.png){kind=logo}
Question 1 of 687
Q.1 Which one is not an ester prodrug?
- Aspirin
- Benorylate
- Salsalate
- None of these
Answer ✔ (d) None of these
Explanation: Aspirin, benorylate and slasalate are ester prodrugs of NSAIDs.
Question 2 of 687
Q.2 Pharmacodynamics deals with the study of
- Machanism of action
- Intraction with receptor
- toxic effect of drug
- metabolism of drug
Answer ✔ (a) Machanism of action
Explanation: pharmacodynamics is the study of mechanism of drug action and the relationship between drug concentration and effect
Question 3 of 687
Q.3 Therepeutic index is a ratio of
- toxic dose and therapeutic dose
- therapeutic dose and % response
- Toxic dose and % response
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) toxic dose and therapeutic dose
Explanation: Response appers at therapeutic dose but toxic effects apper at toxic dose. There should be good margin between therapeutic and toxic dose
Question 4 of 687
Q.4 The action of acetyle choline on Exocrine gland is
- Stimulatory
- Inhibitory
- Stimulatory or inhibitory depends on nature of exocrine glands
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Stimulatory
Explanation: Exocrine glands and nicotinic receptors are stimulated by Ach.
Question 5 of 687
Q.5 barbiturates causes death at toxic dose due to
- Cardiac arrest
- Liver damage
- Depression of respiration
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Depression of respiration
Explanation: Brbiturates are effective as Anxiolytics, Hypnotics and anticonvulsants
Question 6 of 687
Q.6 Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by
- Intraction with fungal membran sterol
- Inhibiting protien synthesis
- Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Intraction with fungal membran sterol
Explanation:
Question 7 of 687
Q.7 Suganril is common brand name for :
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxicam
- Benorylate
- Indomethacine
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxicam
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis
Question 8 of 687
Q.8 Captopril lowers down the blood pressure by
- inhibition of calcium reflux
- inhibition of enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase
- relaxation of smooth muscles
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) inhibition of enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase
Explanation: Captopril is an ACE Inhibitor
Question 9 of 687
Q.9 Which one of these metallic ions essential for coagulation of blood?
- Calcium
- Manganese
- Sodium
- Potassium
Answer ✔ (a) Calcium
Explanation: Calcium activates protien Kinase C, which inturn, activates phospholipase A2. Calcium is responsible for activation of prothrombin into thrombin which convert fibrinogen to fibrin
Question 10 of 687
Q.10 Paraldehyde is administered by
- Oral route
- Rectal route
- Intramuscular route
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Intramuscular route
Explanation: Paraldehyde is used to treat alcoholism and some convulsive desorders.
Question 11 of 687
Q.11 The term bio-equivalence means comparisions of various formulation of
- same class of drug
- different class of drug
- same or different class of drug
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) same class of drug
Explanation: Pharmaceutical products are bioequivalent if they are pharmaceutically equivalent and their bioavailabilities.
Question 12 of 687
Q.12 which one of these vitamin possess lipid lowering property?
- Nicotinic acid
- vitamin A
- vitamin B1
- vitamin K
Answer ✔ (a) Nicotinic acid
Explanation: nicotinic acid is also called vitamin B3 and Niacin.
Question 13 of 687
Q.13 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Trifluperazine
- Promethazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (b) Trifluperazine
Explanation: Trifluperazine is a typical antipsychotic of phenothyzine chemical class.
Question 14 of 687
Q.14 Dose and frequency of administration is determined by
- Dissolution rate
- Half-life of a drug
- Disintration rate
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Half-life of a drug
Explanation: Half-life is the amount of time required for a quantity to fall to half its value
Question 15 of 687
Q.15 The Saheli oral contraceptive contains
- Estrogen
- Estrogen and progestin
- Non-steroidal compound
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Non-steroidal compound
Explanation: Saheli is the non-hormonal contraceptive pill contains Ormeloxifene which is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, (SERMs).
Question 16 of 687
Q.16 Drug of choice in acute attack of migraine is:
- Methylsergide
- Ergotamine
- Serotonin
- Nicotine
Answer ✔ (b) Ergotamine
Explanation: Ergotamine has antimigraine effect due to constiction of intracranial extracerebral blood vessel.
