Question 1 of 536
Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following
- enzyme
- substrate
- end products
- intermediate end products
Answer ✔ (c) end products
Explanation: end products
Question 2 of 536
Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
- succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
- cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
- hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
- carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Explanation: succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Question 3 of 536
Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Insulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose.
Question 4 of 536
Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
- lowering activation energy
- increasing activation energy
- increasing temperature and pH
- decreasing temperature and pH
Answer ✔ (a) lowering activation energy
Explanation: Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Question 5 of 536
Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
- Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
- Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
- Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
- Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Answer ✔ (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Explanation: Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Question 6 of 536
Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
- Uracil
- Cytosine
- Guanine
- Thymine
Answer ✔ (c) Guanine
Explanation: Guanine is a purine.
Question 7 of 536
Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of
- Peptidase
- Amylase
- Sucrose
- Lipase
Answer ✔ (b) Amylase
Explanation: Amylase
Question 8 of 536
Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids
- Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
- Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
- Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
- Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer ✔ (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are false
Question 9 of 536
Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
- End product
- External factors
- Enzyme
- Substrate
Answer ✔ (a) End product
Question 10 of 536
Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
- Lactose
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Dextrin
Answer ✔ (a) Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide made up of glucose and galactose.
Question 11 of 536
Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Inulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose
Question 12 of 536
Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
- Collagen
- Trypsin
- Myosin
- Actin
Answer ✔ (c) Myosin
Explanation: Myosin
Question 13 of 536
Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______
- B1
- B2
- B3
- B12
Answer ✔ (c) B3
Explanation: B3 also named as niacin.
Question 14 of 536
Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?
- Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Explanation: Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Question 15 of 536
Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of
- allosteric inhibition
- feedback inhibition
- uncompetitive inhibition
- competitive inhibition
Answer ✔ (d) competitive inhibition
Explanation: When substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, it completes the reaction.When inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, it blocks the reaction
Question 16 of 536
Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is
- DNA polymerase
- carbonic anhydrase
- carbonic dehydrogenase
- DNA ligase
Answer ✔ (b) carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: The fastest enzyme known is carbonic anhydrase. It converts 106 molecules of carbon dioxide molecules per second.
Question 17 of 536
Q.17 Lecithin is a
- polysaccharide
- protein
- nucleic acid
- lipid
Answer ✔ (d) lipid
Explanation: Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Question 18 of 536
Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called
- enzymatic energy
- activation energy
- substrate energy
- initiation energy
Answer ✔ (b) activation energy
Explanation: The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called activation energy
Question 19 of 536
Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in
- Enhancing oxidative metabolism
- Being synthesised in the body of organisms
- Being proteinaceous
- Regulating metabolism
Answer ✔ (d) Regulating metabolism
Question 20 of 536
Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
- Adenine, thymine, uracil
- Guanine, uracil
Answer ✔ (b) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Explanation: Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Question 21 of 536
Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________
- Saponins
- Tannins
- Secondary metabolite
- Primary metabolites
Answer ✔ (d) Primary metabolites
Explanation: Primary metabolites
Question 22 of 536
Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to
- R groups of amino acids
- Sequence of amino acids
- Peptide bonds
- Amino groups of amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Sequence of amino acids
Explanation: Sequence of amino acids
Question 23 of 536
Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that
- One strand turns anticlockwise
- Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
- Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
- One strand turns clockwise
Answer ✔ (b) Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Explanation: Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Question 24 of 536
Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves
- Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
- Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
- Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
- Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer ✔ (d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Question 25 of 536
Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Maltose
- Glucose
Answer ✔ (d) Glucose
Question 26 of 536
Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
- It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
- It is a molecular disease.
- It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
- All of the above.
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above.
Question 27 of 536
Q.2 The first genetic material could be
- protein
- cabohydrates
- DNA
- RNA
Answer ✔ (d) RNA
Explanation: The first genetic material could be RNA
Question 28 of 536
Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
- chromosome 21 and Y
- chromosome 1 and X
- chromosome 1 and Y
- chromosome X and Y
Answer ✔ (c) chromosome 1 and Y
Explanation: chromosome 1 and Y is the correct answer.
Question 29 of 536
Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?
- Rosalind Franklin
- Maurice Wilkins
- Erwin Chargaff
- Meselson and Stahl
Answer ✔ (b) Maurice Wilkins
Explanation: Maurice Wilkins contributed in development of double helix model
Question 30 of 536
Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?
- Initiation
- Elongation
- Termination
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
Question 31 of 536
Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
- DNA-replication
- transcription
- translation
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) transcription
Explanation: It takes place at the level of transcription
Question 32 of 536
Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
- Chromosome 1
- Chromosome 11
- Chromosome 21
- Chromosome X
Answer ✔ (d) Chromosome X
Explanation: Chromosome X was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced
Question 33 of 536
Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
- A – DNA
- B – DNA
- cDNA
- rDNA
Answer ✔ (c) cDNA
Explanation: Such a DNA is called cDNA
Question 34 of 536
Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
- 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
- 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
- 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
- 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Answer ✔ (d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Explanation: Sequence will be 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Question 35 of 536
Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes
- the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
- the promoter and the terminator region
- the structural gene and the terminator region
- the structural gene only.
Answer ✔ (b) the promoter and the terminator region
Explanation: The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes the promoter and the terminator region
Question 36 of 536
Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be
- 5’ – UAC – 3’
- 5’ – CAU – 3’
- 5’-AUG – 3’
- 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer ✔ (b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
Question 37 of 536
Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
- 5’- end
- 3’ – end
- anticodon site
- DHUloop.
Answer ✔ (b) 3’ – end
Explanation: The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its 3’ – end
Question 38 of 536
Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to
- the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
- the larger ribosomal sub-unit
- the whole ribosome
- no such specificity exists
Answer ✔ (a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Explanation: bind to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Question 39 of 536
Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
- lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
- repressor binds to operator
- RNA polymerase binds to the operator
- lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
Answer ✔ (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Explanation: In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Question 40 of 536
Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
- glycosidic bonds
- phosphodiester bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
Answer ✔ (b) phosphodiester bonds
Explanation: In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by phosphodiester bonds
Question 41 of 536
Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
- 20%
- 40%
- 30%
- 60%
Answer ✔ (c) 30%
Explanation: 30%
Question 42 of 536
Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?
- ATGCATGCA
- AUGCAUGCA
- TACTACGT
- UACGUACGU
Answer ✔ (c) TACTACGT
Explanation: The sequence of bases on complementary strand TACTACGT
Question 43 of 536
Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
- 2 nm
- 3.4 nm
- 34 nm
- 0.34 nm
Answer ✔ (d) 0.34 nm
Question 44 of 536
Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
- central dogma reverse
- reverse transcription
- feminism
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
Question 45 of 536
Q.20 Histone proteins are
- basic, negatively charged
- basic, positively charged
- acidic, positively charged
- acidic, negatively charged
Answer ✔ (b) basic, positively charged
Explanation: Histone proteins are basic, positively charged
Question 46 of 536
Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called
- nucleotides
- nucleosides
- histone octamer
- nucleosomes
Answer ✔ (d) nucleosomes
Explanation: seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called nucleosomes
Question 47 of 536
Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
- It is densely packed
- It stains dark
- It is transcriptionally active.
- It is late replicating
Answer ✔ (c) It is transcriptionally active.
Question 48 of 536
Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
- transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
- structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
- Mendel’s laws of inheritance
- biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer ✔ (b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Explanation: They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Question 49 of 536
Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are
- phenylalanine and arginine
- tryptophan and methionine
- valine and proline
- methionine and aroinine
Answer ✔ (b) tryptophan and methionine
Explanation: Amino acids which are specified by single codons are tryptophan and methionine
Question 50 of 536
Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
- Genetic code is ambiguous.
- Genetic code is deqenerate
- Genetic code is universal
- Genetic code is non-overlanning.
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
Explanation: Genetic code is ambiguous is incorrect.
Question 51 of 536
Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
- It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
- It is a molecular disease.
- It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
- All of the above.
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above.
Question 52 of 536
Q.2 The first genetic material could be
- protein
- cabohydrates
- DNA
- RNA
Answer ✔ (d) RNA
Explanation: The first genetic material could be RNA
Question 53 of 536
Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
- chromosome 21 and Y
- chromosome 1 and X
- chromosome 1 and Y
- chromosome X and Y
Answer ✔ (c) chromosome 1 and Y
Explanation: chromosome 1 and Y is the correct answer.
Question 54 of 536
Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?
- Rosalind Franklin
- Maurice Wilkins
- Erwin Chargaff
- Meselson and Stahl
Answer ✔ (b) Maurice Wilkins
Explanation: Maurice Wilkins contributed in development of double helix model
Question 55 of 536
Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?
- Initiation
- Elongation
- Termination
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
Question 56 of 536
Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
- DNA-replication
- transcription
- translation
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) transcription
Explanation: It takes place at the level of transcription
Question 57 of 536
Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
- Chromosome 1
- Chromosome 11
- Chromosome 21
- Chromosome X
Answer ✔ (d) Chromosome X
Explanation: Chromosome X was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced
Question 58 of 536
Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
- A – DNA
- B – DNA
- cDNA
- rDNA
Answer ✔ (c) cDNA
Explanation: Such a DNA is called cDNA
Question 59 of 536
Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
- 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
- 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
- 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
- 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Answer ✔ (d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Explanation: Sequence will be 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Question 60 of 536
Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes
- the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
- the promoter and the terminator region
- the structural gene and the terminator region
- the structural gene only.
Answer ✔ (b) the promoter and the terminator region
Explanation: The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes the promoter and the terminator region
Question 61 of 536
Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be
- 5’ – UAC – 3’
- 5’ – CAU – 3’
- 5’-AUG – 3’
- 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer ✔ (b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
Question 62 of 536
Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
- 5’- end
- 3’ – end
- anticodon site
- DHUloop.
Answer ✔ (b) 3’ – end
Explanation: The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its 3’ – end
Question 63 of 536
Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to
- the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
- the larger ribosomal sub-unit
- the whole ribosome
- no such specificity exists
Answer ✔ (a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Explanation: bind to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Question 64 of 536
Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
- lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
- repressor binds to operator
- RNA polymerase binds to the operator
- lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
Answer ✔ (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Explanation: In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Question 65 of 536
Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
- glycosidic bonds
- phosphodiester bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
Answer ✔ (b) phosphodiester bonds
Explanation: In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by phosphodiester bonds
Question 66 of 536
Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
- 20%
- 40%
- 30%
- 60%
Answer ✔ (c) 30%
Explanation: 30%
Question 67 of 536
Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?
- ATGCATGCA
- AUGCAUGCA
- TACTACGT
- UACGUACGU
Answer ✔ (c) TACTACGT
Explanation: The sequence of bases on complementary strand TACTACGT
Question 68 of 536
Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
- 2 nm
- 3.4 nm
- 34 nm
- 0.34 nm
Answer ✔ (d) 0.34 nm
Question 69 of 536
Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
- central dogma reverse
- reverse transcription
- feminism
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
Question 70 of 536
Q.20 Histone proteins are
- basic, negatively charged
- basic, positively charged
- acidic, positively charged
- acidic, negatively charged
Answer ✔ (b) basic, positively charged
Explanation: Histone proteins are basic, positively charged
Question 71 of 536
Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called
- nucleotides
- nucleosides
- histone octamer
- nucleosomes
Answer ✔ (d) nucleosomes
Explanation: seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called nucleosomes
Question 72 of 536
Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
- It is densely packed
- It stains dark
- It is transcriptionally active.
- It is late replicating
Answer ✔ (c) It is transcriptionally active.
Question 73 of 536
Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
- transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
- structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
- Mendel’s laws of inheritance
- biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer ✔ (b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Explanation: They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Question 74 of 536
Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are
- phenylalanine and arginine
- tryptophan and methionine
- valine and proline
- methionine and aroinine
Answer ✔ (b) tryptophan and methionine
Explanation: Amino acids which are specified by single codons are tryptophan and methionine
Question 75 of 536
Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
- Genetic code is ambiguous.
