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Question 1 of 536

Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following

  • enzyme
  • substrate
  • end products
  • intermediate end products

Question 2 of 536

Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

  • succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
  • cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
  • hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
  • carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Question 3 of 536

Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose

Question 4 of 536

Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by

  • lowering activation energy
  • increasing activation energy
  • increasing temperature and pH
  • decreasing temperature and pH

Question 5 of 536

Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

  • Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
  • Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
  • Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
  • Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate

Question 6 of 536

Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

  • Uracil
  • Cytosine
  • Guanine
  • Thymine

Question 7 of 536

Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of

  • Peptidase
  • Amylase
  • Sucrose
  • Lipase

Question 8 of 536

Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids

  • Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
  • Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
  • Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  • Both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 9 of 536

Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?

  • End product
  • External factors
  • Enzyme
  • Substrate

Question 10 of 536

Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?

  • Lactose
  • Starch
  • Glycogen
  • Dextrin

Question 11 of 536

Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______

  • glucose and fructose
  • glucose and fructose
  • fructose and mannose
  • mannose and glucose

Question 12 of 536

Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is

  • Collagen
  • Trypsin
  • Myosin
  • Actin

Question 13 of 536

Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______

  • B1
  • B2
  • B3
  • B12

Question 14 of 536

Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

  • Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
  • Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme

Question 15 of 536

Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of

  • allosteric inhibition
  • feedback inhibition
  • uncompetitive inhibition
  • competitive inhibition

Question 16 of 536

Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is

  • DNA polymerase
  • carbonic anhydrase
  • carbonic dehydrogenase
  • DNA ligase

Question 17 of 536

Q.17 Lecithin is a

  • polysaccharide
  • protein
  • nucleic acid
  • lipid

Question 18 of 536

Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called

  • enzymatic energy
  • activation energy
  • substrate energy
  • initiation energy

Question 19 of 536

Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in

  • Enhancing oxidative metabolism
  • Being synthesised in the body of organisms
  • Being proteinaceous
  • Regulating metabolism

Question 20 of 536

Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA

  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
  • Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
  • Adenine, thymine, uracil
  • Guanine, uracil

Question 21 of 536

Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________

  • Saponins
  • Tannins
  • Secondary metabolite
  • Primary metabolites

Question 22 of 536

Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to

  • R groups of amino acids
  • Sequence of amino acids
  • Peptide bonds
  • Amino groups of amino acids

Question 23 of 536

Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that

  • One strand turns anticlockwise
  • Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
  • Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
  • One strand turns clockwise

Question 24 of 536

Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves

  • Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
  • Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
  • Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
  • Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 25 of 536

Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is

  • Sucrose
  • Fructose
  • Maltose
  • Glucose

Question 26 of 536

Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?

  • It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
  • It is a molecular disease.
  • It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
  • All of the above.

Question 27 of 536

Q.2 The first genetic material could be

  • protein
  • cabohydrates
  • DNA
  • RNA

Question 28 of 536

Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively

  • chromosome 21 and Y
  • chromosome 1 and X
  • chromosome 1 and Y
  • chromosome X and Y

Question 29 of 536

Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?

  • Rosalind Franklin
  • Maurice Wilkins
  • Erwin Chargaff
  • Meselson and Stahl

Question 30 of 536

Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?

  • Initiation
  • Elongation
  • Termination
  • All of the above

Question 31 of 536

Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

  • DNA-replication
  • transcription
  • translation
  • none of the above

Question 32 of 536

Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?

  • Chromosome 1
  • Chromosome 11
  • Chromosome 21
  • Chromosome X

Question 33 of 536

Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called

  • A – DNA
  • B – DNA
  • cDNA
  • rDNA

Question 34 of 536

Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be

  • 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
  • 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.

Question 35 of 536

Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes

  • the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
  • the promoter and the terminator region
  • the structural gene and the terminator region
  • the structural gene only.

Question 36 of 536

Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be

  • 5’ – UAC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAU – 3’
  • 5’-AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – GUA – 3’

Question 37 of 536

Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

  • 5’- end
  • 3’ – end
  • anticodon site
  • DHUloop.

Question 38 of 536

Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to

  • the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
  • the larger ribosomal sub-unit
  • the whole ribosome
  • no such specificity exists

Question 39 of 536

Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when

  • lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
  • repressor binds to operator
  • RNA polymerase binds to the operator
  • lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.

Question 40 of 536

Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

  • glycosidic bonds
  • phosphodiester bonds
  • peptide bonds
  • hydrogen bonds

Question 41 of 536

Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?

  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 30%
  • 60%

Question 42 of 536

Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?

  • ATGCATGCA
  • AUGCAUGCA
  • TACTACGT
  • UACGUACGU

Question 43 of 536

Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?

  • 2 nm
  • 3.4 nm
  • 34 nm
  • 0.34 nm

Question 44 of 536

Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by

  • central dogma reverse
  • reverse transcription
  • feminism
  • all of these

Question 45 of 536

Q.20 Histone proteins are

  • basic, negatively charged
  • basic, positively charged
  • acidic, positively charged
  • acidic, negatively charged

Question 46 of 536

Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called

  • nucleotides
  • nucleosides
  • histone octamer
  • nucleosomes

Question 47 of 536

Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,

  • It is densely packed
  • It stains dark
  • It is transcriptionally active.
  • It is late replicating

Question 48 of 536

Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of

  • transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
  • structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
  • Mendel’s laws of inheritance
  • biotechnology by Kary Muliis.

Question 49 of 536

Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are

  • phenylalanine and arginine
  • tryptophan and methionine
  • valine and proline
  • methionine and aroinine

Question 50 of 536

Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

  • Genetic code is ambiguous.
  • Genetic code is deqenerate
  • Genetic code is universal
  • Genetic code is non-overlanning.

Question 51 of 536

Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?

  • It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
  • It is a molecular disease.
  • It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
  • All of the above.

Question 52 of 536

Q.2 The first genetic material could be

  • protein
  • cabohydrates
  • DNA
  • RNA

Question 53 of 536

Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively

  • chromosome 21 and Y
  • chromosome 1 and X
  • chromosome 1 and Y
  • chromosome X and Y

Question 54 of 536

Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?

  • Rosalind Franklin
  • Maurice Wilkins
  • Erwin Chargaff
  • Meselson and Stahl

Question 55 of 536

Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?

  • Initiation
  • Elongation
  • Termination
  • All of the above

Question 56 of 536

Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of

  • DNA-replication
  • transcription
  • translation
  • none of the above

Question 57 of 536

Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?

  • Chromosome 1
  • Chromosome 11
  • Chromosome 21
  • Chromosome X

Question 58 of 536

Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called

  • A – DNA
  • B – DNA
  • cDNA
  • rDNA

Question 59 of 536

Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be

  • 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
  • 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.

Question 60 of 536

Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes

  • the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
  • the promoter and the terminator region
  • the structural gene and the terminator region
  • the structural gene only.

Question 61 of 536

Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be

  • 5’ – UAC – 3’
  • 5’ – CAU – 3’
  • 5’-AUG – 3’
  • 5’ – GUA – 3’

Question 62 of 536

Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

  • 5’- end
  • 3’ – end
  • anticodon site
  • DHUloop.

Question 63 of 536

Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to

  • the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
  • the larger ribosomal sub-unit
  • the whole ribosome
  • no such specificity exists

Question 64 of 536

Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when

  • lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
  • repressor binds to operator
  • RNA polymerase binds to the operator
  • lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.

Question 65 of 536

Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by

  • glycosidic bonds
  • phosphodiester bonds
  • peptide bonds
  • hydrogen bonds

Question 66 of 536

Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?

  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 30%
  • 60%

Question 67 of 536

Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?

  • ATGCATGCA
  • AUGCAUGCA
  • TACTACGT
  • UACGUACGU

Question 68 of 536

Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?

  • 2 nm
  • 3.4 nm
  • 34 nm
  • 0.34 nm

Question 69 of 536

Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by

  • central dogma reverse
  • reverse transcription
  • feminism
  • all of these

Question 70 of 536

Q.20 Histone proteins are

  • basic, negatively charged
  • basic, positively charged
  • acidic, positively charged
  • acidic, negatively charged

Question 71 of 536

Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called

  • nucleotides
  • nucleosides
  • histone octamer
  • nucleosomes

Question 72 of 536

Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,

  • It is densely packed
  • It stains dark
  • It is transcriptionally active.
  • It is late replicating

Question 73 of 536

Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of

  • transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
  • structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
  • Mendel’s laws of inheritance
  • biotechnology by Kary Muliis.

Question 74 of 536

Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are

  • phenylalanine and arginine
  • tryptophan and methionine
  • valine and proline
  • methionine and aroinine

Question 75 of 536

Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?

  • Genetic code is ambiguous.
  • Genetic code is deqenerate
  • Genetic code is universal
  • Genetic code is non-overlanning.