Question 17 of 687
Q.17 Antidote for acute iron poisoning is:
- Desferoxamine
- Copper
- Pyridoxine
- Riboflavin
Answer ✔ (a) Desferoxamine
Explanation: Desferoxamine is a bactrial siderophore produced by the actinobacteria (Streptomyces pilosus).
Question 18 of 687
Q.18 Drug that cause the pupil of eye to constrict are called
- Mydriatics
- Vasoconstrictors
- Vasodilators
- Miotics
Answer ✔ (d) Miotics
Explanation: Sympathomimetic drugs cause miosis.
Question 19 of 687
Q.19 An example of auto-immune disorder is:
- Myasthenia gravis
- Hypertension
- Angina
- DM
Answer ✔ (a) Myasthenia gravis
Question 20 of 687
Q.20 Which one of these impart red colour to urine?
- Rifampin
- Isoniazid
- Aspirin
- Luminal
Answer ✔ (a) Rifampin
Explanation: Rifampin is bactericidal antibiotic. It is intensly red solid which causes red colour of urine.
Question 21 of 687
Q.21 Which one of these is used as antidote for heparin
- Protamine sulphate
- Warfarin
- BAL
- Glyceryl trinitrate
Answer ✔ (a) Protamine sulphate
Explanation: Protamine sulphate binds to heparin and reverse its anticoagulant effect.
Question 22 of 687
Q.22 Naloxene is used in the poisoning of
- Barbiturates
- Morphine
- Cocaine
- Alcohol
Answer ✔ (b) Morphine
Explanation: Naloxene is pure opioid antagonist. Naloxene is used to counter the effect of morphine.
Question 23 of 687
Q.23 Overdose of digitalis may cause
- Habituation
- Tolerance
- Cumulative tolerance
- Physical dependence
Answer ✔ (c) Cumulative tolerance
Explanation: Digitalis id commonly called foxgolves. Overdose may cause cumulative tolerance.
Question 24 of 687
Q.24 Methyl alcohol may cause
- Tetany
- Blindness
- Inflammation of skin
- Gastric irritation
Answer ✔ (b) Blindness
Explanation: Methyle alcohol is metabolised to formic acid which act on CNS and cause blindness.
Question 25 of 687
Q.25 In infants tetracyclin offen cause:
- Agranulocytocis
- Redness in eye
- Discolouration of teeth
- Fever
Answer ✔ (c) Discolouration of teeth
Explanation: Tetracycline are a group of broad spectrum antibiotic. Discolouration of teeth is side effect of tetracycline to the infant upto eight year of age.
Question 26 of 687
Q.26 Ryle's tube is used for:
- Feeding
- Removing poision from stomach
- Gastric lavage
- All of the above purpose
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above purpose
Explanation: Ryle's tube is medical device, involving the insertion of a plastic tube through the nose and down in stomach.
Question 27 of 687
Q.27 Service directly related to the patient care is:
- Clinical service
- Pharmacy service
- Nursing service
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Nursing service
Explanation: Nurses are directly involved in patient care.
Question 28 of 687
Q.28 Aspirin is not taken in empty stomach because
- It causes gastric irritation
- It causes anaemia
- It is absorbed slowly
- It causes allergy
Answer ✔ (a) It causes gastric irritation
Explanation: Aspirin is alsoo called acetyl salicylic acid causes irritation in stomach.
Question 29 of 687
Q.29 The member secretary of pharmacy and therapeutic committee is
- Chief pharmacist
- Medical officer
- Analytical chemist
- Physician
Answer ✔ (a) Chief pharmacist
Explanation: Chief pharmacist is the member secretory of PTC.
Question 30 of 687
Q.30 When the combined effect of two drugs is graeter than the algebric sum of their indivisiul effect, is called
- Antagonism
- Competitive antagonism
- Synergism
- non-competitive antagonism
Answer ✔ (c) Synergism
Explanation: Synergism is the combination of two or more things that create an effect which is greater than the sum of both seprately.
Question 31 of 687
Q.31 Drug useful in Zollinger-ellison syndrome:
- Famotidine
- Ranitidine
- Cimetidine
- Omeprazole
Answer ✔ (d) Omeprazole
Explanation: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of dyspepsia and peptic ulcer disease ( Zollinger-ellison syndrome ).