- Genetic code is deqenerate
- Genetic code is universal
- Genetic code is non-overlanning.
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
Explanation: Genetic code is ambiguous is incorrect.
Question 76 of 536
Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic
- Aquatic amphibian
- Aquatic insect
- Bony fishes
- Mammal
Answer ✔ (d) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 77 of 536
Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic
- Mammal
- Aquatic insect
- Terrestrial amphibian
- Marine fishes
Answer ✔ (b) Aquatic insect
Explanation: Aquatic insect is ammonotelic
Question 78 of 536
Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic
- Mammal
- Reptiles
- Birds
- Snails
Answer ✔ (a) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 79 of 536
Q.4 Which among is the most toxic
- Ammonia
- Uric acid
- Urea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is the most toxic
Question 80 of 536
Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body
- Ammonia
- Urea
- Uric acid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Uric acid
Explanation: Uric acid is least toxic thus requires less water
Question 81 of 536
Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of
- Planaria
- Annelids
- Cockroach
- Rotifers
Answer ✔ (c) Cockroach
Explanation: They have malphigian body for excretion
Question 82 of 536
Q.7 Kidney is present between
- T12 L3
- T11 L2
- T 10 L1
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) T12 L3
Explanation: Present between last thoracic and third lumbar
Question 83 of 536
Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism
- Earthworm
- Prawn
- Cockroach
- Planaria
Answer ✔ (b) Prawn
Explanation: Planaria have flame cells, cockroach have malphigian tubules and earthworm have nephridia
Question 84 of 536
Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney
- 80-90g
- 120-150g
- 110-120g
- 120-170g
Answer ✔ (d) 120-170g
Question 85 of 536
Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons
- 1 million
- 2 million
- 2 thousand
- 2 hundred
Answer ✔ (b) 2 million
Explanation: 2 million nephrons are present in each kidney
Question 86 of 536
Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney
- Nephrons
- Cell
- Neurons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Nephrons
Question 87 of 536
Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as
- Malphigian body
- Renal corpuscle
- Malphigian capsule
- Both b and c
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Malphigian capsul is an excretory structure.
Question 88 of 536
Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Juxta medullary nephron
Explanation: Cortical nephron is short in length
Question 89 of 536
Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case
- Renal calculi
- Renal failure
- Uremia
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Renal failure
Explanation: A functioning kidney is used in transplantation
Question 90 of 536
Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water
- Descending loop
- Ascending loop
- Both the loops
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Descending loop
Explanation: Only descending loop of henle is permeable to water.
Question 91 of 536
Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
- Pineal gland
- Pancreas
- Gall bladder
- Sweat glands
Answer ✔ (d) Sweat glands
Explanation: Sweat glands release these substances
Question 92 of 536
Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as
- Ketonuria
- Glycosides
- Glycosuria
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Glycosuria
Explanation: Ketonuria is presence of ketone body in urine
Question 93 of 536
Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Renal calculi
- Glomerulonephritis
Answer ✔ (d) Glomerulonephritis
Question 94 of 536
Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Vasoconstriction
Explanation: It only cause vasoconstriction
Question 95 of 536
Q.20 ANF can cause
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasodilation
Explanation: It only cause vasodilation
Question 96 of 536
Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is
- 180 L
- 150L
- 130L
- 120L
Answer ✔ (a) 180 L
Explanation: Its approx 125 ml/min I.e 180L per day
Question 97 of 536
Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following
- DCT
- Both a and c
- PCT
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) PCT
Explanation: In DCT columnar cells are present w/o cilia
Question 98 of 536
Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute
- 500-800ml
- 1100- 1200ml
- 1500-1700ml
- 1600-1800ml
Answer ✔ (b) 1100- 1200ml
Question 99 of 536
Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Cortical nephron
Explanation: Its absent or highly reduced in cortical nephron
Question 100 of 536
Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic
- Aquatic amphibian
- Aquatic insect
- Bony fishes
- Mammal
Answer ✔ (d) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 101 of 536
Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic
- Mammal
- Aquatic insect
- Terrestrial amphibian
- Marine fishes
Answer ✔ (b) Aquatic insect
Explanation: Aquatic insect is ammonotelic
Question 102 of 536
Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic
- Mammal
- Reptiles
- Birds
- Snails
Answer ✔ (a) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
Question 103 of 536
Q.4 Which among is the most toxic
- Ammonia
- Uric acid
- Urea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is the most toxic
Question 104 of 536
Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body
- Ammonia
- Urea
- Uric acid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Uric acid
Explanation: Uric acid is least toxic thus requires less water
Question 105 of 536
Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of
- Planaria
- Annelids
- Cockroach
- Rotifers
Answer ✔ (c) Cockroach
Explanation: They have malphigian body for excretion
Question 106 of 536
Q.7 Kidney is present between
- T12 L3
- T11 L2
- T 10 L1
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) T12 L3
Explanation: Present between last thoracic and third lumbar
Question 107 of 536
Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism
- Earthworm
- Prawn
- Cockroach
- Planaria
Answer ✔ (b) Prawn
Explanation: Planaria have flame cells, cockroach have malphigian tubules and earthworm have nephridia
Question 108 of 536
Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney
- 80-90g
- 120-150g
- 110-120g
- 120-170g
Answer ✔ (d) 120-170g
Question 109 of 536
Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons
- 1 million
- 2 million
- 2 thousand
- 2 hundred
Answer ✔ (b) 2 million
Explanation: 2 million nephrons are present in each kidney
Question 110 of 536
Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney
- Nephrons
- Cell
- Neurons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Nephrons
Question 111 of 536
Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as
- Malphigian body
- Renal corpuscle
- Malphigian capsule
- Both b and c
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Malphigian capsul is an excretory structure.
Question 112 of 536
Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Juxta medullary nephron
Explanation: Cortical nephron is short in length
Question 113 of 536
Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case
- Renal calculi
- Renal failure
- Uremia
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Renal failure
Explanation: A functioning kidney is used in transplantation
Question 114 of 536
Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water
- Descending loop
- Ascending loop
- Both the loops
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Descending loop
Explanation: Only descending loop of henle is permeable to water.
Question 115 of 536
Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
- Pineal gland
- Pancreas
- Gall bladder
- Sweat glands
Answer ✔ (d) Sweat glands
Explanation: Sweat glands release these substances
Question 116 of 536
Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as
- Ketonuria
- Glycosides
- Glycosuria
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Glycosuria
Explanation: Ketonuria is presence of ketone body in urine
Question 117 of 536
Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Renal calculi
- Glomerulonephritis
Answer ✔ (d) Glomerulonephritis
Question 118 of 536
Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Vasoconstriction
Explanation: It only cause vasoconstriction
Question 119 of 536
Q.20 ANF can cause
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasodilation
Explanation: It only cause vasodilation
Question 120 of 536
Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is
- 180 L
- 150L
- 130L
- 120L
Answer ✔ (a) 180 L
Explanation: Its approx 125 ml/min I.e 180L per day
Question 121 of 536
Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following
- DCT
- Both a and c
- PCT
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) PCT
Explanation: In DCT columnar cells are present w/o cilia
Question 122 of 536
Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute
- 500-800ml
- 1100- 1200ml
- 1500-1700ml
- 1600-1800ml
Answer ✔ (b) 1100- 1200ml
Question 123 of 536
Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Cortical nephron
Explanation: Its absent or highly reduced in cortical nephron
Question 124 of 536
Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during
- late telophase
- late prophase
- early anaphase
- late metaphase
Answer ✔ (b) late prophase
Explanation: Cells, when viewed under microscope at the end of prophase, do not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
Question 125 of 536
Q.2 Cell plate grows from
- walls to the centre
- centre to the walls
- in patches
- simultaneously
Answer ✔ (b) centre to the walls
Explanation: Cell plate grows during cytokinesis from centre to the walls
Question 126 of 536
Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles
- C, A, B, D
- C, B, A, D
- C, D, B, A
- A, C, D, B
Answer ✔ (b) C, B, A, D
Explanation: Duplication of centrioles occurs in S-phase.Protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase.chromatin condensation is followed by centrioles movement towards the poles. (Prophase)
Question 127 of 536
Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into
- Prophase
- Anaphase
- Telophase
- Metaphase
Answer ✔ (d) Metaphase
Question 128 of 536
Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for
- division of cytoplasm
- division of nucleoplasm
- division of nucleus
- separation of daughter chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) separation of daughter chromosomes
Explanation: Karyokinesis means separation of daughter chromosomes.Cytokinesis means division of cytoplasm
Question 129 of 536
Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 130 of 536
Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
- Metaphase
- Interphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 131 of 536
Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences
- II, I, IV, III
- III, II, I, IV
- IV, III, II, I
- I, IV, III, II
Answer ✔ (b) III, II, I, IV
Explanation: III, II, I, IV
Question 132 of 536
Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
- splitting of the centromeres
- splitting of the chromatids
- replication of the genetic material
- condensation of the chromatin
Answer ✔ (a) splitting of the centromeres
Question 133 of 536
Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
- Autotetraploid
- Haploid
- Triploid
- Allotetraploid
Answer ✔ (d) Allotetraploid
Question 134 of 536
Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
- Pancreas
- Liver
- Ovary
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (c) Ovary
Question 135 of 536
Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
- C, B, A, D, E
- C, A, B, E, D
- C, B, A, E, D
- D, B, C, E, A
Answer ✔ (c) C, B, A, E, D
Explanation: These are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I based on the chromosomal behaviour
Question 136 of 536
Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?
- 6
- 16
- 26
- 36
Answer ✔ (b) 16
Explanation: There are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cell.
Question 137 of 536
Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in
- Mitotic prophase
- Mitotic metaphase
- Meiotic metaphase
- Meiotic prophase
Answer ✔ (d) Meiotic prophase
Question 138 of 536
Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
- Plasma membrane
- Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
- Plastids
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
Question 139 of 536
Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of
- Ribosome
- ER
- Chromosome
- Mitochondrion
Answer ✔ (c) Chromosome
Explanation: Chromosome
Question 140 of 536
Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?
- G0
- G1
- G2
- S
Answer ✔ (c) G2
Explanation: In G2 phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised for mitosis and cell growth continues
Question 141 of 536
Q.18
- Early prophase
- Early metaphase
- Early telophase
- Early anaphase
Answer ✔ (b) Early metaphase
Explanation: Chromosomes are positioning towards the equator.
Question 142 of 536
Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (a) Anaphase
Question 143 of 536
Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.
- Zygotene
- Pachytene
- Diakinesis
- Diplotene
Answer ✔ (d) Diplotene
Explanation: Synaptonemal complex dissolves in diplotene stage of Prophase I.
