Question 188 of 449

Q.14 Which is not present in bile juice

Bile pigments
Enzymes
Bile salts
Cholesterol

Question 189 of 449

Q.15 Maltase converts maltose into

glucose+ glucose
Glucose + fructose
Glucose + galactose
Fatty acids+ glycerol

Question 190 of 449

Q.16 How many salivary glans are present

2
3
4
None of the above

Question 191 of 449

Q.17 The small finger like foldings in small intestine is called

Rugae
Villi
Botha a and b
None of the above

Question 192 of 449

Q.18 Crypts in between bases of villi in intestine are known as

Crypts of lieberkuhn
Crypts of intestine
Crypts of stomach
None of the above

Question 193 of 449

Q.19 What are the structural and functional units of liver

Hepatic cells
Hepatic lobules
Hepatic glands
None of the above

Question 194 of 449

Q.20 Duct of paratoid gland are known as

Rhenius
Stensons
Warton
None of the above

Question 195 of 449

Q.21 Which is not the part of stomach

Cardiac
Pyloric
Funds
Ileum

Question 196 of 449

Q.22 Enamel is originated from which cell

Amiloblast cell
Odontioblast cell
Chief cell
Peptic cell

Question 197 of 449

Q.23 Dentine is originated from which cell

Amiloblast cell
Odontioblast cell
Chief cell
Peptic cell

Question 198 of 449

Q.24 In which condition the food is not digested properly leading to feeling of fullness

Indigestion
Constipation
Diarrhoea
None of the above

Question 199 of 449

Q.25 In which condition the faeces are retained in the rectum as the bowel movement occur irregularly

Indigestion
Constipation
Diarrhoea
None of the above

Question 200 of 449

Q.1 Which hormones is a stress hormone

Norepinephrine
Androgen
Cortisol
FSH

Question 201 of 449

Q.2 Secretin cause stimulation of

Bile juice
Water
Gastric secretion
Pepsinogen

Question 202 of 449

Q.3 In adults insufficient thyroxine lead to

Myxoedema
Goitre
Tetany
Cretinism

Question 203 of 449

Q.4 In the body both blood sodium and potassium is regulated by

Pheromones
Aldosterone
Cortisols
Androgens

Question 204 of 449

Q.5 Chemical name of T4 is

Tetradiodothyronine
Tridiodothyronine
Tetraiodothyronine
Triiodothyronine

Question 205 of 449

Q.6 Anabolic steroids are ___ versions of testosterone

Effective
Synthetic
Natural
Ineffective

Question 206 of 449

Q.7 which of the following acts on bones

Melatonin
Triiodothyronine
GH
Parathyroid

Question 207 of 449

Q.8 Glucagon hormone is secreted by

Thyroid gland
Pituitary
Adrenal
Pancreas

Question 208 of 449

Q.9 Which of the following is male sex organs

Insulins
Aldosterone
Androgens
Pheromones

Question 209 of 449

Q.10 Choose the incorrect statement

Hormones are non-nutrients chemicals
Exocrine glands are ductless glands
Invertebrates have simple endocrine system
All of the above statements are incorrect

Question 210 of 449

Q.11 Endemic goitre is a state of

Increased thyroid function
Normal thyroid function
Decreased thyroid function
Moderate thyroid function

Question 211 of 449

Q.12 PTH is called hypercalcemic hormone because it leads to

Absorption of CaCo3 from digested food
Reabsorption of water from renal tubules
Increasing blood calcium levels
Maintain ion balance in blood