Question 32 of 687
Q.32 Cheese is not given with MAO inhibitors because there is risk of:
- Allergic reactions
- Hypertensive crisis
- Decrease absorption
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Hypertensive crisis
Explanation: Hypertensive crisis is also known as mlignant hypertensive causes impairment of organ system which is irriversible. Chease prolongs the effect of MAO inhibitors which cause increased neurotransmitters ( hypertensive crisis ).
Question 33 of 687
Q.33 The latin word 'Ad libitum' means :
- As much as you please
- To be added
- When required
- Upto
Answer ✔ (a) As much as you please
Question 34 of 687
Q.34 The term ambulatory patients is refers to:
- Those patients who are bedridden
- Those who are able to walk
- Those who are brought to hospital in an ambulance
- Elderly patients
Answer ✔ (b) Those who are able to walk
Explanation: Ambulatory patients are also called OPD patients.
Question 35 of 687
Q.35 Lipid soloble drugs are better absorbed when:
- Given with meal
- Given 3 hours after meal
- Given 1/2 hours before meal
- both (b) and (c)
Answer ✔ (a) Given with meal
Explanation: Lipids are group of naturally occuring, molecules that include fats, waxes etc. While taking meal, pH of GIT decreases so absorption of lipid increases.
Question 36 of 687
Q.36 D5W refers to:
- 5% solution of D-glucose
- Distilled water which is acidified to pH 5.0
- 0.5% solution of sodium chloride in distilled water
- None of above
Answer ✔ (a) 5% solution of D-glucose
Question 37 of 687
Q.37 Drugs contra-indicated in pregnancy
- Paracetamol
- Colchicines
- Indomethacin
- Allopurinol
Answer ✔ (d) Allopurinol
Explanation: Allopurinol causes congenital malformation so it is contra-indicated in pregnancy.
Question 38 of 687
Q.38 List of ailments that is not cured by drug is given in Schedule
- G
- J
- C
- H
Answer ✔ (b) J
Question 39 of 687
Q.39 The drug sample taken by the drug inspector for analysis are sent to:
- Drug controller
- Chemical analyst
- Govt. analyst
- Testing laboratories
Answer ✔ (c) Govt. analyst
Question 40 of 687
Q.40 Shedule FF is related with:
- Standard for opthalmic preparation
- Standards fro surgical dressings
- Standards for cometics
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Standard for opthalmic preparation
Question 41 of 687
Q.41 What is GMP means?
- Good man practices
- Good manufacturing practices
- good manufacturing plant
- Good material practices
Answer ✔ (b) Good manufacturing practices
Explanation: GMP is short term for good manufacturing practices.
Question 42 of 687
Q.42 Which of the following colours is a natural colour?
- Carotene
- Caramel
- Tetrazine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (a) Carotene
Explanation: carotene is an orange photosynthetic pigment important for photosynthesis.
Question 43 of 687
Q.43 Ibuprofen belongs to which schedule as per Drug and cosmetics act, 1940?
- B
- G
- H
- X
Answer ✔ (c) H
Explanation: Ibuprofen is a NSAID and belongs to schedule H drug.
Question 44 of 687
Q.44 Which form should be used for application to import drugs for personal use?
- Form 12 A
- Form 19
- Form 8
- Form 24 C
Answer ✔ (a) Form 12 A
Explanation: Form 12A should be filled to import medicine for personal use.
Question 45 of 687
Q.45 In the prescription the medication prescribed is called as:
- Superscription
- Inscription
- Subscription
- Signature
Answer ✔ (b) Inscription
Explanation: inscription is the portion of the prescription that specifies the medication.
Question 46 of 687
Q.46 Aminophyllin is used in:
- Edema
- Asthma
- Ulcer
- Depression
Answer ✔ (b) Asthma
Explanation: Aminophyllin is a bronchodilator and used in asthma
Question 47 of 687
Q.47 Naturally occuring alkaloid colchicine is used in:
- Inflammation
- Gout
- Pain
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Gout
Explanation: Colchicine is the main drug for gout from natural sources.