Question 144 of 536
Q.21 Synapsis occurs between
- A male and female gametes
- Ribosome and m-RNA
- Spindle fibres and centromeres
- Two homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Two homologous chromosomes
Explanation: Two homologous chromosomes
Question 145 of 536
Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into
- Phargmoplast
- Polyploidy
- Uninucleate condition
- Multinucleate condition
Answer ✔ (d) Multinucleate condition
Question 146 of 536
Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during
- Cytokinesis
- Interphase
- Karyokinesis
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Cytokinesis
Explanation: Cytokinesis
Question 147 of 536
Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between
- Non-sister chromosomes
- Sister chromatids
- Non-homologous chromosome
- Homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Homologous chromosomes
Question 148 of 536
Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in
- Metaphase and M phase
- Anaphase and S phase
- Interphase and S phase
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Anaphase and S phase
Explanation: Anaphase and S phase
Question 149 of 536
Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during
- late telophase
- late prophase
- early anaphase
- late metaphase
Answer ✔ (b) late prophase
Explanation: Cells, when viewed under microscope at the end of prophase, do not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
Question 150 of 536
Q.2 Cell plate grows from
- walls to the centre
- centre to the walls
- in patches
- simultaneously
Answer ✔ (b) centre to the walls
Explanation: Cell plate grows during cytokinesis from centre to the walls
Question 151 of 536
Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles
- C, A, B, D
- C, B, A, D
- C, D, B, A
- A, C, D, B
Answer ✔ (b) C, B, A, D
Explanation: Duplication of centrioles occurs in S-phase.Protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase.chromatin condensation is followed by centrioles movement towards the poles. (Prophase)
Question 152 of 536
Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into
- Prophase
- Anaphase
- Telophase
- Metaphase
Answer ✔ (d) Metaphase
Question 153 of 536
Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for
- division of cytoplasm
- division of nucleoplasm
- division of nucleus
- separation of daughter chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) separation of daughter chromosomes
Explanation: Karyokinesis means separation of daughter chromosomes.Cytokinesis means division of cytoplasm
Question 154 of 536
Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 155 of 536
Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
- Metaphase
- Interphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
Question 156 of 536
Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences
- II, I, IV, III
- III, II, I, IV
- IV, III, II, I
- I, IV, III, II
Answer ✔ (b) III, II, I, IV
Explanation: III, II, I, IV
Question 157 of 536
Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
- splitting of the centromeres
- splitting of the chromatids
- replication of the genetic material
- condensation of the chromatin
Answer ✔ (a) splitting of the centromeres
Question 158 of 536
Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
- Autotetraploid
- Haploid
- Triploid
- Allotetraploid
Answer ✔ (d) Allotetraploid
Question 159 of 536
Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
- Pancreas
- Liver
- Ovary
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (c) Ovary
Question 160 of 536
Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
- C, B, A, D, E
- C, A, B, E, D
- C, B, A, E, D
- D, B, C, E, A
Answer ✔ (c) C, B, A, E, D
Explanation: These are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I based on the chromosomal behaviour
Question 161 of 536
Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?
- 6
- 16
- 26
- 36
Answer ✔ (b) 16
Explanation: There are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cell.
Question 162 of 536
Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in
- Mitotic prophase
- Mitotic metaphase
- Meiotic metaphase
- Meiotic prophase
Answer ✔ (d) Meiotic prophase
Question 163 of 536
Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
- Plasma membrane
- Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
- Plastids
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
Question 164 of 536
Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of
- Ribosome
- ER
- Chromosome
- Mitochondrion
Answer ✔ (c) Chromosome
Explanation: Chromosome
Question 165 of 536
Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?
- G0
- G1
- G2
- S
Answer ✔ (c) G2
Explanation: In G2 phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised for mitosis and cell growth continues
Question 166 of 536
Q.18
- Early prophase
- Early metaphase
- Early telophase
- Early anaphase
Answer ✔ (b) Early metaphase
Explanation: Chromosomes are positioning towards the equator.
Question 167 of 536
Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (a) Anaphase
Question 168 of 536
Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.
- Zygotene
- Pachytene
- Diakinesis
- Diplotene
Answer ✔ (d) Diplotene
Explanation: Synaptonemal complex dissolves in diplotene stage of Prophase I.
Question 169 of 536
Q.21 Synapsis occurs between
- A male and female gametes
- Ribosome and m-RNA
- Spindle fibres and centromeres
- Two homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Two homologous chromosomes
Explanation: Two homologous chromosomes
Question 170 of 536
Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into
- Phargmoplast
- Polyploidy
- Uninucleate condition
- Multinucleate condition
Answer ✔ (d) Multinucleate condition
Question 171 of 536
Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during
- Cytokinesis
- Interphase
- Karyokinesis
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Cytokinesis
Explanation: Cytokinesis
Question 172 of 536
Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between
- Non-sister chromosomes
- Sister chromatids
- Non-homologous chromosome
- Homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Homologous chromosomes
Question 173 of 536
Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in
- Metaphase and M phase
- Anaphase and S phase
- Interphase and S phase
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Anaphase and S phase
Explanation: Anaphase and S phase
Question 174 of 536
Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Both a and b
Question 175 of 536
Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of
- Permanent nature
- Temporary nature
- Some are permanent some temporary
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Temporary nature
Explanation: Intercalary meristems are of temporary nature
Question 176 of 536
Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during
- Phase of cell division
- Phase of cell elongation
- Phase of cell maturation
- Phase of cell differentiation
Answer ✔ (a) Phase of cell division
Explanation: Phase of cell division
Question 177 of 536
Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve
Question 178 of 536
Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents
- ability of the plant to produce new cells
- efficiency index
- relative growth rate
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).
Question 179 of 536
Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
- Autonomic movement of variation
- Autonomic movement of locomotion
- Autonomic movement of growth
- Paratonic movement of growth
Answer ✔ (c) Autonomic movement of growth
Question 180 of 536
Q.7 Which one is incorrect?
- Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
- Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
Explanation: Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Question 181 of 536
Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
- Organogenesis
- Cleavage
- Gastrulation
- Growth
Answer ✔ (b) Cleavage
Question 182 of 536
Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
- Ethylene
- Gibberellin
- IAA
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene
Question 183 of 536
Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
- given a dip in ascorbic acid
- maintained at room temperature
- refrigerated
- stored at the top of refrigerator
Answer ✔ (c) refrigerated
Explanation: refrigerated
Question 184 of 536
Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
- length of leaf
- increase in cell number
- surface area increase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) surface area increase
Explanation: Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf
Question 185 of 536
Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to
- presence of meristems
- presence of vascular cambium
- presence of xylem and phloem
- presence of tracheids
Answer ✔ (a) presence of meristems
Explanation: Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.
Question 186 of 536
Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Haemmerling
Question 187 of 536
Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
- Aging
- Regeneration
- Abnormal development
- Primary inductio
Answer ✔ (b) Regeneration
Explanation: Regeneration
Question 188 of 536
Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?
- Auxins
- Gibberellins
- Ethylene
- Cytokinins
Answer ✔ (b) Gibberellins
Explanation: Gibberellins especially GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry
Question 189 of 536
Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
- Auxin
- Gibberelic acid
- Cytokinin
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Abscisic acid
Explanation: Abscisic acid are the derivatives of carotenoids.
Question 190 of 536
Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.
Question 191 of 536
Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by
- auxins
- cytokinins
- gibberellins
- ethylene
Answer ✔ (c) gibberellins
Question 192 of 536
Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called
- Gastrocoele
- Blastocoele
- Coelom
- Neurocoele
Answer ✔ (c) Coelom
Question 193 of 536
Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called
- Gibberlin
- Auxin
- Cytokinin
- Absicic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Auxin
Explanation: Auxin
Question 194 of 536
Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid
- Isoleucine
- Methionine
- Niacin
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (d) Tryptophan
Question 195 of 536
Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy
- IAA
- ABA
- Cytokinin
- Ethylene
Answer ✔ (a) IAA
Question 196 of 536
Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation
- Parthenocarpy
- pseudocarpy
- Apomixis
- Parthenogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy
Question 197 of 536
Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is
- Embryos
- Roots
- Young leaves
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 198 of 536
Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from
- Brian et al
- Went
- Yabuta
- Kurosawa
Answer ✔ (a) Brian et al
Explanation: Brian et al
Question 199 of 536
Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Both a and b
Question 200 of 536
Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of
- Permanent nature
- Temporary nature
- Some are permanent some temporary
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Temporary nature
Explanation: Intercalary meristems are of temporary nature
Question 201 of 536
Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during
- Phase of cell division
- Phase of cell elongation
- Phase of cell maturation
- Phase of cell differentiation
Answer ✔ (a) Phase of cell division
Explanation: Phase of cell division
Question 202 of 536
Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve
Question 203 of 536
Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents
- ability of the plant to produce new cells
- efficiency index
- relative growth rate
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).
Question 204 of 536
Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
- Autonomic movement of variation
- Autonomic movement of locomotion
- Autonomic movement of growth
- Paratonic movement of growth
Answer ✔ (c) Autonomic movement of growth
Question 205 of 536
Q.7 Which one is incorrect?
- Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
- Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
Explanation: Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Question 206 of 536
Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
- Organogenesis
- Cleavage
- Gastrulation
- Growth
Answer ✔ (b) Cleavage
Question 207 of 536
Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
- Ethylene
- Gibberellin
- IAA
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene
Question 208 of 536
Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
- given a dip in ascorbic acid
- maintained at room temperature
- refrigerated
- stored at the top of refrigerator
Answer ✔ (c) refrigerated
Explanation: refrigerated
Question 209 of 536
Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
- length of leaf
- increase in cell number
- surface area increase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) surface area increase
Explanation: Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf
Question 210 of 536
Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to
- presence of meristems
- presence of vascular cambium
- presence of xylem and phloem
- presence of tracheids
Answer ✔ (a) presence of meristems
Explanation: Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.
Question 211 of 536
Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Haemmerling
Question 212 of 536
Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
- Aging
- Regeneration
- Abnormal development
- Primary inductio
Answer ✔ (b) Regeneration
Explanation: Regeneration
Question 213 of 536
Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?
- Auxins
- Gibberellins
- Ethylene
- Cytokinins
Answer ✔ (b) Gibberellins
Explanation: Gibberellins especially GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry
Question 214 of 536
Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
- Auxin
- Gibberelic acid
- Cytokinin
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Abscisic acid
Explanation: Abscisic acid are the derivatives of carotenoids.
Question 215 of 536
Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.
Question 216 of 536
Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by
- auxins
- cytokinins
- gibberellins
- ethylene
Answer ✔ (c) gibberellins
Question 217 of 536
Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called
- Gastrocoele
- Blastocoele
- Coelom
- Neurocoele
Answer ✔ (c) Coelom
Question 218 of 536
Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called
- Gibberlin
- Auxin
- Cytokinin
- Absicic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Auxin
Explanation: Auxin
Question 219 of 536
Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid
- Isoleucine
- Methionine
- Niacin
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (d) Tryptophan
Question 220 of 536
Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy
- IAA
- ABA
- Cytokinin
- Ethylene
Answer ✔ (a) IAA
Question 221 of 536
Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation
- Parthenocarpy
- pseudocarpy
- Apomixis
- Parthenogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy
Question 222 of 536
Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is
- Embryos
- Roots
- Young leaves
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Question 223 of 536
Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from
- Brian et al
- Went
- Yabuta
- Kurosawa
Answer ✔ (a) Brian et al
Explanation: Brian et al
Question 224 of 536
Q.1 R.Q is ratio of
- CO2 produced to substarate consumed
- CO2 produced to O2 consumed
- oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
- oxygen consumed to water produced
Answer ✔ (b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Explanation: CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Question 225 of 536
Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the
- 1 – celled stage
- 2 – celled stage
- 3 – celled stage
- male gamete formation stage
Answer ✔ (b) 2 – celled stage
Question 226 of 536
Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in
- cell cytoplasm
- inner mitochondrial membrane
- mitochondrial matrix
- nucleus
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: Pyruvate is transported from cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in matrix of mitochondria
Question 227 of 536
Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol
- Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- None of these
- Both of these
Answer ✔ (d) Both of these
Explanation: In fermentation, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions in which pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
Question 228 of 536
Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by
- Otto Meyerhof
- Hans Kreb
- Gustav Embden
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Hans Kreb
Explanation: TCA cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle was given by Hans Kreb. So it is also called as Kreb cycle.