Question 212 of 449

Q.13 Corpus leuteum secretes

Progesterone
Estrogen
Vasopressin
Glucagon

Question 213 of 449

Q.14 In children hypothyroidism lead to

Goitre
Acromegaly
Cretinism
Myxoedema

Question 214 of 449

Q.15 Diurnal rhythm of body is maintained by

Melatonin
Isthmus
PTH
Norepinephrine

Question 215 of 449

Q.16 Which hormone inhibits release of growth hormone

Insulin
Gonadotrophin
Somatostatin
Thymosin

Question 216 of 449

Q.17 Which of the following is essential for thyroid gland

nacl
I3
CaCo2
H2Co3

Question 217 of 449

Q.18 Testorone is produced by

Leydigs cell
Pituitary gland
Both a and b
Non of the above

Question 218 of 449

Q.19 The phase of menstrual cycle that last for 7-8 days are

Ovulatory
Menstruation
Luteal
Follicular

Question 219 of 449

Q.20 Blood pressure is under control of

Pituitary
Adrenal
Thymus
Thyroid

Question 220 of 449

Q.21 Master endocrine gland is

Pituitary
Parathyroid
Thyroid
Pineal

Question 221 of 449

Q.22 Largest completely endocrine gland is

Adrenal
Thyroid
Pituitary
Parathyroid

Question 222 of 449

Q.23 Implantation of embryo and placentation is under control of

FSH
Estrogen
Progesterone
Estradiol

Question 223 of 449

Q.24 Insulin is secreted by

Acinus
A cells
P cells
Y cells

Question 224 of 449

Q.25 Hormones are

Excretory pdt
Enzymatory pdt
Chemical messenger
Nerve impulse

Question 225 of 449

Q.1 Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?

Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
Pupil constriction
Acceleration of heart beat
Contraction of hair muscles

Question 226 of 449

Q.2 During resting state, fluid outside axon contains

low concentration of K+
low concentration of Na+
low concentration of Cl–
high concentration of Cl–

Question 227 of 449

Q.3 The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.

Cerebellum
Medulla oblongata
Cerebral cortex
Thalamus

Question 228 of 449

Q.4 The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of

Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions

Question 229 of 449

Q.5 The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except

Generation of end-plate potential
Release of calcium from troponin
Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

Question 230 of 449

Q.6 Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness?

Thalamus
Reticular formation
Hypothalamus
Limbic system

Question 231 of 449

Q.7 Vestibular apparatus is made up of three semi circular canals. These canals lies at ____ degree angle to each other.

Question 232 of 449

Q.8 At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.

Acetylcholine
Epinephrine
Adrenaline
None of these

Question 233 of 449

Q.9 There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.

Question 234 of 449

Q.10 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

Question 235 of 449

Q.11 Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

Question 236 of 449

Q.12 The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to

Initiate the heart beat
Reduce the heart beat
Accelerate the heart beat
Maintain constant heart beat

Question 237 of 449

Q.13 Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?

Abducens nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Olfactory nerve
Trigeminal nerve

Question 238 of 449

Q.14 Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?

Peristalsis
Digestion
Excretion
Memory and learning

Question 239 of 449

Q.15 Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are regulated by ______ system.

Parasympathetic
Sympathetic
Central nervous
Autonomic

Question 240 of 449

Q.16 Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?

Satellite cells
Schwann cells
Both (A) and (B)
Neither (A) nor (B)

Question 241 of 449

Q.17 Which layer is in contact with brain tissues?

Piamater
Arachnoid
Duramater
Piamater and Arachnoid

Question 242 of 449

Q.18 The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is

Medulla oblongata
Thalamus
Cerebral cortex
Meninges

Question 243 of 449

Q.19 Find the odd one.

Schwann cells
Nissl s granules
nephrons
synaptic knob

Question 244 of 449

Q.20 Select the correct statement from the ones given below

Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

Question 245 of 449

Q.21 cyton has

Single nucleus
Double nucleus
Three nucleus
None of these

Question 246 of 449

Q.22 Neurons are excitable cells because the membrane is

Non polar
Apolar
polar
None of these

Question 247 of 449

Q.23 In Na-K pump how much ions of Na are transported outwards

Question 248 of 449

Q.24 Which among is faster impulse transmission

Chemical
Both
Electrical
None of these

Question 249 of 449

Q.25 Which is not part of brain stem

Pons
Medulla
Mid brain
Cerebellum

Question 250 of 449

Q.1 Which of the following groups is formed only of the hermaphrodite organisms?

Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog
Earthworm, tapeworm, seahorse housefly
Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm
Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge

Question 251 of 449

Q.2 Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only?

Amoeba, sponge, leech
Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
Earthworm, sponge, leech
Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee

Question 252 of 449

Q.3 Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.

Cucurbits and coconuts are monoecious plants
Papayas and date palms are dioecious plants.
Leeches and tapeworms are bisexual animals.
Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals

Question 253 of 449

Q.4 Meiosis does not occur in

asexually reproducing diploid individuals
sexually reproducing haploid individuals
sexually reproducing diploid individuals
all of these.

Question 254 of 449

Q.5 A diploid parent plant body produces ________ gametes and a haploid parent plant body produces ________gametes.

diploid, haploid
haploid, diploid
diploid, diploid
haploid, haploid

Question 255 of 449

Q.6 Which of the following organisms has the highest number of chromosomes?