Question 48 of 687
Q.48 Parkinsonism occurs due to:
- Excess of dopamine
- Depletion of dopamine
- Depletion of epinephrine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Depletion of dopamine
Explanation: the brain dopamine loss is fundamental to perkinson's disease.
Question 49 of 687
Q.49 Which one of these antihistaminic drugs is used as appetite stimulant?
- Promethazine
- Pheniramine maleate
- Cyproheptadine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Cyproheptadine
Explanation: Cyproheptadine ( peritol ) is a 1st generation antihistaminics, also used as appetite stimulant.
Question 50 of 687
Q.50 Ventolin is a common brand name for:
- Salbutamol
- Terbutaline
- Amphetamine
- Orciprenaline
Answer ✔ (a) Salbutamol
Explanation: Salbutamol ( albuterol ) is a bronchodilatory medication marketed under the brand name ventolin.
Question 51 of 687
Q.51 Acetylcholine is not used clinically as it is:
- Less active
- More toxic
- Hydrolyse rapidly
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Hydrolyse rapidly
Explanation: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter in ANS. It is hydrolysed rapidly hence cannot used clinically.
Question 52 of 687
Q.52 Cardiac glycosides possess cardiac activity due to presence of:
- Glycoside linkage
- Steroid nucleus
- hydroxy group
- Unsaturated five membered lactone ring
Answer ✔ (d) Unsaturated five membered lactone ring
Explanation: Cardiac activity of cardiac glycosides is due to the presence of lactone ring at C-17 position.
Question 53 of 687
Q.53 From these β-blockers, which one is used in glaucoma?
- Propranolol
- atenolol
- timolol
- metoprolol
Answer ✔ (c) timolol
Explanation: Timolol is used in Glaucoma, heart attack and hypertension.
Question 54 of 687
Q.54 Insulin is composed of:
- Amino acid
- Fatty acid
- Sugar units
- None of above
Answer ✔ (a) Amino acid
Explanation: Insulin is a peptide hormone composed of 51 amino acids.
Question 55 of 687
Q.55 Prazosin act as antihypertensive drug by:
- Blocking α-receptors
- Blocking β-receptors
- Blocking ganglions
- Depleting catecholamine
Answer ✔ (a) Blocking α-receptors
Explanation: Prazosin ( minipress ) is a sympethetic drug and it is α1-receptor blocker.
Question 56 of 687
Q.56 Mannitol acts as a diuretic by:
- Increasing the osmotic pressor in renal tunules
- Increasing the rate of glomarular filtration
- inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium ion
- None of above
Answer ✔ (a) Increasing the osmotic pressor in renal tunules
Explanation: Mnniton is used clinically as diuretic and it act as osmotic agents.
Question 57 of 687
Q.57 Which one of these is an anabolic steroid?
- Testosterone propionate
- Fluxymesterone
- Stanozolol
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Stanozolol
Explanation: Anabolic steroids include stanozolol, danozol, nandrolon, metenolon, etc.
Question 58 of 687
Q.58 Which one of these is a non-steroidal drug, possessing oestrogenic properties?
- Stilbosterol
- Ethinylestrodiole
- Ethisterone
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Stilbosterol
Question 59 of 687
Q.59 Which one of these antibiotics belongs to aminoglycoside category?
- Chloramphenicol
- Bacitracin
- Streptomycin
- Penicillin
Answer ✔ (c) Streptomycin
Explanation: Streptomycin, tobramycin, kanamycin, gentamycin and neomycine are the examples of aminoglycosides.
Question 60 of 687
Q.60 Which one of these antibiotic contains napthacene ring?
- Tobramycin
- Tetracycline
- Amoxicillin
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Tetracycline
Explanation: The four ring in tetracycline collectively known as nepthacene ring.
Question 61 of 687
Q.61 Iodized oil is used for:
- Bronchography
- Urography
- Fallopian tube
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Fallopian tube
Explanation: Iodised oil is used for the treatent of blocked fallopian tubes.
Question 62 of 687
Q.62 The 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione monosodium is used as:
- Hypnotic
- Anticonvulsant
- Muscle relexant
- Muscarinic agent
Answer ✔ (b) Anticonvulsant
Explanation: 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione monosodium is the chemical name for 'Phenytoin' which is an anticonvulsant.