Question 76 of 536

Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic

  • Aquatic amphibian
  • Aquatic insect
  • Bony fishes
  • Mammal

Question 77 of 536

Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic

  • Mammal
  • Aquatic insect
  • Terrestrial amphibian
  • Marine fishes

Question 78 of 536

Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic

  • Mammal
  • Reptiles
  • Birds
  • Snails

Question 79 of 536

Q.4 Which among is the most toxic

  • Ammonia
  • Uric acid
  • Urea
  • None of the above

Question 80 of 536

Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body

  • Ammonia
  • Urea
  • Uric acid
  • None of the above

Question 81 of 536

Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of

  • Planaria
  • Annelids
  • Cockroach
  • Rotifers

Question 82 of 536

Q.7 Kidney is present between

  • T12 L3
  • T11 L2
  • T 10 L1
  • None of the above

Question 83 of 536

Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism

  • Earthworm
  • Prawn
  • Cockroach
  • Planaria

Question 84 of 536

Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney

  • 80-90g
  • 120-150g
  • 110-120g
  • 120-170g

Question 85 of 536

Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons

  • 1 million
  • 2 million
  • 2 thousand
  • 2 hundred

Question 86 of 536

Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney

  • Nephrons
  • Cell
  • Neurons
  • None of the above

Question 87 of 536

Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as

  • Malphigian body
  • Renal corpuscle
  • Malphigian capsule
  • Both b and c

Question 88 of 536

Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 89 of 536

Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case

  • Renal calculi
  • Renal failure
  • Uremia
  • None of the above

Question 90 of 536

Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water

  • Descending loop
  • Ascending loop
  • Both the loops
  • None of the above

Question 91 of 536

Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes

  • Pineal gland
  • Pancreas
  • Gall bladder
  • Sweat glands

Question 92 of 536

Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as

  • Ketonuria
  • Glycosides
  • Glycosuria
  • None of the above

Question 93 of 536

Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as

  • Uremia
  • Renal failure
  • Renal calculi
  • Glomerulonephritis

Question 94 of 536

Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 95 of 536

Q.20 ANF can cause

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 96 of 536

Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is

  • 180 L
  • 150L
  • 130L
  • 120L

Question 97 of 536

Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following

  • DCT
  • Both a and c
  • PCT
  • None of the above

Question 98 of 536

Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute

  • 500-800ml
  • 1100- 1200ml
  • 1500-1700ml
  • 1600-1800ml

Question 99 of 536

Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 100 of 536

Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic

  • Aquatic amphibian
  • Aquatic insect
  • Bony fishes
  • Mammal

Question 101 of 536

Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic

  • Mammal
  • Aquatic insect
  • Terrestrial amphibian
  • Marine fishes

Question 102 of 536

Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic

  • Mammal
  • Reptiles
  • Birds
  • Snails

Question 103 of 536

Q.4 Which among is the most toxic

  • Ammonia
  • Uric acid
  • Urea
  • None of the above

Question 104 of 536

Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body

  • Ammonia
  • Urea
  • Uric acid
  • None of the above

Question 105 of 536

Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of

  • Planaria
  • Annelids
  • Cockroach
  • Rotifers

Question 106 of 536

Q.7 Kidney is present between

  • T12 L3
  • T11 L2
  • T 10 L1
  • None of the above

Question 107 of 536

Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism

  • Earthworm
  • Prawn
  • Cockroach
  • Planaria

Question 108 of 536

Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney

  • 80-90g
  • 120-150g
  • 110-120g
  • 120-170g

Question 109 of 536

Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons

  • 1 million
  • 2 million
  • 2 thousand
  • 2 hundred

Question 110 of 536

Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney

  • Nephrons
  • Cell
  • Neurons
  • None of the above

Question 111 of 536

Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as

  • Malphigian body
  • Renal corpuscle
  • Malphigian capsule
  • Both b and c

Question 112 of 536

Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 113 of 536

Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case

  • Renal calculi
  • Renal failure
  • Uremia
  • None of the above

Question 114 of 536

Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water

  • Descending loop
  • Ascending loop
  • Both the loops
  • None of the above

Question 115 of 536

Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes

  • Pineal gland
  • Pancreas
  • Gall bladder
  • Sweat glands

Question 116 of 536

Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as

  • Ketonuria
  • Glycosides
  • Glycosuria
  • None of the above

Question 117 of 536

Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as

  • Uremia
  • Renal failure
  • Renal calculi
  • Glomerulonephritis

Question 118 of 536

Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 119 of 536

Q.20 ANF can cause

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 120 of 536

Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is

  • 180 L
  • 150L
  • 130L
  • 120L

Question 121 of 536

Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following

  • DCT
  • Both a and c
  • PCT
  • None of the above

Question 122 of 536

Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute

  • 500-800ml
  • 1100- 1200ml
  • 1500-1700ml
  • 1600-1800ml

Question 123 of 536

Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron

  • Cortical nephron
  • Juxta medullary nephron
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 124 of 536

Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during

  • late telophase
  • late prophase
  • early anaphase
  • late metaphase

Question 125 of 536

Q.2 Cell plate grows from

  • walls to the centre
  • centre to the walls
  • in patches
  • simultaneously

Question 126 of 536

Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles

  • C, A, B, D
  • C, B, A, D
  • C, D, B, A
  • A, C, D, B

Question 127 of 536

Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into

  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
  • Metaphase

Question 128 of 536

Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for

  • division of cytoplasm
  • division of nucleoplasm
  • division of nucleus
  • separation of daughter chromosomes

Question 129 of 536

Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 130 of 536

Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during

  • Metaphase
  • Interphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 131 of 536

Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences

  • II, I, IV, III
  • III, II, I, IV
  • IV, III, II, I
  • I, IV, III, II

Question 132 of 536

Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is

  • splitting of the centromeres
  • splitting of the chromatids
  • replication of the genetic material
  • condensation of the chromatin

Question 133 of 536

Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?

  • Autotetraploid
  • Haploid
  • Triploid
  • Allotetraploid

Question 134 of 536

Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.

  • Pancreas
  • Liver
  • Ovary
  • Kidney

Question 135 of 536

Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene

  • C, B, A, D, E
  • C, A, B, E, D
  • C, B, A, E, D
  • D, B, C, E, A

Question 136 of 536

Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?

  • 6
  • 16
  • 26
  • 36

Question 137 of 536

Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in

  • Mitotic prophase
  • Mitotic metaphase
  • Meiotic metaphase
  • Meiotic prophase

Question 138 of 536

Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?

  • Plasma membrane
  • Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
  • Plastids
  • none of these

Question 139 of 536

Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of

  • Ribosome
  • ER
  • Chromosome
  • Mitochondrion

Question 140 of 536

Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • S

Question 141 of 536

Q.18

  • Early prophase
  • Early metaphase
  • Early telophase
  • Early anaphase

Question 142 of 536

Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 143 of 536

Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.

  • Zygotene
  • Pachytene
  • Diakinesis
  • Diplotene

Question 144 of 536

Q.21 Synapsis occurs between

  • A male and female gametes
  • Ribosome and m-RNA
  • Spindle fibres and centromeres
  • Two homologous chromosomes

Question 145 of 536

Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into

  • Phargmoplast
  • Polyploidy
  • Uninucleate condition
  • Multinucleate condition

Question 146 of 536

Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during

  • Cytokinesis
  • Interphase
  • Karyokinesis
  • None of these

Question 147 of 536

Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between

  • Non-sister chromosomes
  • Sister chromatids
  • Non-homologous chromosome
  • Homologous chromosomes

Question 148 of 536

Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in

  • Metaphase and M phase
  • Anaphase and S phase
  • Interphase and S phase
  • None of these

Question 149 of 536

Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during

  • late telophase
  • late prophase
  • early anaphase
  • late metaphase

Question 150 of 536

Q.2 Cell plate grows from

  • walls to the centre
  • centre to the walls
  • in patches
  • simultaneously

Question 151 of 536

Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles

  • C, A, B, D
  • C, B, A, D
  • C, D, B, A
  • A, C, D, B

Question 152 of 536

Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into

  • Prophase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase
  • Metaphase

Question 153 of 536

Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for

  • division of cytoplasm
  • division of nucleoplasm
  • division of nucleus
  • separation of daughter chromosomes

Question 154 of 536

Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 155 of 536

Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during

  • Metaphase
  • Interphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 156 of 536

Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences

  • II, I, IV, III
  • III, II, I, IV
  • IV, III, II, I
  • I, IV, III, II

Question 157 of 536

Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is

  • splitting of the centromeres
  • splitting of the chromatids
  • replication of the genetic material
  • condensation of the chromatin

Question 158 of 536

Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?