Housefly
Butterfly
Ophioglossum
Onion

Question 256 of 449

Q.7 In maize, a meiocyte has 20 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in its somatic cell?

Question 257 of 449

Q.8 If a butterfly has chromosome number 360 in its meiocyte (2n). What will be the chromosome number in its gametes?

Question 258 of 449

Q.9 In flowering plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile. The method to bring them together for fertilisation is

water
air
pollination
apomixis

Question 259 of 449

Q.10 In which of the following plants, sepals do not fall off after fertilisation and remain attached to the fruit?

brinjal
cucumber
papaya
Bitter gourd

Question 260 of 449

Q.11 The wall of the ovary forms

pericarp
fruit wall
fruit
both (a) and (b).

Question 261 of 449

Q.12 The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because

offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
offspring are formed at different times
DNA of parent and offspring are completely different

Question 262 of 449

Q.13 The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively

12, 24, 12
24, 12, 12
12, 24, 24
24, 12, 24

Question 263 of 449

Q.14 Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane and ginger is mainly because

nodes are shorter than intemodes
nodes have meristematic cells
nodes are located near the soil
nodes have non-photosynthetic cells.

Question 264 of 449

Q.15 There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because

they cannot reproduce sexually
they reproduce be binary fission
parental body is distributed among the offspring
they are microscopic.

Question 265 of 449

Q.16 There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on

the habitat and morphology of the organism
morphology of the organism
morphology and physiology of the organism
the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.

Question 266 of 449

Q.17 Which of the following is a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants?

Transfer of pollen grains
Embryo development
Formation of flower
Formation of pollen grains

Question 267 of 449

Q.18 The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosomes in the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall be

Question 268 of 449

Q.19 The growth phase of an organism before attaining sexual maturity is referred to as

juvenile phase
vegetative phase
both (a) and (b)
None of the above

Question 269 of 449

Q.20 Select the monocarpic plant out of the following.

Bamboo
Litchi
Mango
all of these.

Question 270 of 449

Q.21 Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases cannot be observed in

annual plants
perennial plants
biennial plants
ephemeral plants.

Question 271 of 449

Q.22 Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in

5 years
12 years
20 years
50 years

Question 272 of 449

Q.23 Strobilanthus kunthiana differs from bamboo in

being monocarpic
length of juvenile phase
being polycarpic
none of these.

Question 273 of 449

Q.24 Oestrous cycle is reported in

cows and sheep
humans and monkeys
chimpanzees and gorillas
none of these.

Question 274 of 449

Q.25 Which of the following animals show menstrual cycle?

Gorillas and chimpanzees
Monkeys and humans
Orangutans and monkeys
All of these

Question 275 of 449

Q.1 IUDs prevent pregnancy by

inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation
increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
all of these

Question 276 of 449

Q.2 Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)

prevent ovulation
make uterus unsuitable for implantation
decrease phagocytosis of sperms
suppress sperm motility

Question 277 of 449

Q.3 Confirmatory test for STDs is

ELISA
PCR
DNA hybridisation
all of these

Question 278 of 449

Q.4 Hepatitis B is transmitted through

blood transfusion
intimate physical contact
sexual contact
all of these

Question 279 of 449

Q.5 Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?

Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B

Question 280 of 449

Q.6 World AIDS day is

Dec 21
Dec 1
Nov 1
Jun 11

Question 281 of 449

Q.7 In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube ?

Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Embro of 32 cell stage
Zygote only

Question 282 of 449

Q.8 From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs

Syphilis
AIDS
Gonorrhea
Genital warts

Question 283 of 449

Q.9 Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.

These are effective barriers for insemination
They do not interfere with coital act
These help in reducing the risk of STDs
All of the above

Question 284 of 449

Q.10 The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is

ovariectomy
hysterectomy
vasectomy
castration

Question 285 of 449

Q.11 RCH stands for

routine check-up of health
reproduction cum hygiene
reversible contraceptive hazards
reproductive and child health care

Question 286 of 449

Q.12 Amminocentesis is a technique used to

determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
all of these

Question 287 of 449

Q.13 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

Jaundice
Down’s syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
Colourblindness

Question 288 of 449

Q.14 In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?

12th – 14th week
8th – 10th week
5th – 7th week
None of these

Question 289 of 449

Q.15 Causes for increased population growth in india is/are

increase in birth rate
decrease in death rate
lack of education
all of these.