Question 63 of 687
Q.63 Diltiazem is a:
- Benzodiezipine derivative
- Benzothiazepine derivative
- Thiazolidine derivative
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Benzothiazepine derivative
Explanation: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker and a benzothiazepine derivative.
Question 64 of 687
Q.64 which one of these prolongs the repolarization of cardiac muscle to act as antiarrythmic drug?
- verapamil
- Procainamide
- Bretylium
- Maxiltene
Answer ✔ (c) Bretylium
Explanation: Bretillium blocks the release of nor-adrenaline from nerve terminals and prolong the repolarisation of cardiac muscle to act as antiarrythmic agents.
Question 65 of 687
Q.65 Which sugar is present in digitalis glycoside?
- Digoxose
- Digitoxose
- Fructose
- Doxose
Answer ✔ (b) Digitoxose
Explanation: digitoxose is attached at 3-position at the steroidal ring.
Question 66 of 687
Q.66 Which one of these paraffin base is used in the eye ointment?
- White soft paraffin
- Yellow soft paraffin
- Hard paraffin
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Yellow soft paraffin
Explanation: Yellow soft paraffin is also known as Yellow petrollium jelly, is used as base for an eye ointment.
Question 67 of 687
Q.67 Latin term for 'two times a day'
- b.i.d.
- q.i.d.
- s.o.s.
- t.i.d.
Answer ✔ (a) b.i.d.
Explanation: b.i.d. ( bis-in-die ) is two times a day, q.i.d ( quarter in die ) 4 times a day, t.i.d (ter in die ) three times a day, s.o.s (si-opu-sit) if there is a need.
Question 68 of 687
Q.68 One fluid ounce is equal to :
- 30ml
- 20ml
- 25ml
- 50ml
Answer ✔ (a) 30ml
Explanation: 1 fluid ounce ( 1 Hoz ) is equivalent to 30ml.
Question 69 of 687
Q.69 Glycerin suppositories ( containing 92% of glycerin ) are solidified by adding:
- White wax
- Stearic acid
- Sodium stearate
- PEG 4000
Answer ✔ (c) Sodium stearate
Question 70 of 687
Q.70 DPT vaccine contains the mixture of:
- killed causative microorganism suspension
- Diptheria toxoid, tetanous toxoid, and killed bordetella pertusis suspension
- living causative micro-organism suspension
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Diptheria toxoid, tetanous toxoid, and killed bordetella pertusis suspension
Explanation: DPT vaccine is used aginst three infections in human - diptheria, pertusis(whooping cough), and tetanus.
Question 71 of 687
Q.71 The dose of BCG vaccine is:
- 1 ml
- 0.01 ml
- 0.1 ml
- 0.02 ml
Answer ✔ (c) 0.1 ml
Explanation: BCG is Bacillus Calmatte Guerin used as vaccination in the dose of 0.05 ml for infants (below 1 year) and 0.1 ml for children over 1 year of age.
Question 72 of 687
Q.72 The shells of soft gellatin capsules may be made ellastic or plastic like by the addition of:
- Sorbitol
- Cmc
- Water
- Alcohol
Answer ✔ (a) Sorbitol
Explanation: sorbitol is also known as glucitol is a sugar alcohol. It imparts elasticity to the soft gelatin capsules.
Question 73 of 687
Q.73 Aromatic waters are prepared by:
- Filtration
- Condensation
- Maceration
- Distillation
Answer ✔ (d) Distillation
Explanation: Aromatic waters are saturated solution of volatile oil and aromatic substances in distilled water, it is highly therapeutic distillates.
Question 74 of 687
Q.74 Elisa test is used for diagnosis of:
- Tuberculosis
- Typhoid
- AIDS
- Rabbies
Answer ✔ (c) AIDS
Explanation: Elisa test is used for AIDS diagnosis. This test is used to determine to know antibodies related to certain infection conditions.
Question 75 of 687
Q.75 Protien Energy Malnutrition causes:
- Marasmus
- Obesity
- Diabetes
- Cancer
Answer ✔ (a) Marasmus
Explanation: Marasmus is aform of severe malnutrition characterised by energy deficiency. Its occurance increases prior to age 1.