  • Autotetraploid
  • Haploid
  • Triploid
  • Allotetraploid

Question 159 of 536

Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.

  • Pancreas
  • Liver
  • Ovary
  • Kidney

Question 160 of 536

Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene

  • C, B, A, D, E
  • C, A, B, E, D
  • C, B, A, E, D
  • D, B, C, E, A

Question 161 of 536

Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?

  • 6
  • 16
  • 26
  • 36

Question 162 of 536

Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in

  • Mitotic prophase
  • Mitotic metaphase
  • Meiotic metaphase
  • Meiotic prophase

Question 163 of 536

Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?

  • Plasma membrane
  • Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
  • Plastids
  • none of these

Question 164 of 536

Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of

  • Ribosome
  • ER
  • Chromosome
  • Mitochondrion

Question 165 of 536

Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?

  • G0
  • G1
  • G2
  • S

Question 166 of 536

Q.18

  • Early prophase
  • Early metaphase
  • Early telophase
  • Early anaphase

Question 167 of 536

Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

  • Anaphase
  • Metaphase
  • Prophase
  • Telophase

Question 168 of 536

Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.

  • Zygotene
  • Pachytene
  • Diakinesis
  • Diplotene

Question 169 of 536

Q.21 Synapsis occurs between

  • A male and female gametes
  • Ribosome and m-RNA
  • Spindle fibres and centromeres
  • Two homologous chromosomes

Question 170 of 536

Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into

  • Phargmoplast
  • Polyploidy
  • Uninucleate condition
  • Multinucleate condition

Question 171 of 536

Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during

  • Cytokinesis
  • Interphase
  • Karyokinesis
  • None of these

Question 172 of 536

Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between

  • Non-sister chromosomes
  • Sister chromatids
  • Non-homologous chromosome
  • Homologous chromosomes

Question 173 of 536

Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in

  • Metaphase and M phase
  • Anaphase and S phase
  • Interphase and S phase
  • None of these

Question 174 of 536

Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 175 of 536

Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of

  • Permanent nature
  • Temporary nature
  • Some are permanent some temporary
  • None of these

Question 176 of 536

Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during

  • Phase of cell division
  • Phase of cell elongation
  • Phase of cell maturation
  • Phase of cell differentiation

Question 177 of 536

Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 178 of 536

Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents

  • ability of the plant to produce new cells
  • efficiency index
  • relative growth rate
  • all of the above

Question 179 of 536

Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:

  • Autonomic movement of variation
  • Autonomic movement of locomotion
  • Autonomic movement of growth
  • Paratonic movement of growth

Question 180 of 536

Q.7 Which one is incorrect?

  • Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
  • Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast

Question 181 of 536

Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is

  • Organogenesis
  • Cleavage
  • Gastrulation
  • Growth

Question 182 of 536

Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?

  • Ethylene
  • Gibberellin
  • IAA
  • Abscisic acid

Question 183 of 536

Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be

  • given a dip in ascorbic acid
  • maintained at room temperature
  • refrigerated
  • stored at the top of refrigerator

Question 184 of 536

Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of

  • length of leaf
  • increase in cell number
  • surface area increase
  • none of these

Question 185 of 536

Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to

  • presence of meristems
  • presence of vascular cambium
  • presence of xylem and phloem
  • presence of tracheids

Question 186 of 536

Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 187 of 536

Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is

  • Aging
  • Regeneration
  • Abnormal development
  • Primary inductio

Question 188 of 536

Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?

  • Auxins
  • Gibberellins
  • Ethylene
  • Cytokinins

Question 189 of 536

Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?

  • Auxin
  • Gibberelic acid
  • Cytokinin
  • Abscisic acid

Question 190 of 536

Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 191 of 536

Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by

  • auxins
  • cytokinins
  • gibberellins
  • ethylene

Question 192 of 536

Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called

  • Gastrocoele
  • Blastocoele
  • Coelom
  • Neurocoele

Question 193 of 536

Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called

  • Gibberlin
  • Auxin
  • Cytokinin
  • Absicic acid

Question 194 of 536

Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid

  • Isoleucine
  • Methionine
  • Niacin
  • Tryptophan

Question 195 of 536

Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy

  • IAA
  • ABA
  • Cytokinin
  • Ethylene

Question 196 of 536

Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation

  • Parthenocarpy
  • pseudocarpy
  • Apomixis
  • Parthenogenesis

Question 197 of 536

Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is

  • Embryos
  • Roots
  • Young leaves
  • All of these

Question 198 of 536

Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from

  • Brian et al
  • Went
  • Yabuta
  • Kurosawa

Question 199 of 536

Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 200 of 536

Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of

  • Permanent nature
  • Temporary nature
  • Some are permanent some temporary
  • None of these

Question 201 of 536

Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during

  • Phase of cell division
  • Phase of cell elongation
  • Phase of cell maturation
  • Phase of cell differentiation

Question 202 of 536

Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 203 of 536

Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents

  • ability of the plant to produce new cells
  • efficiency index
  • relative growth rate
  • all of the above

Question 204 of 536

Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:

  • Autonomic movement of variation
  • Autonomic movement of locomotion
  • Autonomic movement of growth
  • Paratonic movement of growth

Question 205 of 536

Q.7 Which one is incorrect?

  • Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
  • Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
  • Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast

Question 206 of 536

Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is

  • Organogenesis
  • Cleavage
  • Gastrulation
  • Growth

Question 207 of 536

Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?

  • Ethylene
  • Gibberellin
  • IAA
  • Abscisic acid

Question 208 of 536

Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be

  • given a dip in ascorbic acid
  • maintained at room temperature
  • refrigerated
  • stored at the top of refrigerator

Question 209 of 536

Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of

  • length of leaf
  • increase in cell number
  • surface area increase
  • none of these

Question 210 of 536

Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to

  • presence of meristems
  • presence of vascular cambium
  • presence of xylem and phloem
  • presence of tracheids

Question 211 of 536

Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by

  • Hans Dietrisch
  • Spemann
  • Both a and b
  • Haemmerling

Question 212 of 536

Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is

  • Aging
  • Regeneration
  • Abnormal development
  • Primary inductio

Question 213 of 536

Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?

  • Auxins
  • Gibberellins
  • Ethylene
  • Cytokinins

Question 214 of 536

Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?

  • Auxin
  • Gibberelic acid
  • Cytokinin
  • Abscisic acid

Question 215 of 536

Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

  • J-shaped
  • S-shaped
  • I-shaped
  • Parabolic

Question 216 of 536

Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by

  • auxins
  • cytokinins
  • gibberellins
  • ethylene

Question 217 of 536

Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called

  • Gastrocoele
  • Blastocoele
  • Coelom
  • Neurocoele

Question 218 of 536

Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called

  • Gibberlin
  • Auxin
  • Cytokinin
  • Absicic acid

Question 219 of 536

Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid

  • Isoleucine
  • Methionine
  • Niacin
  • Tryptophan

Question 220 of 536

Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy

  • IAA
  • ABA
  • Cytokinin
  • Ethylene

Question 221 of 536

Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation

  • Parthenocarpy
  • pseudocarpy
  • Apomixis
  • Parthenogenesis

Question 222 of 536

Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is

  • Embryos
  • Roots
  • Young leaves
  • All of these

Question 223 of 536

Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from

  • Brian et al
  • Went
  • Yabuta
  • Kurosawa

Question 224 of 536

Q.1 R.Q is ratio of

  • CO2 produced to substarate consumed
  • CO2 produced to O2 consumed
  • oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
  • oxygen consumed to water produced

Question 225 of 536

Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the

  • 1 – celled stage
  • 2 – celled stage
  • 3 – celled stage
  • male gamete formation stage

Question 226 of 536

Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in

  • cell cytoplasm
  • inner mitochondrial membrane
  • mitochondrial matrix
  • nucleus

Question 227 of 536

Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol

  • Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
  • Alcohol dehydrogenase
  • None of these
  • Both of these

Question 228 of 536

Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by

  • Otto Meyerhof
  • Hans Kreb
  • Gustav Embden
  • All of these

Question 229 of 536

Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant

  • inferior ovary
  • dehiscent fruit
  • pair of glumes
  • fused calyx

Question 230 of 536

Q.7 Malacophily means

  • pollination by wind
  • pollination by water
  • pollination by insects
  • pollination by snails

Question 231 of 536

Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for

  • allogamy
  • autogamy
  • chasmogamy
  • cleistogamy

Question 232 of 536

Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration

  • 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
  • 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
  • all the formed inside mitochondria
  • 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle

Question 233 of 536

Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy

  • C6H12O6, 2H2O
  • C12H22O11, 6H2O
  • C6H12O6, 6H2O
  • C12H22O11, 11H2O

Question 234 of 536

Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of

  • numerous corolla
  • androphore
  • gynophore
  • androgynophore

Question 235 of 536

Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

  • Cytochrome C
  • FADH
  • NADH
  • oxygen

Question 236 of 536

Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?