Question 290 of 449

Q.16 Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?

Natality and immigration
Mortality and emigration
Natality and emigration
Mortality and immigration

Question 291 of 449

Q.17 Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?

It increases the poverty of a country
It leads to shortage of food supply
It results in unemployment
All of these

Question 292 of 449

Q.18 The best way to decrease population of a country is

to educate people
to have better houses
to kill people on a large scale
to practice and implement familay planning

Question 293 of 449

Q.19 Which of the following correctly describes the measures hat can be used to control over-population ?

Educating people about the advantages of a small family
Raising the age of marriage
Encouraging family planning programme
All of these

Question 294 of 449

Q.20 Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?

User-friendly
Irreversible
Easily available
Least side-effects

Question 295 of 449

Q.21 Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ?

Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial
HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not

Question 296 of 449

Q.22 Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria only ?

Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis

Question 297 of 449

Q.23 The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females

who cannot produce an ovum
who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
all of these

Question 298 of 449

Q.24 Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment ?

IUD
GIFT
IUI
IUI

Question 299 of 449

Q.25 Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the

suppression of gonadotropins
hypersecretion of gonadotropins
suppression of gametic transport
suppression of fertilisation

Question 300 of 449

Q.1 Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle

at the mind secretory phase
just before the end of the secretory phase
at the beginning of the proliferative phase
at the end of the proliferative phase

Question 301 of 449

Q.2 After ovulation Graafian follicle regreses into

corpus atresia
corpus callosum
corpus luteum
corpus albicans

Question 302 of 449

Q.3 Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as

chorion
zona pellucida
corona radiata
vitelline membrane.

Question 303 of 449

Q.4 Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle ?

Release of egg : 5 th day
Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 days
Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation: 11 – 18 days
Rise in progesterone level : 1 – 15 days

Question 304 of 449

Q.5 If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely ?

Corpus luteum will distintegrate.
Progesterone secretion rapidly declines.
Estrogen secretion increases.
Primary follicle starts developing

Question 305 of 449

Q.6 A human female reaches menopause aroung the age of__ yrs

Question 306 of 449

Q.7 A reaction of granules content which harden the zona pellucida and ensures sure block to polyspermy is

acrosomal reaction
cortical reaction
acrosin reaction
bindin reaction

Question 307 of 449

Q.8 Which part of the sperm plays an important role in penetrating the egg membrane ?

Allosome
Tail
Autosome
Acrosome

Question 308 of 449

Q.9 In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in

ovary
abdominal cavity
Fallopian tube
uterus.

Question 309 of 449

Q.10 Besides activating the egg another role of a sperm is to carry to egg

RNA
mitochondria
DNA
ribosomes

Question 310 of 449

Q.11 Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is

spermiation
cortical reaction
spermiogenesis
capacitation

Question 311 of 449

Q.12 The function of the secretion of prostate gland is to

inhibit sperm activity
attract sperms
stimulate sperm activity
none of these.

Question 312 of 449

Q.13 Lower narrow end of uterus is called

urethra
cervix
clitoris
vulva

Question 313 of 449

Q.14 Bartholin’s glands are situated

on the either side of vagina in humans
on either side of vas deferens in humans
on either side of penis in humans
on either side of Fallopian tube in humans

Question 314 of 449

Q.15 In human adult females oxytocin

stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
is secreted by anterior pituitary
stimulates growth of mammary glands

Question 315 of 449

Q.16 The third stage of parturition is called “after-birth”. In this stage

excessive bleeding occurs
fetus is bom and cervix and vagina contraction to normal condition happens
fetus is bom and contraction of uterine wall prevents excessive bleeding
placenta is expelled out

Question 316 of 449

Q.17 spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system

Rate testis
Epididymis
Vasa efferentia
Isthmus

Question 317 of 449

Q.18 In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the

spermatids
spermatogonia
primary spermatocytes
secondary spermatocytes

Question 318 of 449

Q.19 How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte ?

Question 319 of 449

Q.20 How many sperms are formed from 4 primary spermatocytes ?

Question 320 of 449

Q.21 In spermatogenesis, reduction division of chromosome occurs during conversion of

spermatogonia to primary spermatocytes
primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
secondary spermatocytes to spermatids
spermatids to sperms

Question 321 of 449

Q.22 Which of the following groups of cells in the male gonad, represent haploid cells ?