Question 229 of 536
Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant
- inferior ovary
- dehiscent fruit
- pair of glumes
- fused calyx
Answer ✔ (c) pair of glumes
Explanation: pair of glumes
Question 230 of 536
Q.7 Malacophily means
- pollination by wind
- pollination by water
- pollination by insects
- pollination by snails
Answer ✔ (d) pollination by snails
Explanation: pollination by snails
Question 231 of 536
Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for
- allogamy
- autogamy
- chasmogamy
- cleistogamy
Answer ✔ (a) allogamy
Explanation: allogamy
Question 232 of 536
Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration
- 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
- 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
- all the formed inside mitochondria
- 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle
Answer ✔ (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Explanation: 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Question 233 of 536
Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy
- C6H12O6, 2H2O
- C12H22O11, 6H2O
- C6H12O6, 6H2O
- C12H22O11, 11H2O
Answer ✔ (c) C6H12O6, 6H2O
Explanation: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
Question 234 of 536
Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of
- numerous corolla
- androphore
- gynophore
- androgynophore
Answer ✔ (b) androphore
Question 235 of 536
Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is
- Cytochrome C
- FADH
- NADH
- oxygen
Answer ✔ (d) oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain.
Question 236 of 536
Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?
- Cytochrome c
- cytochrome a3
- cytochrome a
- FADH2
Answer ✔ (a) Cytochrome c
Explanation: Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
Question 237 of 536
Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in
- protection of delicate embryo
- enzyme synthesis
- transfer of food to cotyledons
- transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips
Answer ✔ (b) enzyme synthesis
Question 238 of 536
Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is
- fleshy seed coat
- stony pericarp
- stony mesocarp
- stony endocarp
Answer ✔ (d) stony endocarp
Explanation: stony endocarp is characteristic of drupe is
Question 239 of 536
Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as
- TCA pathway
- Glycolysis
- Hms pathway
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (b) Glycolysis
Question 240 of 536
Q.17 End product of glycolysis is
- acetyl Coenzyme A
- PEP
- pyruvate
- OAA
Answer ✔ (c) pyruvate
Explanation: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
Question 241 of 536
Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in
- mitochondrial matrix
- Cristae
- perimitochondrial space
- outer membrane
Answer ✔ (b) Cristae
Question 242 of 536
Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
- 0.9
- 1.2
- 1
- 0
Answer ✔ (c) 1
Explanation: RQ i.e. respiratory quotient is 1.RQ = volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2 consumed
Question 243 of 536
Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.
- 2
- 16
- 38
- 42
Answer ✔ (c) 38
Explanation: One molecule of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP during aerobic respiration.
Question 244 of 536
Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:
- 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
- 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
- 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
- 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
Answer ✔ (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Explanation: 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Question 245 of 536
Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when
- Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
- Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
- Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
- Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2
Answer ✔ (a) Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Explanation: Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Question 246 of 536
Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called
- Malic acid
- Tartaric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- Citric acid
Answer ✔ (d) Citric acid
Explanation: Citric acid
Question 247 of 536
Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
- 10
- 8
- 5
- 12
Answer ✔ (a) 10
Explanation: 10 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
Question 248 of 536
Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in
- Intermembrane space of mitochondria
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Inner membrane of mitochondria
- Cytoplasm
Answer ✔ (b) Mitochondrial matrix
Question 249 of 536
Q.1 R.Q is ratio of
- CO2 produced to substarate consumed
- CO2 produced to O2 consumed
- oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
- oxygen consumed to water produced
Answer ✔ (b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Explanation: CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Question 250 of 536
Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the
- 1 – celled stage
- 2 – celled stage
- 3 – celled stage
- male gamete formation stage
Answer ✔ (b) 2 – celled stage
Question 251 of 536
Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in
- cell cytoplasm
- inner mitochondrial membrane
- mitochondrial matrix
- nucleus
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: Pyruvate is transported from cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in matrix of mitochondria
Question 252 of 536
Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol
- Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- None of these
- Both of these
Answer ✔ (d) Both of these
Explanation: In fermentation, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions in which pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
Question 253 of 536
Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by
- Otto Meyerhof
- Hans Kreb
- Gustav Embden
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Hans Kreb
Explanation: TCA cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle was given by Hans Kreb. So it is also called as Kreb cycle.
Question 254 of 536
Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant
- inferior ovary
- dehiscent fruit
- pair of glumes
- fused calyx
Answer ✔ (c) pair of glumes
Explanation: pair of glumes
Question 255 of 536
Q.7 Malacophily means
- pollination by wind
- pollination by water
- pollination by insects
- pollination by snails
Answer ✔ (d) pollination by snails
Explanation: pollination by snails
Question 256 of 536
Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for
- allogamy
- autogamy
- chasmogamy
- cleistogamy
Answer ✔ (a) allogamy
Explanation: allogamy
Question 257 of 536
Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration
- 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
- 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
- all the formed inside mitochondria
- 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle
Answer ✔ (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Explanation: 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Question 258 of 536
Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy
- C6H12O6, 2H2O
- C12H22O11, 6H2O
- C6H12O6, 6H2O
- C12H22O11, 11H2O
Answer ✔ (c) C6H12O6, 6H2O
Explanation: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
Question 259 of 536
Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of
- numerous corolla
- androphore
- gynophore
- androgynophore
Answer ✔ (b) androphore
Question 260 of 536
Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is
- Cytochrome C
- FADH
- NADH
- oxygen
Answer ✔ (d) oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain.
Question 261 of 536
Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?
- Cytochrome c
- cytochrome a3
- cytochrome a
- FADH2
Answer ✔ (a) Cytochrome c
Explanation: Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
Question 262 of 536
Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in
- protection of delicate embryo
- enzyme synthesis
- transfer of food to cotyledons
- transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips
Answer ✔ (b) enzyme synthesis
Question 263 of 536
Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is
- fleshy seed coat
- stony pericarp
- stony mesocarp
- stony endocarp
Answer ✔ (d) stony endocarp
Explanation: stony endocarp is characteristic of drupe is
Question 264 of 536
Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as
- TCA pathway
- Glycolysis
- Hms pathway
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (b) Glycolysis
Question 265 of 536
Q.17 End product of glycolysis is
- acetyl Coenzyme A
- PEP
- pyruvate
- OAA
Answer ✔ (c) pyruvate
Explanation: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
Question 266 of 536
Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in
- mitochondrial matrix
- Cristae
- perimitochondrial space
- outer membrane
Answer ✔ (b) Cristae
Question 267 of 536
Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
- 0.9
- 1.2
- 1
- 0
Answer ✔ (c) 1
Explanation: RQ i.e. respiratory quotient is 1.RQ = volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2 consumed
Question 268 of 536
Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.
- 2
- 16
- 38
- 42
Answer ✔ (c) 38
Explanation: One molecule of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP during aerobic respiration.
Question 269 of 536
Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:
- 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
- 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
- 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
- 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
Answer ✔ (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Explanation: 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Question 270 of 536
Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when
- Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
- Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
- Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
- Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2
Answer ✔ (a) Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Explanation: Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Question 271 of 536
Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called
- Malic acid
- Tartaric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- Citric acid
Answer ✔ (d) Citric acid
Explanation: Citric acid
Question 272 of 536
Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
- 10
- 8
- 5
- 12
Answer ✔ (a) 10
Explanation: 10 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
Question 273 of 536
Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in
- Intermembrane space of mitochondria
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Inner membrane of mitochondria
- Cytoplasm
Answer ✔ (b) Mitochondrial matrix
Question 274 of 536
Q.1 The rate of photosynthesis is controlled by
- the rate of light reaction
- the rate of dark reaction
- the rates of both light and dark reactions
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) the rate of dark reaction
Explanation: the rate of dark reaction
Question 275 of 536
Q.2 The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.
- RuBP
- PGAL
- PGA
- ADP + NADP
Answer ✔ (a) RuBP
Explanation: RuBP
Question 276 of 536
Q.3 The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is
- malic acid
- phosphoenol pyruvate
- rubisco
- aspartic acid
Answer ✔ (b) phosphoenol pyruvate
Explanation: The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 pathway is phosphoenol pyruvate
Question 277 of 536
Q.4 The law of limiting factor was given by
- Calvin
- Blackman
- Priestley
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Blackman
Explanation: If a chemical process is affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be detrmined by the factor which is nearest to its minimal value
Question 278 of 536
Q.5 The metabolic pathway which produces carbohydrate is
- Calvin cycle
- Glycolysis
- Cyclic electron pathway
- Krebs cycle
Answer ✔ (a) Calvin cycle
Explanation: Calvin cycle
Question 279 of 536
Q.6 Manganese is required in
- Chlorophyll synthesis
- Nucleic acid synthesis
- Plant cell wall formation
- Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Answer ✔ (d) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Explanation: Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Question 280 of 536
Q.7 Oxidative phosphorylation refers to
- Anaerobic production of ATP
- The citric acid cycle production of ATP
- Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
- Alcoholic fermentation
Answer ✔ (c) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
Explanation: Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
Question 281 of 536
Q.8 Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?
- Carotene
- Chlorophyll a
- Chlorophyll b
- Xanthophyll
Answer ✔ (b) Chlorophyll a
Explanation: Chlorophyll a is a primary pigment.
Question 282 of 536
Q.9 Besides water and CO2, which is more essential a raw material for food formation
- light
- oxygen
- NAD
- mineral salt
Answer ✔ (a) light
Question 283 of 536
Q.10 In actively gro – wing young plants, the best data for estimating the rate of photosynthesis would be
- ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
- increase in fresh weight
- increase in dry weight
- increase in carbohydrate
Answer ✔ (a) ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
Question 284 of 536
Q.11 Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the
- two distinct photochemical reactions
- light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
- photophosphorylation
- photorespiration
Answer ✔ (a) two distinct photochemical reactions
Explanation: two distinct photochemical reactions
Question 285 of 536
Q.12 Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of
- glucose
- sucrose
- starch
- maltose
Answer ✔ (b) sucrose
Explanation: sucrose is used for translocation of sugar in flowering plants
Question 286 of 536
Q.13 Where are thylakoids and grana located?
- Lysosomes
- Mitochondria
- Chloroplasts
- Golgi apparatus
Answer ✔ (c) Chloroplasts
Question 287 of 536
Q.14 Who enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis?
- Robert Emerson
- Ruben
- Blackman
- Calvin
Answer ✔ (c) Blackman
Explanation: Blackman enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis
Question 288 of 536
Q.15 Which one of the following statement is true for ATP?
- ATP is prosthetic part of an enzyme
- ATP is an enzyme
- ATP is organic ions of enzyme
- ATP is a Co-enzyme
Answer ✔ (d) ATP is a Co-enzyme
Question 289 of 536
Q.16 Kranz anatomy is a feature of
- C3 plants
- CAM plants
- C4 plants
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) C4 plants
Explanation: Kranz anatomy is a feature of C4 plants. Kranz means wreath.It tells about the arrangement of cells
Question 290 of 536
Q.17 Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?
- Oxaloacetic acid
- Phosphoglyceric acid
- Ribulose biphosphate
- Phosphoenolpyruvate
Answer ✔ (a) Oxaloacetic acid
Question 291 of 536
Q.18 Which of the following process (C4 cycle) occurs in bundle sheath cells?
- Regeneration
- Fixation
- Carboxylation
- Decarboxylation
Answer ✔ (d) Decarboxylation
Question 292 of 536
Q.19 Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in
- stroma
- thylakoid
- grana
- cytoplasm of cell
Answer ✔ (c) grana
Explanation: Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in grana.
Question 293 of 536
Q.20 Water stress causes
- opening of stomata
- increase in metabolic rate
- wilting of leaves
- lesser availability of carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (c) wilting of leaves
Explanation: Water stress causes closure of stomata. Since stomata is closed carbon dioxide available to plants is less.
Question 294 of 536
Q.21 During photochemical reaction of photosynthesis–
- liberation of O2 takes place
- Formation of ATP and NADPH2 take place
- Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
- Assimilation of CO2 takes place
Answer ✔ (c) Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
Question 295 of 536
Q.22 In the half-leaf experiment of photosynthesis, KOH solution is used because
- It provides O2 to the leaf.