  • Cytochrome c
  • cytochrome a3
  • cytochrome a
  • FADH2

Question 237 of 536

Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in

  • protection of delicate embryo
  • enzyme synthesis
  • transfer of food to cotyledons
  • transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips

Question 238 of 536

Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is

  • fleshy seed coat
  • stony pericarp
  • stony mesocarp
  • stony endocarp

Question 239 of 536

Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as

  • TCA pathway
  • Glycolysis
  • Hms pathway
  • Glycolysis

Question 240 of 536

Q.17 End product of glycolysis is

  • acetyl Coenzyme A
  • PEP
  • pyruvate
  • OAA

Question 241 of 536

Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in

  • mitochondrial matrix
  • Cristae
  • perimitochondrial space
  • outer membrane

Question 242 of 536

Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is

  • 0.9
  • 1.2
  • 1
  • 0

Question 243 of 536

Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.

  • 2
  • 16
  • 38
  • 42

Question 244 of 536

Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:

  • 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
  • 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
  • 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
  • 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules

Question 245 of 536

Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when

  • Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
  • Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
  • Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
  • Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2

Question 246 of 536

Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called

  • Malic acid
  • Tartaric acid
  • Pyruvic acid
  • Citric acid

Question 247 of 536

Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate

  • 10
  • 8
  • 5
  • 12

Question 248 of 536

Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in

  • Intermembrane space of mitochondria
  • Mitochondrial matrix
  • Inner membrane of mitochondria
  • Cytoplasm

Question 249 of 536

Q.1 R.Q is ratio of

  • CO2 produced to substarate consumed
  • CO2 produced to O2 consumed
  • oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
  • oxygen consumed to water produced

Question 250 of 536

Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the

  • 1 – celled stage
  • 2 – celled stage
  • 3 – celled stage
  • male gamete formation stage

Question 251 of 536

Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in

  • cell cytoplasm
  • inner mitochondrial membrane
  • mitochondrial matrix
  • nucleus

Question 252 of 536

Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol

  • Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
  • Alcohol dehydrogenase
  • None of these
  • Both of these

Question 253 of 536

Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by

  • Otto Meyerhof
  • Hans Kreb
  • Gustav Embden
  • All of these

Question 254 of 536

Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant

  • inferior ovary
  • dehiscent fruit
  • pair of glumes
  • fused calyx

Question 255 of 536

Q.7 Malacophily means

  • pollination by wind
  • pollination by water
  • pollination by insects
  • pollination by snails

Question 256 of 536

Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for

  • allogamy
  • autogamy
  • chasmogamy
  • cleistogamy

Question 257 of 536

Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration

  • 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
  • 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
  • all the formed inside mitochondria
  • 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle

Question 258 of 536

Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy

  • C6H12O6, 2H2O
  • C12H22O11, 6H2O
  • C6H12O6, 6H2O
  • C12H22O11, 11H2O

Question 259 of 536

Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of

  • numerous corolla
  • androphore
  • gynophore
  • androgynophore

Question 260 of 536

Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

  • Cytochrome C
  • FADH
  • NADH
  • oxygen

Question 261 of 536

Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?

  • Cytochrome c
  • cytochrome a3
  • cytochrome a
  • FADH2

Question 262 of 536

Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in

  • protection of delicate embryo
  • enzyme synthesis
  • transfer of food to cotyledons
  • transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips

Question 263 of 536

Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is

  • fleshy seed coat
  • stony pericarp
  • stony mesocarp
  • stony endocarp

Question 264 of 536

Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as

  • TCA pathway
  • Glycolysis
  • Hms pathway
  • Glycolysis

Question 265 of 536

Q.17 End product of glycolysis is

  • acetyl Coenzyme A
  • PEP
  • pyruvate
  • OAA

Question 266 of 536

Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in

  • mitochondrial matrix
  • Cristae
  • perimitochondrial space
  • outer membrane

Question 267 of 536

Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is

  • 0.9
  • 1.2
  • 1
  • 0

Question 268 of 536

Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.

  • 2
  • 16
  • 38
  • 42

Question 269 of 536

Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:

  • 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
  • 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
  • 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
  • 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules

Question 270 of 536

Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when

  • Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
  • Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
  • Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
  • Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2

Question 271 of 536

Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called

  • Malic acid
  • Tartaric acid
  • Pyruvic acid
  • Citric acid

Question 272 of 536

Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate

  • 10
  • 8
  • 5
  • 12

Question 273 of 536

Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in

  • Intermembrane space of mitochondria
  • Mitochondrial matrix
  • Inner membrane of mitochondria
  • Cytoplasm

Question 274 of 536

Q.1 The rate of photosynthesis is controlled by

  • the rate of light reaction
  • the rate of dark reaction
  • the rates of both light and dark reactions
  • none of the above

Question 275 of 536

Q.2 The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.

  • RuBP
  • PGAL
  • PGA
  • ADP + NADP

Question 276 of 536

Q.3 The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is

  • malic acid
  • phosphoenol pyruvate
  • rubisco
  • aspartic acid

Question 277 of 536

Q.4 The law of limiting factor was given by

  • Calvin
  • Blackman
  • Priestley
  • None of these

Question 278 of 536

Q.5 The metabolic pathway which produces carbohydrate is

  • Calvin cycle
  • Glycolysis
  • Cyclic electron pathway
  • Krebs cycle

Question 279 of 536

Q.6 Manganese is required in

  • Chlorophyll synthesis
  • Nucleic acid synthesis
  • Plant cell wall formation
  • Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

Question 280 of 536

Q.7 Oxidative phosphorylation refers to

  • Anaerobic production of ATP
  • The citric acid cycle production of ATP
  • Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
  • Alcoholic fermentation

Question 281 of 536

Q.8 Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?

  • Carotene
  • Chlorophyll a
  • Chlorophyll b
  • Xanthophyll

Question 282 of 536

Q.9 Besides water and CO2, which is more essential a raw material for food formation

  • light
  • oxygen
  • NAD
  • mineral salt

Question 283 of 536

Q.10 In actively gro – wing young plants, the best data for estimating the rate of photosynthesis would be

  • ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
  • increase in fresh weight
  • increase in dry weight
  • increase in carbohydrate

Question 284 of 536

Q.11 Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the

  • two distinct photochemical reactions
  • light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
  • photophosphorylation
  • photorespiration

Question 285 of 536

Q.12 Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of

  • glucose
  • sucrose
  • starch
  • maltose

Question 286 of 536

Q.13 Where are thylakoids and grana located?

  • Lysosomes
  • Mitochondria
  • Chloroplasts
  • Golgi apparatus

Question 287 of 536

Q.14 Who enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis?

  • Robert Emerson
  • Ruben
  • Blackman
  • Calvin

Question 288 of 536

Q.15 Which one of the following statement is true for ATP?

  • ATP is prosthetic part of an enzyme
  • ATP is an enzyme
  • ATP is organic ions of enzyme
  • ATP is a Co-enzyme

Question 289 of 536

Q.16 Kranz anatomy is a feature of

  • C3 plants
  • CAM plants
  • C4 plants
  • All of these

Question 290 of 536

Q.17 Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?

  • Oxaloacetic acid
  • Phosphoglyceric acid
  • Ribulose biphosphate
  • Phosphoenolpyruvate

Question 291 of 536

Q.18 Which of the following process (C4 cycle) occurs in bundle sheath cells?

  • Regeneration
  • Fixation
  • Carboxylation
  • Decarboxylation

Question 292 of 536

Q.19 Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in

  • stroma
  • thylakoid
  • grana
  • cytoplasm of cell

Question 293 of 536

Q.20 Water stress causes

  • opening of stomata
  • increase in metabolic rate
  • wilting of leaves
  • lesser availability of carbon dioxide

Question 294 of 536

Q.21 During photochemical reaction of photosynthesis–

  • liberation of O2 takes place
  • Formation of ATP and NADPH2 take place
  • Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
  • Assimilation of CO2 takes place

Question 295 of 536

Q.22 In the half-leaf experiment of photosynthesis, KOH solution is used because

  • It provides O2 to the leaf.
  • It provides moisture to the leaf.
  • t helps in CO2 fixation
  • It absorbs CO2

Question 296 of 536

Q.23 Structurally, chlorophyll a and b are different as

  • Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
  • Chl a has an aldehyde group and Chl b has a methyl group.
  • Chl a has an ethyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
  • Chl a has a carboxyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.

Question 297 of 536

Q.24 Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires:

  • 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
  • 2ATP and 2NADPH2
  • 3ATP and 2NADPH2
  • 2ATP and 1NADPH2

Question 298 of 536

Q.25 Which one of the following statements about cytochrome P-450 is wrong?