Question 76 of 687
Q.76 The injectable contraceptive is
- Ethesterone
- Progesterone
- Depomedroxy progesterone acetate
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) Depomedroxy progesterone acetate
Explanation: it is used for depot injection in the form of aquous suspension.
Question 77 of 687
Q.77 Hetrazan drug is used in
- Malaria
- Filariasis
- cholera
- Typhoid
Answer ✔ (b) Filariasis
Explanation: Hetrazan is inhibitor of arachidonic acid metabolism in filarial microfilaria, hence used for the treatment of filariasis.
Question 78 of 687
Q.78 Defficiency of vitamin A causes:
- Conjuctival xerosis
- Night blindness
- Keratomalacia
- Rickets
Answer ✔ (b) Night blindness
Explanation: Night blindness is condition making difficult to see in low light.
Question 79 of 687
Q.79 The most essential fatty acid is:
- Linoleic acid
- Linolenic acid
- Arachidonic acid
- Stearic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Linoleic acid
Explanation: Linoleic acid is most essential fatty acid, polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid.
Question 80 of 687
Q.80 In anaphylactic shock, the drug of choice is:
- Isoprenaline
- Dopamine
- Coramine
- Adrenaline
Answer ✔ (d) Adrenaline
Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death. Adrenaline is a neurotransmitter and a hormone which is a drug of choice for anaphylactic shock.
Question 81 of 687
Q.81 Hydrophobia is a symptom of which disease?
- Rabbies
- AIDS
- Amoebiasis
- Tuberculosis
Answer ✔ (a) Rabbies
Explanation: Hydrophobia is fear of drinking fluids ( is a symptom of rabbies ) because of painful spasm when trying to swallow.
Question 82 of 687
Q.82 The body temperature is controlled by:
- Hypothallamus
- Medulla
- Pitutary
- Thyroid
Answer ✔ (a) Hypothallamus
Explanation: The hypothalamus is the center for homeostasis and controls the things like hunger, thirst, and maintaining body temperature.
Question 83 of 687
Q.83 Insulin is secreted by:
- Salivary glands
- Liver
- beta-cells of islets of langerhans
- Pancrease
Answer ✔ (c) beta-cells of islets of langerhans
Question 84 of 687
Q.84 Which type of antigen is present in universal donor blood group?
- A
- B
- Both A nd B
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Both A nd B
Question 85 of 687
Q.85 The number of cervical vertibrae in humans is:
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
Answer ✔ (b) 7
Explanation: These regions are called the cervical spine, thoracic spine, lumbar spine, sacrum and coccyx. There are seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae and five lumbar vertebrae
Question 86 of 687
Q.86 A component of coenzyme A is :
- Inosine
- Thiamine
- Pentothenic acid
- Pyridoxine
Answer ✔ (c) Pentothenic acid
Explanation: pentothenic acid also called Vitamin B5.
Question 87 of 687
Q.87 Increase in level of SGPT is used in diagnosis of which disease?
- Hepatitis
- Rickets
- Heart attack
- Alcoholism
Answer ✔ (a) Hepatitis
Question 88 of 687
Q.88 The major site of fat digestion is:
- Large intestine
- small intestine
- Kidney
- Liver
Answer ✔ (b) small intestine
Explanation: Fats are digested using enzyme lipase throughout the small intestine. The product of this reaction are glycerol and 3 fatty acids.
Question 89 of 687
Q.89 Drug acting on HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor ?
- Propranolol
- lovastatin
- Captopril
- Allopurinol
Answer ✔ (b) lovastatin
Explanation: Lovastatin is a hypolipidemic agent.
Question 90 of 687
Q.90 Calcium gluconate is used as:
- Antacid
- Electrolyte replenisher
- Preservative
- Astringent
Answer ✔ (b) Electrolyte replenisher
Explanation: Calcium gluconate(10%) is used as electrolyte replenisher in hypocalcemia.
Question 91 of 687
Q.91 Silver nitrate should be stored in:
- Clean, dry white bottle
- Lead free white bottle
- Amber coloured white bottle
- Neutral glass bottle
Answer ✔ (c) Amber coloured white bottle
Explanation: Silver nitrate ( AgNO3 ) should be protected from light, hence should be stored in amber coloured bottles.