Spermatogonial cells
Germinal epithelial cells
Secondary spermatocytes
Primary spermatocytes

Question 322 of 449

Q.23 The process of release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into cavity of the seminiferous tubules is called

spermiogenesis
spermatogenesis
spermatocytogenesis
spermiation

Question 323 of 449

Q.24 Acrosome is a type of

lysosome
flagellum
ribosome
basal body

Question 324 of 449

Q.25 At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a human female ?

At puberty
During menarch
During menopause
During embryonic development

Question 325 of 449

Q.1 A person with sickle cell anaemia is

more prone to malaria
more prone to typhoid
less prone to malaria
less prone to typhoid

Question 326 of 449

Q.2 Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?

Diphtheria
Flu
Cancer
Malaria

Question 327 of 449

Q.3 Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively ?

Typhoid and AIDS
AIDS and cancer
Pneumonia and malaria
Cancer and malaria

Question 328 of 449

Q.4 Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by

Plasmodium vivax
Trichophyton
Salmonella typhi
Rhinoviruses

Question 329 of 449

Q.5 Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ?

Dysentery
Malaria
Plague
Both (a) & (c)

Question 330 of 449

Q.6 Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ?

Legionella spp.
Burcella melitensis
Vibrio cholerae
Burcella melitensis

Question 331 of 449

Q.7 Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ?

Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
Diptheria, leprosy, plague
Cholera, typhoid, mumps
Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits

Question 332 of 449

Q.8 The common cold is caused by

Rhino viruses
Streptococcus pnemoniae
Salmonella typhimurium
Plasmodium vivax.

Question 333 of 449

Q.9 Hepatitis B is transmitted through

sneezing
female Anopheles
coughing
blood transfusion

Question 334 of 449

Q.10 A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in malarial fever, is

interferon
haemozoin
hirudin
colostrum

Question 335 of 449

Q.11 Humoral immunity is associated with

T-cells
B-cells
macrophages
both (a) and (b)

Question 336 of 449

Q.12 The antibody which can cross placental barrier is

Question 337 of 449

Q.13 The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is

Question 338 of 449

Q.14 A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation.

antigen
antibiotics
exotoxin
endotoxins

Question 339 of 449

Q.15 Passive immunity can be conferred directly by

vaccines
antitoxins
colostrum
both (b) & (c)

Question 340 of 449

Q.16 Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ?

Activated and strong pathogenic antigens
Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
Hyperactive and strong pathogen
Preformed antibodies

Question 341 of 449

Q.17 Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ?

Active immunisation
Passive immunisation
Auto-immunisation
Humoral immunisation

Question 342 of 449

Q.18 The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing

B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes
antibodies to the toxin
weakend pathogen
inactivated T-lymphocytes.

Question 343 of 449

Q.19 Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of

auto-immunisation
passive immunisation
active immunisation
simple immunisation

Question 344 of 449

Q.20 During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the following hosts ?

Human
Female Anopheles mosquito
Male Anopheles mosquito
Both (a) and (b)

Question 345 of 449

Q.21 Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by

Entamoeba histolytica
E. coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Trichophyton

Question 346 of 449

Q.22 Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ?

Plague
Amoebiasis
Leprosy
Whooping cough

Question 347 of 449

Q.23 Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by

Ascaris
E.coli
Wuchereria
Trichophyton

Question 348 of 449

Q.24 Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?

Lymphatic vessels
Respiratory system
Nervous system
Blood circulation

Question 349 of 449

Q.25 Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector ?

Filariasis
Amoebiasis
Typhoid
Pneumonia

Question 350 of 449

Q.1 Integrated Pest Management (IPM) discourages the excessive used of

biological methods
chemical pesticides
mechanical methods
all of these

Question 351 of 449

Q.2 Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?

Trichoderma harzianum
Nucleopolyhedrovirus
Xanthomonas campestris
Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 352 of 449

Q.3 Organic farming does not include

green manures
chemical fertilisers
farmyard manures
compost

Question 353 of 449

Q.4 Organic farming includes

use of fertilisers and pesticides of biological origin
IPM (Integrated Pest Management)
locally developed pest resistant varieties
all of these

Question 354 of 449

Q.5 Living organisms used to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil are called as

biocontrol agents
biofertilisers
synthetic fertilisers
natural fertilisers

Question 355 of 449

Q.6 Biofertilisers are

some bacteria and cyanobacteria
fertilisers formed by ploughing in barseem
fertilisers obtained by decay of dead organisms
fertilisers prepared by mixing cattle dung with crop residues

Question 356 of 449

Q.7 Biofertilisers are the living organisms which

bring about soil nutrient enrichment
maximise the ecological benefits
minimise the environmental hazards
all of these

Question 357 of 449

Q.8 Which one of the following can be used as biofertiliser in cotton field ?