  • It is a colored cell
  • It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reaction
  • It has an important role in metabolism
  • It contains iron

Question 299 of 536

Q.1 The rate of photosynthesis is controlled by

  • the rate of light reaction
  • the rate of dark reaction
  • the rates of both light and dark reactions
  • none of the above

Question 300 of 536

Q.2 The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.

  • RuBP
  • PGAL
  • PGA
  • ADP + NADP

Question 301 of 536

Q.3 The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is

  • malic acid
  • phosphoenol pyruvate
  • rubisco
  • aspartic acid

Question 302 of 536

Q.4 The law of limiting factor was given by

  • Calvin
  • Blackman
  • Priestley
  • None of these

Question 303 of 536

Q.5 The metabolic pathway which produces carbohydrate is

  • Calvin cycle
  • Glycolysis
  • Cyclic electron pathway
  • Krebs cycle

Question 304 of 536

Q.6 Manganese is required in

  • Chlorophyll synthesis
  • Nucleic acid synthesis
  • Plant cell wall formation
  • Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

Question 305 of 536

Q.7 Oxidative phosphorylation refers to

  • Anaerobic production of ATP
  • The citric acid cycle production of ATP
  • Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
  • Alcoholic fermentation

Question 306 of 536

Q.8 Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?

  • Carotene
  • Chlorophyll a
  • Chlorophyll b
  • Xanthophyll

Question 307 of 536

Q.9 Besides water and CO2, which is more essential a raw material for food formation

  • light
  • oxygen
  • NAD
  • mineral salt

Question 308 of 536

Q.10 In actively gro – wing young plants, the best data for estimating the rate of photosynthesis would be

  • ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
  • increase in fresh weight
  • increase in dry weight
  • increase in carbohydrate

Question 309 of 536

Q.11 Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the

  • two distinct photochemical reactions
  • light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
  • photophosphorylation
  • photorespiration

Question 310 of 536

Q.12 Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of

  • glucose
  • sucrose
  • starch
  • maltose

Question 311 of 536

Q.13 Where are thylakoids and grana located?

  • Lysosomes
  • Mitochondria
  • Chloroplasts
  • Golgi apparatus

Question 312 of 536

Q.14 Who enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis?

  • Robert Emerson
  • Ruben
  • Blackman
  • Calvin

Question 313 of 536

Q.15 Which one of the following statement is true for ATP?

  • ATP is prosthetic part of an enzyme
  • ATP is an enzyme
  • ATP is organic ions of enzyme
  • ATP is a Co-enzyme

Question 314 of 536

Q.16 Kranz anatomy is a feature of

  • C3 plants
  • CAM plants
  • C4 plants
  • All of these

Question 315 of 536

Q.17 Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?

  • Oxaloacetic acid
  • Phosphoglyceric acid
  • Ribulose biphosphate
  • Phosphoenolpyruvate

Question 316 of 536

Q.18 Which of the following process (C4 cycle) occurs in bundle sheath cells?

  • Regeneration
  • Fixation
  • Carboxylation
  • Decarboxylation

Question 317 of 536

Q.19 Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in

  • stroma
  • thylakoid
  • grana
  • cytoplasm of cell

Question 318 of 536

Q.20 Water stress causes

  • opening of stomata
  • increase in metabolic rate
  • wilting of leaves
  • lesser availability of carbon dioxide

Question 319 of 536

Q.21 During photochemical reaction of photosynthesis–

  • liberation of O2 takes place
  • Formation of ATP and NADPH2 take place
  • Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
  • Assimilation of CO2 takes place

Question 320 of 536

Q.22 In the half-leaf experiment of photosynthesis, KOH solution is used because

  • It provides O2 to the leaf.
  • It provides moisture to the leaf.
  • t helps in CO2 fixation
  • It absorbs CO2

Question 321 of 536

Q.23 Structurally, chlorophyll a and b are different as

  • Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
  • Chl a has an aldehyde group and Chl b has a methyl group.
  • Chl a has an ethyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
  • Chl a has a carboxyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.

Question 322 of 536

Q.24 Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires:

  • 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
  • 2ATP and 2NADPH2
  • 3ATP and 2NADPH2
  • 2ATP and 1NADPH2

Question 323 of 536

Q.25 Which one of the following statements about cytochrome P-450 is wrong?

  • It is a colored cell
  • It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reaction
  • It has an important role in metabolism
  • It contains iron

Question 324 of 536

Q.1 In plants, a common symptom caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the

  • bending of leaf tip
  • formation of anthocyanins
  • poor development of vasculature
  • appearance of dead necrotic tissue

Question 325 of 536

Q.2 Function of zinc is

  • Closing of stomata
  • Biosynthesis of 3-IAA
  • Synthesis of chlorophyll
  • Oxidation of carbohydrate

Question 326 of 536

Q.3 Which of the following is a group of micronutrients?

  • Ca, Zn, B
  • Fe, Mn, Cu
  • Cl, C, Ca
  • Ni, Mo, H

Question 327 of 536

Q.4 The process of conversion of NO2– to N2 is called

  • nitrification
  • ammonification
  • denitrification
  • nitrogen fixation

Question 328 of 536

Q.5 The formation of first stable product of nitrogen fixation is catalysed by enzyme

  • dehydrogenase
  • nitrogenase
  • isomerase
  • none of these

Question 329 of 536

Q.6 Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of

  • iron
  • calcium
  • magnesium
  • all of the above

Question 330 of 536

Q.7 Chlorosis will occur if a plant is grown in

  • dark
  • shade
  • strong light
  • Fe – free medium

Question 331 of 536

Q.8 Choose the correct function of magnesium

  • It is a constituent of several coenzyme
  • It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
  • It activates enzyme catalase
  • It helps in maintaining anion-cation balance

Question 332 of 536

Q.9 Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from soil are in the form of

  • Dilute solution
  • Very concentrated solution
  • Concentrated solution
  • Very dilute solution

Question 333 of 536

Q.10 Which one of the following mineral elements plays an in biological nitrogen fixation?

  • Copper
  • Manganese
  • Zinc
  • Molybdenum

Question 334 of 536

Q.11 Oxygen scavangers present in root nodules of legumes is

  • haemoglobin
  • leg haemoglobin
  • cyano haemoglobin
  • none of these

Question 335 of 536

Q.12 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?

  • Magnesium
  • Molybdenum
  • Boron
  • Zinc

Question 336 of 536

Q.13 Which of the following is not a macronutrient

  • iron
  • calcium
  • manganese
  • phosphorus

Question 337 of 536

Q.14 Insectivorous plants grow where

  • There is carbohydrate deficient soil
  • There is nitrogen deficient soil
  • Vitamin c is required
  • Hormones are required

Question 338 of 536

Q.15 Phytotron is meant for

  • Controlled humidity
  • Induction of mutations
  • Controlled irradiation
  • Growing plants under controlled environment

Question 339 of 536

Q.16 Toxicity of which element leads to the appearance of brown spots on leaves

  • Mg
  • Mn
  • Fe
  • Cu

Question 340 of 536

Q.17 Presence of phosphorus

  • brings about healthy root growth
  • promotes fruit ripening
  • retards protein formation
  • none

Question 341 of 536

Q.18 Which element is required for opening and closing of stomata?

  • P
  • K
  • Ca
  • Na

Question 342 of 536

Q.19 Exanthema is due to deficiency of

  • B
  • Mo
  • Mn
  • Cu

Question 343 of 536

Q.20 NPK denotes

  • Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
  • Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
  • Nitrogen, Potassium, kinetin
  • Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium

Question 344 of 536

Q.21 The nitrogen exists as two nitrogen atoms joined by

  • Di covalent bonds
  • tetra covalent bonds
  • triple covalent bonds
  • monocovalent bond

Question 345 of 536

Q.22 Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by

  • Gericke
  • Nehar and Sakmann
  • Liebig
  • Winograndsky

Question 346 of 536

Q.23 The enzyme involved in biological nitrogen fixation are

  • Carboxylase
  • Oxygenase
  • Dehydrogenase
  • Nitrogenase

Question 347 of 536

Q.24 The requirement of micro nutrient are always low if the concentration increases it leads to

  • deficiency symptoms
  • Cell differentiation
  • toxicity
  • Cell elongation

Question 348 of 536

Q.25 Analysis of xylem sap shows

  • presence of enzymes
  • presence of organic matter
  • presence of nutrients
  • presence of mineral salts

Question 349 of 536

Q.1 In plants, a common symptom caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the

  • bending of leaf tip
  • formation of anthocyanins
  • poor development of vasculature
  • appearance of dead necrotic tissue

Question 350 of 536

Q.2 Function of zinc is

  • Closing of stomata
  • Biosynthesis of 3-IAA
  • Synthesis of chlorophyll
  • Oxidation of carbohydrate

Question 351 of 536

Q.3 Which of the following is a group of micronutrients?