Question 92 of 687
Q.92 Barium sulphate is used to diagnose:
- Thyroid gland
- Kidney
- Blood vessels
- Gastro intestinal tract
Answer ✔ (d) Gastro intestinal tract
Explanation: Barium sulphate is used as a radio-contrast media for x-ray imaging of GI tract.
Question 93 of 687
Q.93 Which one of these oil is used as laxatives?
- Olive oil
- Castor oil
- Arachis oil
- Linseed oil
Answer ✔ (b) Castor oil
Explanation: castor oil is fixed oil, used as laxatives.
Question 94 of 687
Q.94 Cod liver oil is nutritive due to the presence of which vitamin?
- Vtamin A
- vitamin A and vitamin D
- Vitamin A and E
- Vitamin E
Answer ✔ (b) vitamin A and vitamin D
Question 95 of 687
Q.95 Which one of these drug is used in inflammation?
- Asafoetida
- Turmeric
- Jalap
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Turmeric
Explanation: In turmeric the active compound curcumin have wide range of biological effects like antiinflamatory, antitumor, anti-microbial.
Question 96 of 687
Q.96 Which one of these posssess cytotoxic action?
- Podophillum emodi
- Ipomoea hederacea
- Curcuma longa
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Podophillum emodi
Explanation: podophyllum is highly poisonous, used in treatment of cancer.
Question 97 of 687
Q.97 Codien as an alkaloid is used for
- Vasodilation
- Analgesia
- Skeletal muscle contraction
- cough suppression
Answer ✔ (d) cough suppression
Explanation: Codien is a methoxy morphine, used in cough.
Question 98 of 687
Q.98 Which one of these drug contains anthraquinone glycosides?
- Senna
- Aloe
- Cascara
- All of these
Answer ✔ (a) Senna
Question 99 of 687
Q.99 Which of the following is used as emetic?
- Agar
- Isphagula
- Ipecac
- Ginseng
Answer ✔ (c) Ipecac
Explanation: ipecac (rhizomes and roots of Rubiacea faimily ) has emetic, exxpectorant and diaphoretic properties.
Question 100 of 687
Q.100 Drug under the class of isothiocyanate glycosides:
- Black mustard
- White mustard
- Thevatia
- Black mustard and white mustard both
Answer ✔ (d) Black mustard and white mustard both
Question 101 of 687
Q.1 The function of iron is
- Formation of bones and teeth
- Control excitability of nerves
- Regulates the permeability of membranes
- Transport of oxygen to tissue
Answer ✔ (d) Transport of oxygen to tissue
Explanation: Iron is essential element for blood production. Haemoglobin is essential for transferring O2 in blood.
Question 102 of 687
Q.2 Cobalt is a component of :
- vitB6
- Vit A
- Vit B12
- Vit D
Answer ✔ (a) vitB6
Explanation: Cobalt is the active centre of co-enzyme called cobalamine.
Question 103 of 687
Q.3 Alkaline phosphate level is increased in
- Ricket
- Leukemia
- Cardial infection
- Pancreatic deficiency
Answer ✔ (a) Ricket
Explanation: Ticket is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and a dietary deficiency of calcium or phosphorous.
Question 104 of 687
Q.4 Microcytic hyper chronic anaemia occurs due to deficiency of
- Cu2+
- Co2+
- Zinc
- Iron
Answer ✔ (d) Iron
Question 105 of 687
Q.5 Normal urine is
- Neutral
- Highly acidic
- Slightly alkaline
- Slightly acidic
Answer ✔ (d) Slightly acidic
Explanation: Urine contains high concentration of urea and other substances including toxins.
Question 106 of 687
Q.6 Milky type colour of urine gets elevated in
- Albimins
- Haemoglobin
- Fatty acid
- Nephritis
Answer ✔ (c) Fatty acid
Explanation: Milky type colour of urine is indication of UTI.
Question 107 of 687
Q.7 A component of coenzyme A is
- Inosine
- Thiamine
- Pethothenic acid
- Pyridoxine
Answer ✔ (c) Pethothenic acid
Explanation: Pethothenic acid is called vitamin B5. Animals require penthoneic acid to synthesise coenzyme A.