Azolla-Anabaena
Streptococcus
Azospirillum
Azotobacter chroococcum

Question 358 of 449

Q.9 The symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants is referred to as

lichen
mycorrhiza
biofertiliser
biocontrol agent

Question 359 of 449

Q.10 Cyanobacteria are

heterotrophs
chemotrophs
autotrophs
organotrophs

Question 360 of 449

Q.11 Enzyme which has the fibrinolytic effect is

protease
amylase
lipase
streptokinase

Question 361 of 449

Q.12 Statins used for lowering blood cholesterol level are extracted from

algae
bacteria
viruses
yeast

Question 362 of 449

Q.13 Monascus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in the production of

citric acid
ethanol
blood cholesterol lowering statins
streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels

Question 363 of 449

Q.14 During the primary treatment of sewage, solid particles that settle down are called

floes
primary sludge
activated sludge
anaerobic sludge

Question 364 of 449

Q.15 The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to

reduce BOD
increase BOD
reduce sedimentation
increase sedimentation

Question 365 of 449

Q.16 The masses of bacteria held together by slime and fungal filaments to form mesh-like structures are called as

primary sludge
floes
activated sludge
anaerobic sludge

Question 366 of 449

Q.17 BOD is………..in polluted water and in potable water.

more, less
less, more
less in both
medium in both

Question 367 of 449

Q.18 n the sewage treatment, bacterial floes are allowed to sediment in a settling tank. This sediment is called as

inactivated sludge
activated sludge
primary sludge
secondary sluge

Question 368 of 449

Q.19 Which of the following steps is taken by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to protect rivers from water pollition ?

Ganga Action Plan
Narmada Action Plan
Yamuna Action Plan
Both (a) and (c)

Question 369 of 449

Q.20 Methanogens, growing anaerobically on cellulosic material produce

methane
methane and carbon dioxide
methane and hydrogen
methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen

Question 370 of 449

Q.21 Which of the following bacteria is present in the rumen of cattle ?

Azotobacter
Rhizobium
Methanobacterium
Azospirillum

Question 371 of 449

Q.22 Process of biogas production is

aerobic process
anaerobic process
active process
passive process

Question 372 of 449

Q.23 Biogas is produced by

aerobic breakdown of biomass
anaerobic breakdown of biomass
with the help of methanogenic bacteria
both (b) and (c)

Question 373 of 449

Q.24 Dragonflies are used to get rid of

mosquitoes
aphids
butterfly caterpillars
both (a) and (b)

Question 374 of 449

Q.25 A microbial biocontrol agent that can be used to control butterfly caterpillars is

Trichoderma polysporum
Bacillus thuringiensis
Streptococcus
mycorrhiza

Question 375 of 449

Q.1 Desired properties of plants and Animals are possible by which reproduction?

Genetic Engineering
Chromosomal Engineering
Ekabana technology
Bonsai technology

Question 376 of 449

Q.2 By means of following Trans gene expression obtained:

Inhibition of a Innate gene
An occured Biosynthetic passway develop
A protein occured with genotype expressed his desired
None of the above

Question 377 of 449

Q.3 First Transjenic crop was :

Cotton
Alsi
Pea
Tobacco

Question 378 of 449

Q.4 Adjoining of exotic gene in crop is called :

Genetic Engineering
Bio architecture
Tissue culture
Immunisation

Question 379 of 449

Q.5 Transgenic Bacteria is used in the making of following :

Epinephrin
Human Insullin
Glutanin
Thyroxin

Question 380 of 449

Q.6 Transgenic Golden Rice has Highly Nutrient value for:

Lysine
Methionine
Glutanin
Vitamin-A

Question 381 of 449

Q.7 Bt Toxin is :

Intracellular lipid
Intracellular crystal protein
Extracellular Crystal protein
Lipid

Question 382 of 449

Q.8 In a Transgenic crop gene is for the following:

New protein synthesis
Resistance from Antibiotics
In the formation enzyme for Antibiotics
All of these

Question 383 of 449

Q.9 Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from

One parent for one antigen
Different parents for one antigen
One parent for many antigens
Many parents for many antigens

Question 384 of 449

Q.10 Somatic hybridization can be done by:

By Protoplast fusion
By Haploid anther
By cell culture
By Pollen culture

Question 385 of 449

Q.11 Which Vitamin has been transferred to golden rice?