- It provides moisture to the leaf.
- t helps in CO2 fixation
- It absorbs CO2
Answer ✔ (d) It absorbs CO2
Question 296 of 536
Q.23 Structurally, chlorophyll a and b are different as
- Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
- Chl a has an aldehyde group and Chl b has a methyl group.
- Chl a has an ethyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
- Chl a has a carboxyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
Answer ✔ (a) Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
Question 297 of 536
Q.24 Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires:
- 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
- 2ATP and 2NADPH2
- 3ATP and 2NADPH2
- 2ATP and 1NADPH2
Answer ✔ (c) 3ATP and 2NADPH2
Explanation: 3ATP and 2NADPH2
Question 298 of 536
Q.25 Which one of the following statements about cytochrome P-450 is wrong?
- It is a colored cell
- It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reaction
- It has an important role in metabolism
- It contains iron
Answer ✔ (a) It is a colored cell
Question 299 of 536
Q.1 The rate of photosynthesis is controlled by
- the rate of light reaction
- the rate of dark reaction
- the rates of both light and dark reactions
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) the rate of dark reaction
Explanation: the rate of dark reaction
Question 300 of 536
Q.2 The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.
- RuBP
- PGAL
- PGA
- ADP + NADP
Answer ✔ (a) RuBP
Explanation: RuBP
Question 301 of 536
Q.3 The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is
- malic acid
- phosphoenol pyruvate
- rubisco
- aspartic acid
Answer ✔ (b) phosphoenol pyruvate
Explanation: The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 pathway is phosphoenol pyruvate
Question 302 of 536
Q.4 The law of limiting factor was given by
- Calvin
- Blackman
- Priestley
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Blackman
Explanation: If a chemical process is affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be detrmined by the factor which is nearest to its minimal value
Question 303 of 536
Q.5 The metabolic pathway which produces carbohydrate is
- Calvin cycle
- Glycolysis
- Cyclic electron pathway
- Krebs cycle
Answer ✔ (a) Calvin cycle
Explanation: Calvin cycle
Question 304 of 536
Q.6 Manganese is required in
- Chlorophyll synthesis
- Nucleic acid synthesis
- Plant cell wall formation
- Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Answer ✔ (d) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Explanation: Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Question 305 of 536
Q.7 Oxidative phosphorylation refers to
- Anaerobic production of ATP
- The citric acid cycle production of ATP
- Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
- Alcoholic fermentation
Answer ✔ (c) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
Explanation: Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
Question 306 of 536
Q.8 Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?
- Carotene
- Chlorophyll a
- Chlorophyll b
- Xanthophyll
Answer ✔ (b) Chlorophyll a
Explanation: Chlorophyll a is a primary pigment.
Question 307 of 536
Q.9 Besides water and CO2, which is more essential a raw material for food formation
- light
- oxygen
- NAD
- mineral salt
Answer ✔ (a) light
Question 308 of 536
Q.10 In actively gro – wing young plants, the best data for estimating the rate of photosynthesis would be
- ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
- increase in fresh weight
- increase in dry weight
- increase in carbohydrate
Answer ✔ (a) ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
Question 309 of 536
Q.11 Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the
- two distinct photochemical reactions
- light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
- photophosphorylation
- photorespiration
Answer ✔ (a) two distinct photochemical reactions
Explanation: two distinct photochemical reactions
Question 310 of 536
Q.12 Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of
- glucose
- sucrose
- starch
- maltose
Answer ✔ (b) sucrose
Explanation: sucrose is used for translocation of sugar in flowering plants
Question 311 of 536
Q.13 Where are thylakoids and grana located?
- Lysosomes
- Mitochondria
- Chloroplasts
- Golgi apparatus
Answer ✔ (c) Chloroplasts
Question 312 of 536
Q.14 Who enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis?
- Robert Emerson
- Ruben
- Blackman
- Calvin
Answer ✔ (c) Blackman
Explanation: Blackman enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis
Question 313 of 536
Q.15 Which one of the following statement is true for ATP?
- ATP is prosthetic part of an enzyme
- ATP is an enzyme
- ATP is organic ions of enzyme
- ATP is a Co-enzyme
Answer ✔ (d) ATP is a Co-enzyme
Question 314 of 536
Q.16 Kranz anatomy is a feature of
- C3 plants
- CAM plants
- C4 plants
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) C4 plants
Explanation: Kranz anatomy is a feature of C4 plants. Kranz means wreath.It tells about the arrangement of cells
Question 315 of 536
Q.17 Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?
- Oxaloacetic acid
- Phosphoglyceric acid
- Ribulose biphosphate
- Phosphoenolpyruvate
Answer ✔ (a) Oxaloacetic acid
Question 316 of 536
Q.18 Which of the following process (C4 cycle) occurs in bundle sheath cells?
- Regeneration
- Fixation
- Carboxylation
- Decarboxylation
Answer ✔ (d) Decarboxylation
Question 317 of 536
Q.19 Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in
- stroma
- thylakoid
- grana
- cytoplasm of cell
Answer ✔ (c) grana
Explanation: Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in grana.
Question 318 of 536
Q.20 Water stress causes
- opening of stomata
- increase in metabolic rate
- wilting of leaves
- lesser availability of carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (c) wilting of leaves
Explanation: Water stress causes closure of stomata. Since stomata is closed carbon dioxide available to plants is less.
Question 319 of 536
Q.21 During photochemical reaction of photosynthesis–
- liberation of O2 takes place
- Formation of ATP and NADPH2 take place
- Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
- Assimilation of CO2 takes place
Answer ✔ (c) Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
Question 320 of 536
Q.22 In the half-leaf experiment of photosynthesis, KOH solution is used because
- It provides O2 to the leaf.
- It provides moisture to the leaf.
- t helps in CO2 fixation
- It absorbs CO2
Answer ✔ (d) It absorbs CO2
Question 321 of 536
Q.23 Structurally, chlorophyll a and b are different as
- Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
- Chl a has an aldehyde group and Chl b has a methyl group.
- Chl a has an ethyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
- Chl a has a carboxyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
Answer ✔ (a) Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
Question 322 of 536
Q.24 Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires:
- 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
- 2ATP and 2NADPH2
- 3ATP and 2NADPH2
- 2ATP and 1NADPH2
Answer ✔ (c) 3ATP and 2NADPH2
Explanation: 3ATP and 2NADPH2
Question 323 of 536
Q.25 Which one of the following statements about cytochrome P-450 is wrong?
- It is a colored cell
- It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reaction
- It has an important role in metabolism
- It contains iron
Answer ✔ (a) It is a colored cell
Question 324 of 536
Q.1 In plants, a common symptom caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the
- bending of leaf tip
- formation of anthocyanins
- poor development of vasculature
- appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Answer ✔ (d) appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Explanation: appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Question 325 of 536
Q.2 Function of zinc is
- Closing of stomata
- Biosynthesis of 3-IAA
- Synthesis of chlorophyll
- Oxidation of carbohydrate
Answer ✔ (c) Synthesis of chlorophyll
Explanation: Synthesis of chlorophyll
Question 326 of 536
Q.3 Which of the following is a group of micronutrients?
- Ca, Zn, B
- Fe, Mn, Cu
- Cl, C, Ca
- Ni, Mo, H
Answer ✔ (b) Fe, Mn, Cu
Explanation: Iron, mangenese and copper are micronutrients
Question 327 of 536
Q.4 The process of conversion of NO2– to N2 is called
- nitrification
- ammonification
- denitrification
- nitrogen fixation
Answer ✔ (c) denitrification
Explanation: The process of conversation of NO2– to N2 is called denitrification
Question 328 of 536
Q.5 The formation of first stable product of nitrogen fixation is catalysed by enzyme
- dehydrogenase
- nitrogenase
- isomerase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) nitrogenase
Explanation: The first stable product of nitrogen fixation is ammonia obtained from atmospheric nitrogen catalysed enzyme nitrogenase
Question 329 of 536
Q.6 Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of
- iron
- calcium
- magnesium
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: Manganese toxicity causes deficiency of iron, magnesium and calcium
Question 330 of 536
Q.7 Chlorosis will occur if a plant is grown in
- dark
- shade
- strong light
- Fe – free medium
Answer ✔ (d) Fe – free medium
Explanation: Fe – free medium
Question 331 of 536
Q.8 Choose the correct function of magnesium
- It is a constituent of several coenzyme
- It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
- It activates enzyme catalase
- It helps in maintaining anion-cation balance
Answer ✔ (b) It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
Explanation: Magnesium is absorbed by plants as Mg2+ it activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.It is involved in the synthesis of DNA RNA.It is the constituent of ring structure of chlorophyll.
Question 332 of 536
Q.9 Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from soil are in the form of
- Dilute solution
- Very concentrated solution
- Concentrated solution
- Very dilute solution
Answer ✔ (d) Very dilute solution
Question 333 of 536
Q.10 Which one of the following mineral elements plays an in biological nitrogen fixation?
- Copper
- Manganese
- Zinc
- Molybdenum
Answer ✔ (d) Molybdenum
Question 334 of 536
Q.11 Oxygen scavangers present in root nodules of legumes is
- haemoglobin
- leg haemoglobin
- cyano haemoglobin
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) leg haemoglobin
Explanation: Leg-haemoglobin is the oxygen scavanger in root nodules of legumes
Question 335 of 536
Q.12 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
- Magnesium
- Molybdenum
- Boron
- Zinc
Answer ✔ (a) Magnesium
Explanation: Magnesium
Question 336 of 536
Q.13 Which of the following is not a macronutrient
- iron
- calcium
- manganese
- phosphorus
Answer ✔ (c) manganese
Question 337 of 536
Q.14 Insectivorous plants grow where
- There is carbohydrate deficient soil
- There is nitrogen deficient soil
- Vitamin c is required
- Hormones are required
Answer ✔ (b) There is nitrogen deficient soil
Explanation: There is nitrogen deficient soil
Question 338 of 536
Q.15 Phytotron is meant for
- Controlled humidity
- Induction of mutations
- Controlled irradiation
- Growing plants under controlled environment
Answer ✔ (d) Growing plants under controlled environment
Explanation: Growing plants under controlled environment
Question 339 of 536
Q.16 Toxicity of which element leads to the appearance of brown spots on leaves
- Mg
- Mn
- Fe
- Cu
Answer ✔ (b) Mn
Explanation: Toxicity of mangenese leads to the appearance of the brown spots with chlorotic veins.
Question 340 of 536
Q.17 Presence of phosphorus
- brings about healthy root growth
- promotes fruit ripening
- retards protein formation
- none
Answer ✔ (c) retards protein formation
Question 341 of 536
Q.18 Which element is required for opening and closing of stomata?
- P
- K
- Ca
- Na
Answer ✔ (b) K
Explanation: Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
Question 342 of 536
Q.19 Exanthema is due to deficiency of
- B
- Mo
- Mn
- Cu
Answer ✔ (d) Cu
Question 343 of 536
Q.20 NPK denotes
- Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
- Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
- Nitrogen, Potassium, kinetin
- Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Explanation: Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Question 344 of 536
Q.21 The nitrogen exists as two nitrogen atoms joined by
- Di covalent bonds
- tetra covalent bonds
- triple covalent bonds
- monocovalent bond
Answer ✔ (c) triple covalent bonds
Explanation: triple covalent bonds
Question 345 of 536
Q.22 Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by
- Gericke
- Nehar and Sakmann
- Liebig
- Winograndsky
Answer ✔ (d) Winograndsky
Explanation: Winograndsky
Question 346 of 536
Q.23 The enzyme involved in biological nitrogen fixation are
- Carboxylase
- Oxygenase
- Dehydrogenase
- Nitrogenase
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogenase
Explanation: Nitrogenase
Question 347 of 536
Q.24 The requirement of micro nutrient are always low if the concentration increases it leads to
- deficiency symptoms
- Cell differentiation
- toxicity
- Cell elongation
Answer ✔ (c) toxicity
Question 348 of 536
Q.25 Analysis of xylem sap shows
- presence of enzymes
- presence of organic matter
- presence of nutrients
- presence of mineral salts
Answer ✔ (d) presence of mineral salts
Explanation: presence of mineral salts
Question 349 of 536
Q.1 In plants, a common symptom caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the
- bending of leaf tip
- formation of anthocyanins
- poor development of vasculature
- appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Answer ✔ (d) appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Explanation: appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Question 350 of 536
Q.2 Function of zinc is
- Closing of stomata
- Biosynthesis of 3-IAA
- Synthesis of chlorophyll
- Oxidation of carbohydrate
Answer ✔ (c) Synthesis of chlorophyll
Explanation: Synthesis of chlorophyll
Question 351 of 536
Q.3 Which of the following is a group of micronutrients?