  • Ca, Zn, B
  • Fe, Mn, Cu
  • Cl, C, Ca
  • Ni, Mo, H

Question 352 of 536

Q.4 The process of conversion of NO2– to N2 is called

  • nitrification
  • ammonification
  • denitrification
  • nitrogen fixation

Question 353 of 536

Q.5 The formation of first stable product of nitrogen fixation is catalysed by enzyme

  • dehydrogenase
  • nitrogenase
  • isomerase
  • none of these

Question 354 of 536

Q.6 Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of

  • iron
  • calcium
  • magnesium
  • all of the above

Question 355 of 536

Q.7 Chlorosis will occur if a plant is grown in

  • dark
  • shade
  • strong light
  • Fe – free medium

Question 356 of 536

Q.8 Choose the correct function of magnesium

  • It is a constituent of several coenzyme
  • It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
  • It activates enzyme catalase
  • It helps in maintaining anion-cation balance

Question 357 of 536

Q.9 Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from soil are in the form of

  • Dilute solution
  • Very concentrated solution
  • Concentrated solution
  • Very dilute solution

Question 358 of 536

Q.10 Which one of the following mineral elements plays an in biological nitrogen fixation?

  • Copper
  • Manganese
  • Zinc
  • Molybdenum

Question 359 of 536

Q.11 Oxygen scavangers present in root nodules of legumes is

  • haemoglobin
  • leg haemoglobin
  • cyano haemoglobin
  • none of these

Question 360 of 536

Q.12 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?

  • Magnesium
  • Molybdenum
  • Boron
  • Zinc

Question 361 of 536

Q.13 Which of the following is not a macronutrient

  • iron
  • calcium
  • manganese
  • phosphorus

Question 362 of 536

Q.14 Insectivorous plants grow where

  • There is carbohydrate deficient soil
  • There is nitrogen deficient soil
  • Vitamin c is required
  • Hormones are required

Question 363 of 536

Q.15 Phytotron is meant for

  • Controlled humidity
  • Induction of mutations
  • Controlled irradiation
  • Growing plants under controlled environment

Question 364 of 536

Q.16 Toxicity of which element leads to the appearance of brown spots on leaves

  • Mg
  • Mn
  • Fe
  • Cu

Question 365 of 536

Q.17 Presence of phosphorus

  • brings about healthy root growth
  • promotes fruit ripening
  • retards protein formation
  • none

Question 366 of 536

Q.18 Which element is required for opening and closing of stomata?

  • P
  • K
  • Ca
  • Na

Question 367 of 536

Q.19 Exanthema is due to deficiency of

  • B
  • Mo
  • Mn
  • Cu

Question 368 of 536

Q.20 NPK denotes

  • Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
  • Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
  • Nitrogen, Potassium, kinetin
  • Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium

Question 369 of 536

Q.21 The nitrogen exists as two nitrogen atoms joined by

  • Di covalent bonds
  • tetra covalent bonds
  • triple covalent bonds
  • monocovalent bond

Question 370 of 536

Q.22 Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by

  • Gericke
  • Nehar and Sakmann
  • Liebig
  • Winograndsky

Question 371 of 536

Q.23 The enzyme involved in biological nitrogen fixation are

  • Carboxylase
  • Oxygenase
  • Dehydrogenase
  • Nitrogenase

Question 372 of 536

Q.24 The requirement of micro nutrient are always low if the concentration increases it leads to

  • deficiency symptoms
  • Cell differentiation
  • toxicity
  • Cell elongation

Question 373 of 536

Q.25 Analysis of xylem sap shows

  • presence of enzymes
  • presence of organic matter
  • presence of nutrients
  • presence of mineral salts

Question 374 of 536

Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the

  • Haversian canal
  • endosteum
  • red bone marrow
  • pancreas

Question 375 of 536

Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?

  • Webbed feet
  • Copulatory pads
  • Tympanum
  • All are present

Question 376 of 536

Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in

  • blood
  • muscle
  • Bone
  • catrilage

Question 377 of 536

Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.

  • Vascular system of frog is closed type.
  • Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
  • During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
  • All the statements are correct

Question 378 of 536

Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?

  • Bowman scapsule
  • Loop of Henle
  • Distal convoluted tubule
  • Collecting ducts

Question 379 of 536

Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in

  • fallopian tubes
  • blood vessels
  • mid brain
  • none of the above

Question 380 of 536

Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of

  • RBC
  • plasma
  • platelets
  • all of the above

Question 381 of 536

Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

  • Tympanum
  • Skin
  • Sebaceous
  • Nictitating

Question 382 of 536

Q.9 Fats are richly found in

  • alveolar tissue
  • lymph glands
  • adipose tissue
  • liver cells

Question 383 of 536

Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is

  • the exchange of respiratory gases
  • the storage of fat
  • the storage of energy
  • to convert light vitamin D

Question 384 of 536

Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in

  • trachea
  • ureter
  • bile duct
  • intestines

Question 385 of 536

Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?

  • Bartholin
  • Anal
  • Prostate
  • Adrenal

Question 386 of 536

Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that

  • the cells are loosely placed
  • they are single – layered in thickness
  • cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
  • cells are generally ciliated

Question 387 of 536

Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :

  • sublingual
  • adrenal
  • Brunners
  • lacrimal

Question 388 of 536

Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is

  • actin
  • ossein
  • collagen
  • elastin

Question 389 of 536

Q.16 Tendons connect the following

  • bone to bone
  • muscle to muscle
  • cartilage to muscle
  • bone to muscle

Question 390 of 536

Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because

  • they protect crops
  • they links food web
  • they are food to man.
  • all of these

Question 391 of 536

Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

  • Tympanum
  • Skin
  • Sebaceous
  • Nictitating

Question 392 of 536

Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?

  • Clitellum
  • Setae
  • Intersegmental grooves
  • Nephridiophores

Question 393 of 536

Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?

  • Phallic gland
  • Vestibulum
  • Gonapophyses
  • Collaterial glands

Question 394 of 536

Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified

  • Sweat glands
  • Mucous glands
  • Sebaceous glands
  • Sudoriferous glands

Question 395 of 536

Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is

  • Muscle tissue
  • Nervous tissue
  • Connective tissue
  • Epithelial tissue

Question 396 of 536

Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is

  • Squamous epithelium
  • Cuboidal epithelium
  • Columnar epithelium
  • Ciliated columnar epithelium

Question 397 of 536

Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the

  • Respiration
  • Urine
  • Skin
  • Stool

Question 398 of 536

Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material

  • Striated muscle
  • Areolar tissue
  • Stratified epithelium
  • Myelinated nerve fibres

Question 399 of 536

Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the

  • Haversian canal
  • endosteum
  • red bone marrow
  • pancreas

Question 400 of 536

Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?

  • Webbed feet
  • Copulatory pads
  • Tympanum
  • All are present

Question 401 of 536

Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in

  • blood
  • muscle
  • Bone
  • catrilage

Question 402 of 536

Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.

  • Vascular system of frog is closed type.
  • Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
  • During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
  • All the statements are correct

Question 403 of 536

Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?

  • Bowman scapsule
  • Loop of Henle
  • Distal convoluted tubule
  • Collecting ducts

Question 404 of 536

Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in

  • fallopian tubes
  • blood vessels
  • mid brain
  • none of the above

Question 405 of 536

Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of

  • RBC
  • plasma
  • platelets
  • all of the above

Question 406 of 536

Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

  • Tympanum
  • Skin
  • Sebaceous
  • Nictitating

Question 407 of 536

Q.9 Fats are richly found in

  • alveolar tissue
  • lymph glands
  • adipose tissue
  • liver cells

Question 408 of 536

Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is

  • the exchange of respiratory gases
  • the storage of fat
  • the storage of energy
  • to convert light vitamin D

Question 409 of 536

Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in

  • trachea
  • ureter
  • bile duct
  • intestines

Question 410 of 536

Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?

  • Bartholin
  • Anal
  • Prostate
  • Adrenal

Question 411 of 536

Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that

  • the cells are loosely placed
  • they are single – layered in thickness
  • cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
  • cells are generally ciliated

Question 412 of 536

Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :

  • sublingual
  • adrenal
  • Brunners
  • lacrimal

Question 413 of 536

Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is

  • actin
  • ossein
  • collagen
  • elastin

Question 414 of 536

Q.16 Tendons connect the following

  • bone to bone
  • muscle to muscle
  • cartilage to muscle
  • bone to muscle

Question 415 of 536

Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because

  • they protect crops
  • they links food web
  • they are food to man.
  • all of these

Question 416 of 536

Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?