Vit-B12
Vit-A
Vit-D
Vit-C

Question 386 of 449

Q.12 Which one of the following is a step of PCR?

Denaturation
Annealing
Extension
All of these

Question 387 of 449

Q.13 The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from:

Bacillus thruingiensis
E. Coii
Agrobacterium hizogenes
Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 388 of 449

Q.14 From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared.

Cymohopogen
Tephrosia
Crysanthemum
Vitivera

Question 389 of 449

Q.15 The sheep ‘Dolly’ was cloned by using somatic cells from donor’s:

Udder
Skin
Tongue
Earlobe

Question 390 of 449

Q.16 The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDS is:

ELISA
Western Plot
ESR
PCR

Question 391 of 449

Q.17 Natural genetic engineer is :

Bacillus subtilis
Pseudomonas sp
Escherichia coli
Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 392 of 449

Q.18 Bt toxin is :

intracellular lipid
Intracellular crystalline protein
Extracellular crystalline protein
Lipid

Question 393 of 449

Q.19 Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trail:

Insect resistance
Hight lysine (essential amino acid) content
High protein content
High vitamin A content

Question 394 of 449

Q.20 First biochemical to be produced commercially by microbial cloning and genetic engineering:

Human insulin
Penicillin
Interferons
Fertility factor

Question 395 of 449

Q.21 A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed percentage is:

Polymerase chain reaction
DNA finger printing
None of these
Both (a) and (b)

Question 396 of 449

Q.22 Anticoagulant hirudin is found in:

In Snake
In Lizard
In Leech
In Scorpion

Question 397 of 449

Q.23 Herbicide resistant gene in plants is:

Question 398 of 449

Q.24 The species used as natural genetic engineer is :

Agrobacterim tumefaciens
Bacillus thruingiensis
Aspergillus
Drosophila

Question 399 of 449

Q.25 Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing nobel:

Biofertilizers
Biometallurgical techniques
Biomineralization processes
Bioinsecticidal plants

Question 400 of 449

Q.1 For human population, the age pyramids generally show age distribution of

Only males
Only females
Of males and females
None of the above

Question 401 of 449

Q.2 The size of the population tells us a lot about its status in the

Environment
Sex-ratio
Age pyramid
Habitat

Question 402 of 449

Q.3 The number of deaths in the population during a given period is referred to

Natality
Mortality
Sex-ratio
None of the above

Question 403 of 449

Q.4 The number of birth during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density is referred to

Natality
Mortality
Sex-ratio
None of the above

Question 404 of 449

Q.5 Parasites that live inside the host body at different sities are called

Ecto parasites
Endo parasites
Brood parasitism
None of the above

Question 405 of 449

Q.6 Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called

Ecto parasites
Endo parasites
Brood parasitism
None of the above

Question 406 of 449

Q.7 If one species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected is called

Commensalism
Amensalism
Mutualism
None of the above

Question 407 of 449

Q.8 The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called

Commensalism
Amensalism
Mutualism
None of the above

Question 408 of 449

Q.9 One species benefit in

Parasitism
Predation
Mutualism
Both (a) and (b)

Question 409 of 449

Q.10 Both species lose in

Mutualism
Competition
Parasitism
Predation

Question 410 of 449

Q.11 Both the species benefit in

Parasitism
Mutualism
Competition
Predation

Question 411 of 449

Q.12 A stage of suspended development is called

Diapause
Suspend
Migrate
Aestivation

Question 412 of 449

Q.13 To avoid summer-related problems – heat and desiccation by organism is called

Hibernation
Suspend
Migrate
Aestivation

Question 413 of 449

Q.14 Winter sleep is also called as

Hibernation
Suspend
Migrate
Aestivation

Question 414 of 449

Q.15 The shifting of an organism temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return when stressful period is over is called

Suspend
Migrate
Hibernation
Aestivation

Question 415 of 449

Q.16 Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its:

Topography
Trophic level
Boundary
Ecological niche

Question 416 of 449

Q.17 The maximum growth rate occurs in

Lag phase
Exponential, phase
Stationary phase
Senescent phase

Question 417 of 449

Q.18 In which one of the following habitats, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface view most?