- Ca, Zn, B
- Fe, Mn, Cu
- Cl, C, Ca
- Ni, Mo, H
Answer ✔ (b) Fe, Mn, Cu
Explanation: Iron, mangenese and copper are micronutrients
Question 352 of 536
Q.4 The process of conversion of NO2– to N2 is called
- nitrification
- ammonification
- denitrification
- nitrogen fixation
Answer ✔ (c) denitrification
Explanation: The process of conversation of NO2– to N2 is called denitrification
Question 353 of 536
Q.5 The formation of first stable product of nitrogen fixation is catalysed by enzyme
- dehydrogenase
- nitrogenase
- isomerase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) nitrogenase
Explanation: The first stable product of nitrogen fixation is ammonia obtained from atmospheric nitrogen catalysed enzyme nitrogenase
Question 354 of 536
Q.6 Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of
- iron
- calcium
- magnesium
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: Manganese toxicity causes deficiency of iron, magnesium and calcium
Question 355 of 536
Q.7 Chlorosis will occur if a plant is grown in
- dark
- shade
- strong light
- Fe – free medium
Answer ✔ (d) Fe – free medium
Explanation: Fe – free medium
Question 356 of 536
Q.8 Choose the correct function of magnesium
- It is a constituent of several coenzyme
- It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
- It activates enzyme catalase
- It helps in maintaining anion-cation balance
Answer ✔ (b) It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
Explanation: Magnesium is absorbed by plants as Mg2+ it activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.It is involved in the synthesis of DNA RNA.It is the constituent of ring structure of chlorophyll.
Question 357 of 536
Q.9 Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from soil are in the form of
- Dilute solution
- Very concentrated solution
- Concentrated solution
- Very dilute solution
Answer ✔ (d) Very dilute solution
Question 358 of 536
Q.10 Which one of the following mineral elements plays an in biological nitrogen fixation?
- Copper
- Manganese
- Zinc
- Molybdenum
Answer ✔ (d) Molybdenum
Question 359 of 536
Q.11 Oxygen scavangers present in root nodules of legumes is
- haemoglobin
- leg haemoglobin
- cyano haemoglobin
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) leg haemoglobin
Explanation: Leg-haemoglobin is the oxygen scavanger in root nodules of legumes
Question 360 of 536
Q.12 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
- Magnesium
- Molybdenum
- Boron
- Zinc
Answer ✔ (a) Magnesium
Explanation: Magnesium
Question 361 of 536
Q.13 Which of the following is not a macronutrient
- iron
- calcium
- manganese
- phosphorus
Answer ✔ (c) manganese
Question 362 of 536
Q.14 Insectivorous plants grow where
- There is carbohydrate deficient soil
- There is nitrogen deficient soil
- Vitamin c is required
- Hormones are required
Answer ✔ (b) There is nitrogen deficient soil
Explanation: There is nitrogen deficient soil
Question 363 of 536
Q.15 Phytotron is meant for
- Controlled humidity
- Induction of mutations
- Controlled irradiation
- Growing plants under controlled environment
Answer ✔ (d) Growing plants under controlled environment
Explanation: Growing plants under controlled environment
Question 364 of 536
Q.16 Toxicity of which element leads to the appearance of brown spots on leaves
- Mg
- Mn
- Fe
- Cu
Answer ✔ (b) Mn
Explanation: Toxicity of mangenese leads to the appearance of the brown spots with chlorotic veins.
Question 365 of 536
Q.17 Presence of phosphorus
- brings about healthy root growth
- promotes fruit ripening
- retards protein formation
- none
Answer ✔ (c) retards protein formation
Question 366 of 536
Q.18 Which element is required for opening and closing of stomata?
- P
- K
- Ca
- Na
Answer ✔ (b) K
Explanation: Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
Question 367 of 536
Q.19 Exanthema is due to deficiency of
- B
- Mo
- Mn
- Cu
Answer ✔ (d) Cu
Question 368 of 536
Q.20 NPK denotes
- Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
- Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
- Nitrogen, Potassium, kinetin
- Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Explanation: Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Question 369 of 536
Q.21 The nitrogen exists as two nitrogen atoms joined by
- Di covalent bonds
- tetra covalent bonds
- triple covalent bonds
- monocovalent bond
Answer ✔ (c) triple covalent bonds
Explanation: triple covalent bonds
Question 370 of 536
Q.22 Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by
- Gericke
- Nehar and Sakmann
- Liebig
- Winograndsky
Answer ✔ (d) Winograndsky
Explanation: Winograndsky
Question 371 of 536
Q.23 The enzyme involved in biological nitrogen fixation are
- Carboxylase
- Oxygenase
- Dehydrogenase
- Nitrogenase
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogenase
Explanation: Nitrogenase
Question 372 of 536
Q.24 The requirement of micro nutrient are always low if the concentration increases it leads to
- deficiency symptoms
- Cell differentiation
- toxicity
- Cell elongation
Answer ✔ (c) toxicity
Question 373 of 536
Q.25 Analysis of xylem sap shows
- presence of enzymes
- presence of organic matter
- presence of nutrients
- presence of mineral salts
Answer ✔ (d) presence of mineral salts
Explanation: presence of mineral salts
Question 374 of 536
Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the
- Haversian canal
- endosteum
- red bone marrow
- pancreas
Answer ✔ (c) red bone marrow
Explanation: red bone marrow
Question 375 of 536
Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?
- Webbed feet
- Copulatory pads
- Tympanum
- All are present
Answer ✔ (b) Copulatory pads
Explanation: Copulatory pads are absent in female frog.These are present on the first digit of the fore limbs.
Question 376 of 536
Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in
- blood
- muscle
- Bone
- catrilage
Answer ✔ (c) Bone
Question 377 of 536
Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.
- Vascular system of frog is closed type.
- Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
- During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
- All the statements are correct
Answer ✔ (b) Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
Explanation: Vascular system of frogs is closed and they have 3-chambered heart.
Question 378 of 536
Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?
- Bowman scapsule
- Loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Collecting ducts
Answer ✔ (d) Collecting ducts
Explanation: Collecting ducts
Question 379 of 536
Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in
- fallopian tubes
- blood vessels
- mid brain
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) fallopian tubes
Explanation: Ciliated epithelium is present in inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles ando fallopian tubes.
Question 380 of 536
Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of
- RBC
- plasma
- platelets
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: all of the above
Question 381 of 536
Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water.
Question 382 of 536
Q.9 Fats are richly found in
- alveolar tissue
- lymph glands
- adipose tissue
- liver cells
Answer ✔ (c) adipose tissue
Question 383 of 536
Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is
- the exchange of respiratory gases
- the storage of fat
- the storage of energy
- to convert light vitamin D
Answer ✔ (a) the exchange of respiratory gases
Explanation: the exchange of respiratory gases
Question 384 of 536
Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in
- trachea
- ureter
- bile duct
- intestines
Answer ✔ (a) trachea
Explanation: trachea
Question 385 of 536
Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?
- Bartholin
- Anal
- Prostate
- Adrenal
Answer ✔ (b) Anal
Explanation: Anal
Question 386 of 536
Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that
- the cells are loosely placed
- they are single – layered in thickness
- cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
- cells are generally ciliated
Answer ✔ (b) they are single – layered in thickness
Question 387 of 536
Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :
- sublingual
- adrenal
- Brunners
- lacrimal
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual
Explanation: sublingual
Question 388 of 536
Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is
- actin
- ossein
- collagen
- elastin
Answer ✔ (a) actin
Question 389 of 536
Q.16 Tendons connect the following
- bone to bone
- muscle to muscle
- cartilage to muscle
- bone to muscle
Answer ✔ (d) bone to muscle
Question 390 of 536
Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because
- they protect crops
- they links food web
- they are food to man.
- all of these
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Frogs are beneficial to man because they protect crops and eat insects.They maintain ecological balance.They link food chain and food web.Muscular leg of frog is used as food by man
Question 391 of 536
Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water
Question 392 of 536
Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?
- Clitellum
- Setae
- Intersegmental grooves
- Nephridiophores
Answer ✔ (c) Intersegmental grooves
Explanation: Setae helps in locomotion of earthworms
Question 393 of 536
Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?
- Phallic gland
- Vestibulum
- Gonapophyses
- Collaterial glands
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Phallic gland is a part of male reproductive system of cockroach.It helps in formation of spermatophores
Question 394 of 536
Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified
- Sweat glands
- Mucous glands
- Sebaceous glands
- Sudoriferous glands
Answer ✔ (c) Sebaceous glands
Question 395 of 536
Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is
- Muscle tissue
- Nervous tissue
- Connective tissue
- Epithelial tissue
Answer ✔ (c) Connective tissue
Question 396 of 536
Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is
- Squamous epithelium
- Cuboidal epithelium
- Columnar epithelium
- Ciliated columnar epithelium
Answer ✔ (c) Columnar epithelium
Question 397 of 536
Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the
- Respiration
- Urine
- Skin
- Stool
Answer ✔ (c) Skin
Explanation: Skin
Question 398 of 536
Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material
- Striated muscle
- Areolar tissue
- Stratified epithelium
- Myelinated nerve fibres
Answer ✔ (b) Areolar tissue
Question 399 of 536
Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the
- Haversian canal
- endosteum
- red bone marrow
- pancreas
Answer ✔ (c) red bone marrow
Explanation: red bone marrow
Question 400 of 536
Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?
- Webbed feet
- Copulatory pads
- Tympanum
- All are present
Answer ✔ (b) Copulatory pads
Explanation: Copulatory pads are absent in female frog.These are present on the first digit of the fore limbs.
Question 401 of 536
Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in
- blood
- muscle
- Bone
- catrilage
Answer ✔ (c) Bone
Question 402 of 536
Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.
- Vascular system of frog is closed type.
- Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
- During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
- All the statements are correct
Answer ✔ (b) Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
Explanation: Vascular system of frogs is closed and they have 3-chambered heart.
Question 403 of 536
Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?
- Bowman scapsule
- Loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Collecting ducts
Answer ✔ (d) Collecting ducts
Explanation: Collecting ducts
Question 404 of 536
Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in
- fallopian tubes
- blood vessels
- mid brain
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) fallopian tubes
Explanation: Ciliated epithelium is present in inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles ando fallopian tubes.
Question 405 of 536
Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of
- RBC
- plasma
- platelets
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: all of the above
Question 406 of 536
Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water.
Question 407 of 536
Q.9 Fats are richly found in
- alveolar tissue
- lymph glands
- adipose tissue
- liver cells
Answer ✔ (c) adipose tissue
Question 408 of 536
Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is
- the exchange of respiratory gases
- the storage of fat
- the storage of energy
- to convert light vitamin D
Answer ✔ (a) the exchange of respiratory gases
Explanation: the exchange of respiratory gases
Question 409 of 536
Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in
- trachea
- ureter
- bile duct
- intestines
Answer ✔ (a) trachea
Explanation: trachea
Question 410 of 536
Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?