  • Tympanum
  • Skin
  • Sebaceous
  • Nictitating

Question 417 of 536

Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?

  • Clitellum
  • Setae
  • Intersegmental grooves
  • Nephridiophores

Question 418 of 536

Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?

  • Phallic gland
  • Vestibulum
  • Gonapophyses
  • Collaterial glands

Question 419 of 536

Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified

  • Sweat glands
  • Mucous glands
  • Sebaceous glands
  • Sudoriferous glands

Question 420 of 536

Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is

  • Muscle tissue
  • Nervous tissue
  • Connective tissue
  • Epithelial tissue

Question 421 of 536

Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is

  • Squamous epithelium
  • Cuboidal epithelium
  • Columnar epithelium
  • Ciliated columnar epithelium

Question 422 of 536

Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the

  • Respiration
  • Urine
  • Skin
  • Stool

Question 423 of 536

Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material

  • Striated muscle
  • Areolar tissue
  • Stratified epithelium
  • Myelinated nerve fibres

Question 424 of 536

Q.1 Radula is found in

  • Pila sp
  • Chiton sp
  • Lamellidens sp
  • Pinctada sp

Question 425 of 536

Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes

  • Jawless
  • Bony
  • Cartilaginous
  • Freshwater

Question 426 of 536

Q.3 Turtles are

  • Arthropods
  • Pisces
  • Reptiles
  • Molluscs

Question 427 of 536

Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of

  • labial palps
  • one pair of ganglia
  • two pairs of ganglia
  • three pairs of ganglia

Question 428 of 536

Q.5 Choose the correct pair.

  • Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
  • Rana – 2-chambered heart
  • Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
  • Pavo – 3-chambered heart

Question 429 of 536

Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?

  • Lamarck
  • Darwin
  • Wallace
  • Linnaeus

Question 430 of 536

Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?

  • Platypus lays eggs
  • Camels have biconcave RBCs
  • Whales respire by gills
  • Bats do not fly

Question 431 of 536

Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to

  • class amphibia
  • super class pisces
  • super class tetrapoda
  • division agnatha

Question 432 of 536

Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?

  • Mammalia : give birth to young ones
  • Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
  • Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
  • Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton

Question 433 of 536

Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?

  • Annelida
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Nematoda

Question 434 of 536

Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?

  • Platyhelminthes
  • Aschelminthes
  • Mollusca
  • Hemi-chordates

Question 435 of 536

Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?

  • Bilateral
  • Radial
  • Asymmetry
  • None of these

Question 436 of 536

Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is

  • Platyhelminthes
  • Annelida
  • Echinoderms
  • Arthropoda

Question 437 of 536

Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on

  • Garbage
  • Human blood
  • Flower sap
  • All of the above

Question 438 of 536

Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of

  • Typhoid
  • Yellow fever
  • Typhus
  • Trench fever

Question 439 of 536

Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

  • Ventral nerve cord
  • Closed circulatory system
  • Segmentation
  • Pseudocoelom

Question 440 of 536

Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.

  • Threadworms
  • Sponges
  • Tapeworms
  • Liver fluke

Question 441 of 536

Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans

  • Blood
  • Bile
  • Digestive tract
  • Lung

Question 442 of 536

Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in

  • Sea-anemone
  • Sea-pen
  • Sea-cucumber
  • Sea-horse

Question 443 of 536

Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of

  • Tuataras
  • Lizards and snakes
  • Turtles and tortoises
  • Crocodiles, alligators, caimans

Question 444 of 536

Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito

  • Sporozoites
  • Ookinetes
  • Oocystes
  • Merozoites

Question 445 of 536

Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum

  • Annelida
  • Mollusca
  • Cnidaria
  • Echinodermata

Question 446 of 536

Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs

  • Pulmonary vein
  • Hepatic vein
  • Carotid artery
  • Pulmonary artery

Question 447 of 536

Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is

  • Urea
  • Ammonia
  • Both A and B
  • None

Question 448 of 536

Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic

  • Aschelminthes (round worms)
  • Ctenophores
  • Sponges
  • Coelenterates (Cnidarians)

Question 449 of 536

Q.1 Radula is found in

  • Pila sp
  • Chiton sp
  • Lamellidens sp
  • Pinctada sp

Question 450 of 536

Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes

  • Jawless
  • Bony
  • Cartilaginous
  • Freshwater

Question 451 of 536

Q.3 Turtles are

  • Arthropods
  • Pisces
  • Reptiles
  • Molluscs

Question 452 of 536

Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of

  • labial palps
  • one pair of ganglia
  • two pairs of ganglia
  • three pairs of ganglia

Question 453 of 536

Q.5 Choose the correct pair.

  • Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
  • Rana – 2-chambered heart
  • Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
  • Pavo – 3-chambered heart

Question 454 of 536

Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?

  • Lamarck
  • Darwin
  • Wallace
  • Linnaeus

Question 455 of 536

Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?

  • Platypus lays eggs
  • Camels have biconcave RBCs
  • Whales respire by gills
  • Bats do not fly

Question 456 of 536

Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to

  • class amphibia
  • super class pisces
  • super class tetrapoda
  • division agnatha

Question 457 of 536

Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?

  • Mammalia : give birth to young ones
  • Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
  • Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
  • Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton

Question 458 of 536

Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?

  • Annelida
  • Mollusca
  • Echinodermata
  • Nematoda

Question 459 of 536

Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?

  • Platyhelminthes
  • Aschelminthes
  • Mollusca
  • Hemi-chordates

Question 460 of 536

Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?

  • Bilateral
  • Radial
  • Asymmetry
  • None of these

Question 461 of 536

Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is

  • Platyhelminthes
  • Annelida
  • Echinoderms
  • Arthropoda

Question 462 of 536

Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on

  • Garbage
  • Human blood
  • Flower sap
  • All of the above

Question 463 of 536

Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of

  • Typhoid
  • Yellow fever
  • Typhus
  • Trench fever

Question 464 of 536

Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

  • Ventral nerve cord
  • Closed circulatory system
  • Segmentation
  • Pseudocoelom

Question 465 of 536

Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.

  • Threadworms
  • Sponges
  • Tapeworms
  • Liver fluke

Question 466 of 536

Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans

  • Blood
  • Bile
  • Digestive tract
  • Lung

Question 467 of 536

Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in

  • Sea-anemone
  • Sea-pen
  • Sea-cucumber
  • Sea-horse

Question 468 of 536

Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of

  • Tuataras
  • Lizards and snakes
  • Turtles and tortoises
  • Crocodiles, alligators, caimans

Question 469 of 536

Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito

  • Sporozoites
  • Ookinetes
  • Oocystes
  • Merozoites

Question 470 of 536

Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum

  • Annelida
  • Mollusca
  • Cnidaria
  • Echinodermata

Question 471 of 536

Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs

  • Pulmonary vein
  • Hepatic vein
  • Carotid artery
  • Pulmonary artery

Question 472 of 536

Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is

  • Urea
  • Ammonia
  • Both A and B
  • None

Question 473 of 536

Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic

  • Aschelminthes (round worms)
  • Ctenophores
  • Sponges
  • Coelenterates (Cnidarians)

Question 474 of 536

Q.1 Which among the following does not exchange o2 with CO2 through simple diffusion

  • Earthworms
  • Earthworms
  • Sponges
  • Flatworms

Question 475 of 536

Q.2 Which among the following have well developed respiratory system

  • Cockroaches
  • Earthworms
  • Sponges
  • Mammals

Question 476 of 536

Q.3 How many lobes are present in right lung

  • 2
  • 5
  • 3
  • 4

Question 477 of 536

Q.4 Name a sound box which is responsible for sound production

  • Pharynx
  • Larynx
  • Epiglottis
  • None of the above

Question 478 of 536

Q.5 Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by

  • Vertebral column
  • Sternum
  • Ribs
  • Diaphragm

Question 479 of 536

Q.6 Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs is

  • More than atm pressure
  • Less tha atm pressure
  • Equal to atm pressure
  • None of the above

Question 480 of 536

Q.7 The part starting from external nostril upto terminal bronchioles is known as

  • Conducting part
  • Exchange part
  • Respiratory part
  • None of the above

Question 481 of 536

Q.8 What is the structural and functional unit of lungs

  • Bronchioles
  • Alveoli
  • Bronchi
  • Both a and c

Question 482 of 536

Q.9 On an average healthy human breathes how many times per minute

  • 12-16
  • 15-16
  • 20-25
  • 72

Question 483 of 536

Q.10 What is the inspiratory reserve volume

  • 2500-3000 ml
  • 500 ml
  • 1000-1100 ml
  • None of the above

Question 484 of 536

Q.11 Volume air inspired or expired during normal respiration is known as

  • TV
  • IRV
  • ERV
  • RV

Question 485 of 536

Q.12 which among the following is measured by spirometer

  • Total lung capacity
  • FRC
  • RV
  • TV

Question 486 of 536

Q.13 Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gas is known as

  • Partial pressure
  • Diffusion pressure
  • Osmotic pressure
  • None of the above