Shrub land
Forest
Desert
Grassland

Question 418 of 449

Q.19 Science linking heredity with environment is:

Ecology
Ecophysiology
Genecology
Genetics

Question 419 of 449

Q.20 Submerged hydrophytes have disseced leaves for

Decreasing surface area
Increasing surface area
Reducing effect pf water currents
Increasing number of stomata

Question 420 of 449

Q.21 Water holding capacity is maximum in

Clay
Sand
Slit
Gravel

Question 421 of 449

Q.22 Animals undergo inactive stage during winters. It is called

Acclimatisation
Hibernation
Aestivation
Adapatation

Question 422 of 449

Q.23 Praying mantis is a good example of

Camouflage
Mullarian mimicry
Warning colouration
Social insect

Question 423 of 449

Q.24 Animals have innate ability to escape from predation. Select the incorrect example:

Colour change in Chameleon
Enlargement of body by swallowing air in puffer fish
Poison fangas of snakes
Melaninin in moths

Question 424 of 449

Q.25 Ozone protects biosphere from high energetic:

Infra-red rays
Ultraviolet rays
X-rays
gamma rays

Question 425 of 449

Q.1 Best soil for plant growth is:

Grit
Sandy
Soily
Clay

Question 426 of 449

Q.2 Soil particle determine the character of

Organisation
Biomass
Area capacity
Soil plants

Question 427 of 449

Q.3 Plant roots soil water is

Cellular water
Surface water
Humidity water
Gravitational water

Question 428 of 449

Q.4 Exchange of water in submerged plant

Stomata
Normal surface
Hydathode
Lenticel

Question 429 of 449

Q.5 Submerged Rooted Hydrophyte are:

Uticularia
Prapa
Nymphea
vallisnaria

Question 430 of 449

Q.6 Water co-deficient contains:

Large thin walled cells
Large-vacuoles
Membrane
All of these

Question 431 of 449

Q.7 Xerophyte Contains

Deep roots
Sunken stomata
Thick cuticle
All of these

Question 432 of 449

Q.8 Small extremite animals of tropical region

Allen’s law
Bergmen’s law
Dollo’s law
Cope’s law

Question 433 of 449

Q.9 Hibernation of some animals

Regular
Periodic
Suddenly
Temporary

Question 434 of 449

Q.10 Physical and chemical properties of soil studied by

Climatic factor
Biotic factor
Soil factor
Topographic factor

Question 435 of 449

Q.11 Identity the Hetero Organism

Pistia
Hydrilla
Vallisnaria
Casurina

Question 436 of 449

Q.12 That animal who can bear one third loss of water of one third body weight is

Necturus
Camel
Wall Lizzard
Kyton

Question 437 of 449

Q.13 Root hair absent in

Hydrophyte
Halophyte
Mesophyte
Heliophyte

Question 438 of 449

Q.14 A water co-efficient Mesophyte is

Cappais
Agave
Acacia
Hemeris

Question 439 of 449

Q.15 Gravitated carried soil is

Alluvial
Muddy
Glacier
Compound

Question 440 of 449

Q.16 Kanha National Park is famous for

For Birds
For Tendua
For Tiger
For Crocodile

Question 441 of 449

Q.17 During food chain the maximum energy is stored in

Producers
Decomposers
Herbivoures
Camivourse

Question 442 of 449

Q.18 The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivoure to carnivorce level is

Question 443 of 449

Q.19 Ecological pyramids were first devised by

Charles Eltom
R. Hesse
R.A. Lindemann
Justus von Liebig

Question 444 of 449

Q.20 Which of the following ecosystem has highest gross primary productivity

Grassland
Coral reefs
Mangrooves
Rainforests

Question 445 of 449

Q.21 In the phosphorus cycle, weathring makes phosophate available first to

Producers
Decomposers
Consumers
None of these

Question 446 of 449

Q.22 Which types of the following pyramid are never inverted?

Pyramid of energy
Pyramid of biomass
Pyramid of number
Pyramid of dry biomass

Question 447 of 449

Q.23 Biosphere means

Atmosphere
Lithosphere and ionosphered
Atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere
Hydrosphere lithosphere and ionsophere

Question 448 of 449

Q.24 Best type of pyramid which is always true is:

Pyramid or energy
Pyramid of Biomass
Pyramid of number
Both (a) and (c)

Question 449 of 449

Q.25 decomposers are

Autotrophs
Autohetrotrophs
Organotrophs
Heterotrophs

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