- Bartholin
- Anal
- Prostate
- Adrenal
Answer ✔ (b) Anal
Explanation: Anal
Question 411 of 536
Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that
- the cells are loosely placed
- they are single – layered in thickness
- cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
- cells are generally ciliated
Answer ✔ (b) they are single – layered in thickness
Question 412 of 536
Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :
- sublingual
- adrenal
- Brunners
- lacrimal
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual
Explanation: sublingual
Question 413 of 536
Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is
- actin
- ossein
- collagen
- elastin
Answer ✔ (a) actin
Question 414 of 536
Q.16 Tendons connect the following
- bone to bone
- muscle to muscle
- cartilage to muscle
- bone to muscle
Answer ✔ (d) bone to muscle
Question 415 of 536
Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because
- they protect crops
- they links food web
- they are food to man.
- all of these
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Frogs are beneficial to man because they protect crops and eat insects.They maintain ecological balance.They link food chain and food web.Muscular leg of frog is used as food by man
Question 416 of 536
Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water
Question 417 of 536
Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?
- Clitellum
- Setae
- Intersegmental grooves
- Nephridiophores
Answer ✔ (c) Intersegmental grooves
Explanation: Setae helps in locomotion of earthworms
Question 418 of 536
Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?
- Phallic gland
- Vestibulum
- Gonapophyses
- Collaterial glands
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Phallic gland is a part of male reproductive system of cockroach.It helps in formation of spermatophores
Question 419 of 536
Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified
- Sweat glands
- Mucous glands
- Sebaceous glands
- Sudoriferous glands
Answer ✔ (c) Sebaceous glands
Question 420 of 536
Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is
- Muscle tissue
- Nervous tissue
- Connective tissue
- Epithelial tissue
Answer ✔ (c) Connective tissue
Question 421 of 536
Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is
- Squamous epithelium
- Cuboidal epithelium
- Columnar epithelium
- Ciliated columnar epithelium
Answer ✔ (c) Columnar epithelium
Question 422 of 536
Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the
- Respiration
- Urine
- Skin
- Stool
Answer ✔ (c) Skin
Explanation: Skin
Question 423 of 536
Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material
- Striated muscle
- Areolar tissue
- Stratified epithelium
- Myelinated nerve fibres
Answer ✔ (b) Areolar tissue
Question 424 of 536
Q.1 Radula is found in
- Pila sp
- Chiton sp
- Lamellidens sp
- Pinctada sp
Answer ✔ (a) Pila sp
Explanation: Pila sp.
Question 425 of 536
Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes
- Jawless
- Bony
- Cartilaginous
- Freshwater
Answer ✔ (c) Cartilaginous
Explanation: Cartilaginous
Question 426 of 536
Q.3 Turtles are
- Arthropods
- Pisces
- Reptiles
- Molluscs
Answer ✔ (c) Reptiles
Explanation: Reptiles
Question 427 of 536
Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of
- labial palps
- one pair of ganglia
- two pairs of ganglia
- three pairs of ganglia
Answer ✔ (d) three pairs of ganglia
Explanation: hree pairs of ganglia
Question 428 of 536
Q.5 Choose the correct pair.
- Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
- Rana – 2-chambered heart
- Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
- Pavo – 3-chambered heart
Answer ✔ (c) Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
Explanation: Crocodilus (crocodile) belongs to class reptilia. It is an exception in reptiles.
Question 429 of 536
Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?
- Lamarck
- Darwin
- Wallace
- Linnaeus
Answer ✔ (d) Linnaeus
Explanation: Linnaeus
Question 430 of 536
Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?
- Platypus lays eggs
- Camels have biconcave RBCs
- Whales respire by gills
- Bats do not fly
Answer ✔ (a) Platypus lays eggs
Explanation: Platypus lays eggs
Question 431 of 536
Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to
- class amphibia
- super class pisces
- super class tetrapoda
- division agnatha
Answer ✔ (b) super class pisces
Explanation: super class pisces
Question 432 of 536
Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?
- Mammalia : give birth to young ones
- Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
- Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
- Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Answer ✔ (d) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Explanation: Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Question 433 of 536
Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Echinodermata
- Nematoda
Answer ✔ (d) Nematoda
Explanation: Nematoda
Question 434 of 536
Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?
- Platyhelminthes
- Aschelminthes
- Mollusca
- Hemi-chordates
Answer ✔ (b) Aschelminthes
Explanation: Aschelminthes is a pseudocoelomate.
Question 435 of 536
Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?
- Bilateral
- Radial
- Asymmetry
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Radial
Explanation: Radial
Question 436 of 536
Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is
- Platyhelminthes
- Annelida
- Echinoderms
- Arthropoda
Answer ✔ (a) Platyhelminthes
Explanation: Platyhelminthes
Question 437 of 536
Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on
- Garbage
- Human blood
- Flower sap
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Flower sap
Explanation: Flower sap
Question 438 of 536
Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of
- Typhoid
- Yellow fever
- Typhus
- Trench fever
Answer ✔ (c) Typhus
Explanation: Typhus
Question 439 of 536
Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
- Ventral nerve cord
- Closed circulatory system
- Segmentation
- Pseudocoelom
Answer ✔ (d) Pseudocoelom
Explanation: Pseudocoelom
Question 440 of 536
Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.
- Threadworms
- Sponges
- Tapeworms
- Liver fluke
Answer ✔ (b) Sponges
Explanation: Sponges
Question 441 of 536
Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans
- Blood
- Bile
- Digestive tract
- Lung
Answer ✔ (c) Digestive tract
Explanation: Digestive tract
Question 442 of 536
Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in
- Sea-anemone
- Sea-pen
- Sea-cucumber
- Sea-horse
Answer ✔ (c) Sea-cucumber
Explanation: Sea-cucumber
Question 443 of 536
Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of
- Tuataras
- Lizards and snakes
- Turtles and tortoises
- Crocodiles, alligators, caimans
Answer ✔ (a) Tuataras
Explanation: Tuataras
Question 444 of 536
Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito
- Sporozoites
- Ookinetes
- Oocystes
- Merozoites
Answer ✔ (d) Merozoites
Explanation: Merozoites
Question 445 of 536
Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Cnidaria
- Echinodermata
Answer ✔ (d) Echinodermata
Explanation: Echinodermata
Question 446 of 536
Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs
- Pulmonary vein
- Hepatic vein
- Carotid artery
- Pulmonary artery
Answer ✔ (d) Pulmonary artery
Explanation: Pulmonary artery
Question 447 of 536
Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is
- Urea
- Ammonia
- Both A and B
- None
Answer ✔ (a) Urea
Explanation: Urea
Question 448 of 536
Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
- Aschelminthes (round worms)
- Ctenophores
- Sponges
- Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Answer ✔ (a) Aschelminthes (round worms)
Explanation: Aschelminthes (round worms)
Question 449 of 536
Q.1 Radula is found in
- Pila sp
- Chiton sp
- Lamellidens sp
- Pinctada sp
Answer ✔ (a) Pila sp
Explanation: Pila sp.
Question 450 of 536
Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes
- Jawless
- Bony
- Cartilaginous
- Freshwater
Answer ✔ (c) Cartilaginous
Explanation: Cartilaginous
Question 451 of 536
Q.3 Turtles are
- Arthropods
- Pisces
- Reptiles
- Molluscs
Answer ✔ (c) Reptiles
Explanation: Reptiles
Question 452 of 536
Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of
- labial palps
- one pair of ganglia
- two pairs of ganglia
- three pairs of ganglia
Answer ✔ (d) three pairs of ganglia
Explanation: hree pairs of ganglia
Question 453 of 536
Q.5 Choose the correct pair.
- Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
- Rana – 2-chambered heart
- Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
- Pavo – 3-chambered heart
Answer ✔ (c) Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
Explanation: Crocodilus (crocodile) belongs to class reptilia. It is an exception in reptiles.
Question 454 of 536
Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?
- Lamarck
- Darwin
- Wallace
- Linnaeus
Answer ✔ (d) Linnaeus
Explanation: Linnaeus
Question 455 of 536
Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?
- Platypus lays eggs
- Camels have biconcave RBCs
- Whales respire by gills
- Bats do not fly
Answer ✔ (a) Platypus lays eggs
Explanation: Platypus lays eggs
Question 456 of 536
Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to
- class amphibia
- super class pisces
- super class tetrapoda
- division agnatha
Answer ✔ (b) super class pisces
Explanation: super class pisces
Question 457 of 536
Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?
- Mammalia : give birth to young ones
- Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
- Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
- Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Answer ✔ (d) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Explanation: Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Question 458 of 536
Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Echinodermata
- Nematoda
Answer ✔ (d) Nematoda
Explanation: Nematoda
Question 459 of 536
Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?
- Platyhelminthes
- Aschelminthes
- Mollusca
- Hemi-chordates
Answer ✔ (b) Aschelminthes
Explanation: Aschelminthes is a pseudocoelomate.
Question 460 of 536
Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?
- Bilateral
- Radial
- Asymmetry
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Radial
Explanation: Radial
Question 461 of 536
Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is
- Platyhelminthes
- Annelida
- Echinoderms
- Arthropoda
Answer ✔ (a) Platyhelminthes
Explanation: Platyhelminthes
Question 462 of 536
Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on
- Garbage
- Human blood
- Flower sap
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Flower sap
Explanation: Flower sap
Question 463 of 536
Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of
- Typhoid
- Yellow fever
- Typhus
- Trench fever
Answer ✔ (c) Typhus
Explanation: Typhus
Question 464 of 536
Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
- Ventral nerve cord
- Closed circulatory system
- Segmentation
- Pseudocoelom
Answer ✔ (d) Pseudocoelom
Explanation: Pseudocoelom
Question 465 of 536
Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.