Question 487 of 536

Q.14 Solubility of CO2 is how many times higher than O2

  • 10-15
  • 30-40
  • 20-21
  • 20-25

Question 488 of 536

Q.15 What is the partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere

  • 156
  • 159
  • 94
  • 40

Question 489 of 536

Q.16 What is the partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood

  • 45
  • 40
  • 95
  • 43

Question 490 of 536

Q.17 How many percent of co2 is carried by plasma in dissolved form

  • 6
  • 7
  • 20-25
  • None of the above

Question 491 of 536

Q.18 How many percent of co2 is carried as bicarbonate

  • 50
  • 97
  • 70
  • 25

Question 492 of 536

Q.19 Every 100ml of deoxy blood delivers approx

  • 2ml of co2 to alveoli
  • 3 of co2 to alveoli
  • 4ml of co2 to alveoli
  • 7ml of co2 to alveoli

Question 493 of 536

Q.20 RBC contains very high quantity of which enzyme

  • Carbonic anhydrase
  • Lysosome
  • Ligase
  • None of the above

Question 494 of 536

Q.21 which among the following is caused due to decreased respiratory surface area

  • Astma
  • Emphysema
  • Sclerosis
  • None of the above

Question 495 of 536

Q.22 Whose role in respiratory rhythm regulation is insignificant

  • Co2
  • O2
  • Both a and b
  • None of the above

Question 496 of 536

Q.23 Pneumotaxic centre is present in which region of brain

  • Medulla
  • Hypothalamus
  • Pons
  • None of the above

Question 497 of 536

Q.24 Which type of curve is formed when percent of haemoglobin is plotted against po2

  • Straight line
  • Hyperbola
  • Sigmoid
  • Parabola

Question 498 of 536

Q.25 which among the following is responsible to shift o2 dissociation curve right

  • High Pco2
  • Low pco2
  • Low H+
  • None of the above

Question 499 of 536

Q.1 Which of the following are the most and the least electronegative elements in the periodic table?

  • Chlorine and Fluorine
  • Hydrogen and Helium
  • Carbon and Oxygen
  • Fluorine and Caesium

Question 500 of 536

Q.2 Which compound of mercury is used as antiseptic?

  • Mercuric sulphide
  • Mercuric oxide
  • Mercuric iodide
  • Mercuric chloride

Question 501 of 536

Q.3 Which among the following is major component of Gobar Gas?

  • Butane
  • Ethane
  • Propane
  • Methane

Question 502 of 536

Q.4 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?

  • Lithium
  • Sodium
  • Magnesuium
  • Bromine

Question 503 of 536

Q.5 Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?

  • Lithium
  • Sodium
  • Magnesuium
  • Bromine

Question 504 of 536

Q.6 Calcium Magnesium Silicate is commonly called as?

  • Borax
  • Washing soda
  • Baking soda
  • Asbestos

Question 505 of 536

Q.7 Which among the following chemicals is used in Photography?

  • Pottasium chloride
  • Silver bromide
  • Sodium bromide
  • Magnesium chloride

Question 506 of 536

Q.8 Which of the following methods is used to purify Titanium metal?

  • Mond process
  • Hall-Heroult process
  • Van Arkel method
  • None of the above

Question 507 of 536

Q.9 Which of the following Group in the modern periodic table contains Halogens?

  • Group 17
  • Group 18
  • Group 1
  • Group 2

Question 508 of 536

Q.10 Which of the following quantum number is also known as orbital angular momentum?

  • Magnetic quantum number
  • Principal quantum number
  • Azimuthal quantum number
  • Electron spin quantum number

Question 509 of 536

Q.11 Which of these principles state that in the ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies?

  • Afbau principle
  • Hund’s rule of multiplicity
  • Pauli’s exclusion principle
  • None of the above

Question 510 of 536

Q.12 What is the multiplication factor when the nuclear reactor is said to be critical?

  • 0
  • 1
  • 2
  • 10

Question 511 of 536

Q.13 Which of the following types a PEM cell belongs to?

  • Electrolytic cell
  • Fuel cell
  • Dry cell
  • Galvanic cell

Question 512 of 536

Q.14 Which of the following is not a compound of carbon?

  • Cinnabar
  • Acetic acid
  • Chloroform
  • Methane

Question 513 of 536

Q.15 What is the octane number of iso-octane?

  • 0
  • 1
  • 100
  • 200

Question 514 of 536

Q.16 Which of the following polymer is obtained by the condensation reaction between ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?

  • Terelene
  • PMMC
  • PVC
  • None of the above

Question 515 of 536

Q.17 Which of these is not a Linear polymer?

  • Starch
  • Polyethelene
  • Nylons
  • Polysters

Question 516 of 536

Q.18 Which of the following metals is involved in the anodisation process?

  • Aluminium
  • Copper
  • Calcium
  • Bismuth

Question 517 of 536

Q.19 Which of these non-metals is commonly used as a general anesthetic?

  • Helium
  • Fluorine
  • Xenon
  • Tellurium

Question 518 of 536

Q.20 Which of the following is produced when wood is burnt in a limited supply of oxygen?

  • Charcoal
  • Water gas
  • Paraffin
  • Petroleum

Question 519 of 536

Q.1 The process occurring in the presence of oxygen is called… ..

  • Anaerobic
  • Aerobic
  • Glycogenic
  • Microaerophilic

Question 520 of 536

Q.2 The process occuring in the absence of oxygen is called… .

  • Anaerobic
  • Aerobic
  • Glycogenic
  • Microaerophilic

Question 521 of 536

Q.3 Enzymatic hydrolysis of major nutrients in GIT to yield their simpler components is .....

  • Fermentation
  • Deglutition
  • Glycolysis
  • Digestion

Question 522 of 536

Q.4 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .

  • Metagenic amino acids
  • Glucogenic amino acids
  • Ketogenic amino acids
  • Glutamic amino acids

Question 523 of 536

Q.5 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into ketone bodies are called… .

  • Metagenic amino acids
  • Glucogenic amino acids
  • Ketogenic amino acids
  • Glutamic amino acids

Question 524 of 536

Q.6 The water soluble fuels which are overproduced during fasting or in untreated diabetes mellitus are called… . .

  • Melanin bodies
  • Ketone bodies
  • Glucose bodies
  • Citrate bodies

Question 525 of 536

Q.7 Energy yielding anaerobic breakdown of glucose yielding lactate, ethanol with some other products is… . ..

  • Protein fermentation
  • Fat metabolism
  • Glucose fermentation
  • Nucleic acid fermentation

Question 526 of 536

Q.8 The biosynthesis of carbohydrates from simpler, non carbohydrate precursors is… . .

  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenolysis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycogenesis

Question 527 of 536

Q.9 An oxidative pathway of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as…

  • Phosphogluconate pathway
  • Pentose phosphate pathway
  • Hexose monophosphate pathway
  • All of them

Question 528 of 536

Q.10 The process of breakdown of glycogen to blood glucose is … . .

  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Glycogenesis
  • Thermogenesis
  • Glycogenolysis

Question 529 of 536

Q.1 Which of the following molecule is most abundant in living system?

  • Water
  • Cellulose
  • Protien
  • Starch

Question 530 of 536

Q.2 Which is the first National park established in India: 

  • Jim Corbet National Park
  • Kanha National Park
  • Periyar National Park
  • Kanziranga National Park

Question 531 of 536

Q.1 Which Is Known As The Power House Of The Cell?

  • Mitochondria
  • Ribosome
  • Nucleus
  • Golgi apparatus

Question 532 of 536

Q.1 Which Is Known As The Power House Of The Cell?

  • Mitochondria
  • Ribosome
  • Nucleus
  • Golgi apparatus

Question 533 of 536

Q.1 Which Of The Following Vitamins Is Soluble In Water?

  • A
  • D
  • E
  • C

Question 534 of 536

Q.2 The Amino Acid Containing More COOH Groups Than NH2 Are Called 

  • Basic amino acids
  • Neutral amino acids
  • Acidic amino acids
  • Amphoteric amino acids

Question 535 of 536

Q.1 The Fat Soluble Vitamins Are

  • A,B,D and E
  • A,C,D and E
  • A,D,E and K
  • A,C,D and K

Question 536 of 536

Q.2 Defficiency Of Which Of The Following Vitamins Causes Bleeding Of Gums And Wounds Takes Longer Time

  • Vitamin B1
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin K

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