- Threadworms
- Sponges
- Tapeworms
- Liver fluke
Answer ✔ (b) Sponges
Explanation: Sponges
Question 466 of 536
Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans
- Blood
- Bile
- Digestive tract
- Lung
Answer ✔ (c) Digestive tract
Explanation: Digestive tract
Question 467 of 536
Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in
- Sea-anemone
- Sea-pen
- Sea-cucumber
- Sea-horse
Answer ✔ (c) Sea-cucumber
Explanation: Sea-cucumber
Question 468 of 536
Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of
- Tuataras
- Lizards and snakes
- Turtles and tortoises
- Crocodiles, alligators, caimans
Answer ✔ (a) Tuataras
Explanation: Tuataras
Question 469 of 536
Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito
- Sporozoites
- Ookinetes
- Oocystes
- Merozoites
Answer ✔ (d) Merozoites
Explanation: Merozoites
Question 470 of 536
Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Cnidaria
- Echinodermata
Answer ✔ (d) Echinodermata
Explanation: Echinodermata
Question 471 of 536
Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs
- Pulmonary vein
- Hepatic vein
- Carotid artery
- Pulmonary artery
Answer ✔ (d) Pulmonary artery
Explanation: Pulmonary artery
Question 472 of 536
Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is
- Urea
- Ammonia
- Both A and B
- None
Answer ✔ (a) Urea
Explanation: Urea
Question 473 of 536
Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
- Aschelminthes (round worms)
- Ctenophores
- Sponges
- Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Answer ✔ (a) Aschelminthes (round worms)
Explanation: Aschelminthes (round worms)
Question 474 of 536
Q.1 Which among the following does not exchange o2 with CO2 through simple diffusion
- Earthworms
- Earthworms
- Sponges
- Flatworms
Answer ✔ (b) Earthworms
Explanation: They use moist cuticle for exchange
Question 475 of 536
Q.2 Which among the following have well developed respiratory system
- Cockroaches
- Earthworms
- Sponges
- Mammals
Answer ✔ (d) Mammals
Explanation: Mammals well developed system includes lungs, alveoli, bronchi and bronchioles
Question 476 of 536
Q.3 How many lobes are present in right lung
- 2
- 5
- 3
- 4
Answer ✔ (c) 3
Explanation: Left lung is 2 lobed whereas right lung is 3 lobed
Question 477 of 536
Q.4 Name a sound box which is responsible for sound production
- Pharynx
- Larynx
- Epiglottis
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Larynx
Explanation: Pharynx is common passage for food and air, epiglottis prevent entry of food into wind pipe
Question 478 of 536
Q.5 Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by
- Vertebral column
- Sternum
- Ribs
- Diaphragm
Answer ✔ (a) Vertebral column
Explanation: Sternum is ventrally formed, ribs laterally and diaphragm on the lower side
Question 479 of 536
Q.6 Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs is
- More than atm pressure
- Less tha atm pressure
- Equal to atm pressure
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Less tha atm pressure
Explanation: If the pressure is more than expiration occurs
Question 480 of 536
Q.7 The part starting from external nostril upto terminal bronchioles is known as
- Conducting part
- Exchange part
- Respiratory part
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Conducting part
Explanation: Alveoli and their ducts form exchange or the respiratory part
Question 481 of 536
Q.8 What is the structural and functional unit of lungs
- Bronchioles
- Alveoli
- Bronchi
- Both a and c
Answer ✔ (b) Alveoli
Question 482 of 536
Q.9 On an average healthy human breathes how many times per minute
- 12-16
- 15-16
- 20-25
- 72
Answer ✔ (a) 12-16
Question 483 of 536
Q.10 What is the inspiratory reserve volume
- 2500-3000 ml
- 500 ml
- 1000-1100 ml
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) 2500-3000 ml
Explanation: 500ml is tidal volume, 1000-1100 ml is expiratory reserve volume
Question 484 of 536
Q.11 Volume air inspired or expired during normal respiration is known as
- TV
- IRV
- ERV
- RV
Answer ✔ (a) TV
Question 485 of 536
Q.12 which among the following is measured by spirometer
- Total lung capacity
- FRC
- RV
- TV
Answer ✔ (d) TV
Explanation: Rest all aren?t measured by spirometer
Question 486 of 536
Q.13 Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gas is known as
- Partial pressure
- Diffusion pressure
- Osmotic pressure
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Partial pressure
Explanation: Partial pressure is exerted by individual gases
Question 487 of 536
Q.14 Solubility of CO2 is how many times higher than O2
- 10-15
- 30-40
- 20-21
- 20-25
Answer ✔ (d) 20-25
Explanation: Its 20-25 times higher
Question 488 of 536
Q.15 What is the partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere
- 156
- 159
- 94
- 40
Answer ✔ (b) 159
Explanation: O2 pressure is 159 and co2 is 0.3
Question 489 of 536
Q.16 What is the partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood
- 45
- 40
- 95
- 43
Answer ✔ (b) 40
Explanation: C02 pressure in deoxy blood is 45
Question 490 of 536
Q.17 How many percent of co2 is carried by plasma in dissolved form
- 6
- 7
- 20-25
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) 7
Explanation: 7 percent is carried by plasma
Question 491 of 536
Q.18 How many percent of co2 is carried as bicarbonate
- 50
- 97
- 70
- 25
Answer ✔ (c) 70
Question 492 of 536
Q.19 Every 100ml of deoxy blood delivers approx
- 2ml of co2 to alveoli
- 3 of co2 to alveoli
- 4ml of co2 to alveoli
- 7ml of co2 to alveoli
Answer ✔ (c) 4ml of co2 to alveoli
Explanation: It delivers of 4ml of co2
Question 493 of 536
Q.20 RBC contains very high quantity of which enzyme
- Carbonic anhydrase
- Lysosome
- Ligase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: Only carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC
Question 494 of 536
Q.21 which among the following is caused due to decreased respiratory surface area
- Astma
- Emphysema
- Sclerosis
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Emphysema
Explanation: Astma occurs due to inflammation of bronchioles
Question 495 of 536
Q.22 Whose role in respiratory rhythm regulation is insignificant
- Co2
- O2
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) O2
Question 496 of 536
Q.23 Pneumotaxic centre is present in which region of brain
- Medulla
- Hypothalamus
- Pons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Pons
Question 497 of 536
Q.24 Which type of curve is formed when percent of haemoglobin is plotted against po2
- Straight line
- Hyperbola
- Sigmoid
- Parabola
Answer ✔ (c) Sigmoid
Explanation: Sigmoid curve is obtained
Question 498 of 536
Q.25 which among the following is responsible to shift o2 dissociation curve right
- High Pco2
- Low pco2
- Low H+
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) High Pco2
Explanation: Option b and c shift the curve left
Question 499 of 536
Q.1 Which of the following are the most and the least electronegative elements in the periodic table?
- Chlorine and Fluorine
- Hydrogen and Helium
- Carbon and Oxygen
- Fluorine and Caesium
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorine and Fluorine
Question 500 of 536
Q.2 Which compound of mercury is used as antiseptic?
- Mercuric sulphide
- Mercuric oxide
- Mercuric iodide
- Mercuric chloride
Answer ✔ (d) Mercuric chloride
Question 501 of 536
Q.3 Which among the following is major component of Gobar Gas?
- Butane
- Ethane
- Propane
- Methane
Answer ✔ (d) Methane
Question 502 of 536
Q.4 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?
- Lithium
- Sodium
- Magnesuium
- Bromine
Answer ✔ (a) Lithium
Question 503 of 536
Q.5 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?
- Lithium
- Sodium
- Magnesuium
- Bromine
Answer ✔ (a) Lithium
Question 504 of 536
Q.6 Calcium Magnesium Silicate is commonly called as?
- Borax
- Washing soda
- Baking soda
- Asbestos
Answer ✔ (d) Asbestos
Question 505 of 536
Q.7 Which among the following chemicals is used in Photography?
- Pottasium chloride
- Silver bromide
- Sodium bromide
- Magnesium chloride
Answer ✔ (b) Silver bromide
Question 506 of 536
Q.8 Which of the following methods is used to purify Titanium metal?
- Mond process
- Hall-Heroult process
- Van Arkel method
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Van Arkel method
Question 507 of 536
Q.9 Which of the following Group in the modern periodic table contains Halogens?
- Group 17
- Group 18
- Group 1
- Group 2
Answer ✔ (a) Group 17
Question 508 of 536
Q.10 Which of the following quantum number is also known as orbital angular momentum?
- Magnetic quantum number
- Principal quantum number
- Azimuthal quantum number
- Electron spin quantum number
Answer ✔ (c) Azimuthal quantum number
Question 509 of 536
Q.11 Which of these principles state that in the ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies?
- Afbau principle
- Hund’s rule of multiplicity
- Pauli’s exclusion principle
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Afbau principle
Question 510 of 536
Q.12 What is the multiplication factor when the nuclear reactor is said to be critical?
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 10
Answer ✔ (b) 1
Question 511 of 536
Q.13 Which of the following types a PEM cell belongs to?
- Electrolytic cell
- Fuel cell
- Dry cell
- Galvanic cell
Answer ✔ (b) Fuel cell
Question 512 of 536
Q.14 Which of the following is not a compound of carbon?
- Cinnabar
- Acetic acid
- Chloroform
- Methane
Answer ✔ (a) Cinnabar
Question 513 of 536
Q.15 What is the octane number of iso-octane?
- 0
- 1
- 100
- 200
Answer ✔ (c) 100
Question 514 of 536
Q.16 Which of the following polymer is obtained by the condensation reaction between ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
- Terelene
- PMMC
- PVC
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Terelene
Question 515 of 536
Q.17 Which of these is not a Linear polymer?
- Starch
- Polyethelene
- Nylons
- Polysters
Answer ✔ (a) Starch
Question 516 of 536
Q.18 Which of the following metals is involved in the anodisation process?
- Aluminium
- Copper
- Calcium
- Bismuth
Answer ✔ (a) Aluminium
Question 517 of 536
Q.19 Which of these non-metals is commonly used as a general anesthetic?
- Helium
- Fluorine
- Xenon
- Tellurium
Answer ✔ (c) Xenon
Question 518 of 536
Q.20 Which of the following is produced when wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen?
- Charcoal
- Water gas
- Paraffin
- Petroleum
Answer ✔ (a) Charcoal
Question 519 of 536
Q.1 The process occurring in the presence of oxygen is called… ..
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
Question 520 of 536
Q.2 The process occuring in the absence of oxygen is called… .
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
Question 521 of 536
Q.3 Enzymatic hydrolysis of major nutrients in GIT to yield their simpler components is .....
- Fermentation
- Deglutition
- Glycolysis
- Digestion
Answer ✔ (d) Digestion
Question 522 of 536
Q.4 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Glucogenic amino acids
Question 523 of 536
Q.5 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into ketone bodies are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (c) Ketogenic amino acids
Question 524 of 536
Q.6 The water soluble fuels which are overproduced during fasting or in untreated diabetes mellitus are called… . .
- Melanin bodies
- Ketone bodies
- Glucose bodies
- Citrate bodies
Answer ✔ (b) Ketone bodies
Question 525 of 536
Q.7 Energy yielding anaerobic breakdown of glucose yielding lactate, ethanol with some other products is… . ..
- Protein fermentation
- Fat metabolism
- Glucose fermentation
- Nucleic acid fermentation
Answer ✔ (a) Protein fermentation
Question 526 of 536
Q.8 The biosynthesis of carbohydrates from simpler, non carbohydrate precursors is… . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Gluconeogenesis
Question 527 of 536
Q.9 An oxidative pathway of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as…
- Phosphogluconate pathway
- Pentose phosphate pathway
- Hexose monophosphate pathway
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
Question 528 of 536
Q.10 The process of breakdown of glycogen to blood glucose is … . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenesis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogenolysis
Question 529 of 536
Q.1 Which of the following molecule is most abundant in living system?
- Water
- Cellulose
- Protien
- Starch
Answer ✔ (a) Water
Explanation:
Question 530 of 536
Q.2 Which is the first National park established in India:
- Jim Corbet National Park
- Kanha National Park
- Periyar National Park
- Kanziranga National Park
Answer ✔ (a) Jim Corbet National Park
Explanation:
Question 531 of 536
Q.1 Which Is Known As The Power House Of The Cell?
- Mitochondria
- Ribosome
- Nucleus
- Golgi apparatus
Answer ✔ (a) Mitochondria
Question 532 of 536
Q.1 Which Is Known As The Power House Of The Cell?
- Mitochondria
- Ribosome
- Nucleus
- Golgi apparatus
Answer ✔ (a) Mitochondria
Question 533 of 536
Q.1 Which Of The Following Vitamins Is Soluble In Water?
- A
- D
- E
- C
Answer ✔ (d) C
Explanation: vitamins B and C are water soluble while vitamins A, D, E and K are fat soluble vitamins
Question 534 of 536
Q.2 The Amino Acid Containing More COOH Groups Than NH2 Are Called
- Basic amino acids
- Neutral amino acids
- Acidic amino acids
- Amphoteric amino acids
Answer ✔ (c) Acidic amino acids
Explanation: COOH - acidic NH2 - basic
Question 535 of 536
Q.1 The Fat Soluble Vitamins Are
- A,B,D and E
- A,C,D and E
- A,D,E and K
- A,C,D and K
Answer ✔ (c) A,D,E and K
Question 536 of 536
Q.2 Defficiency Of Which Of The Following Vitamins Causes Bleeding Of Gums And Wounds Takes Longer Time
- Vitamin B1
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin K
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin C
Explanation: Vitamin C is chemically Ascorbic acid.
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