Question 108 of 687
Q.8 Hyperlipidemia is excess of
- Cholesterol and triglycerides
- Free fatty acids
- Glucose
- Ketone bodies
Answer ✔ (a) Cholesterol and triglycerides
Explanation: Hyperlipidemia is excess of lipids which means Cholesterol and triglycerides.
Question 109 of 687
Q.9 Out of these amino acid which one is not essential amino acid?
- Proline
- Tryptophan
- Tyrosine
- Histidine
Answer ✔ (a) Proline
Explanation: Proline is not essential amino acid.
Question 110 of 687
Q.10 Which one is essential amino acid
- Alanine
- Leucine
- Proline
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (c) Proline
Explanation: Proline is an essential amino acid.
Question 111 of 687
Q.11 Polypeptide chain number can be identified by treatment of protein with
- Barium chloride
- Mercuric chloride
- Nitric acid
- Dansyl chloride
Answer ✔ (d) Dansyl chloride
Explanation: Because dansyl chloride reacts with the free amino group of peptides and proteins.
Question 112 of 687
Q.12 Isoelectric pH of pepsin is
- 4.6
- 4.7
- 1.1
- 11.0
Answer ✔ (c) 1.1
Question 113 of 687
Q.13 Methionine enkephalin is chain
- Dipeptide
- Tripeptide
- Tetra peptide
- Pentapeptide
Answer ✔ (d) Pentapeptide
Explanation: It consist of five amino acid linked together and attached to a fatty acid to enhance oil solubility.
Question 114 of 687
Q.14 Plasminogen is converted to plasma with the help of enzyme
- Streptokinase
- Amylase
- Aldolase
- Acid phosphatase
Answer ✔ (a) Streptokinase
Explanation: Streptokinase is an enzyme secreted by several species of streptococcus.
Question 115 of 687
Q.15 Thiamine includes which one of the following chemical nucleus
- Pyrimidine and thiazole
- Pyrrole and furan
- Imidazole
- Acid phosphatase
Answer ✔ (a) Pyrimidine and thiazole
Explanation: Thiamine is also known as VitB1, found in virtually all food.
Question 116 of 687
Q.16 Biotin structure is formed by fusion of
- Imidazole and thiophene ring
- Imidazole and furan rings
- Imidazole and insoles ring
- Imidazole and purine rings
Answer ✔ (a) Imidazole and thiophene ring
Explanation: Biotin has two rings fused together via one of their sider.
Question 117 of 687
Q.17 1 kilobase in DNA is equal to the
- 10 base pair
- 100 base pair
- 1 base pair
- 1000 base pair
Answer ✔ (d) 1000 base pair
Explanation: 1 kilobase in DNA is equal to the 1000 base pair.
Question 118 of 687
Q.18 Which one is not the type of RNA
- mRNA
- iRNA
- tRNA
- rRNA
Answer ✔ (b) iRNA
Explanation: iRNA is not the type of RNA
Question 119 of 687
Q.19 Which of the following RNA have high concentration in cell?
- mRNA
- tRNA
- rRNA
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) tRNA
Explanation: tRNA has L-shaped 3D structure because it has primary, secondary and tertiary structure.
Question 120 of 687
Q.20 An example of transferase enzyme
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Esterase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (b) Hexokinase
Explanation: It is an enzyme which phosphorylase hexose into hexose phosphate.
Question 121 of 687
Q.21 Appropriate percentage of carbon in protein is the range of
- 10-20%
- 20-30%
- 30-40%
- 50-55%
Answer ✔ (d) 50-55%
Question 122 of 687
Q.22 Appropriate percentage of sulphur in protein is the range of
- 0-4%
- 4-8%
- 8-12%
- 12-16%
Answer ✔ (a) 0-4%
Question 123 of 687
Q.23 An example of amino acid which does not contain sulphur is
- Aspartic acid
- cystine
- Methionine
- Cysteine
Answer ✔ (a) Aspartic acid
Explanation: Aspartic acid does not contain sulphur in it.
Question 124 of 687
Q.24 Main ring present in histidine amino acid is
- Pyrrole
- Imidazole
- Furan
- Thiophene
Answer ✔ (b) Imidazole
Question 125 of 687
Q.25 Main ring present in tryptophan is
- Indole
- Imidazole
- Furan
- Thiophane
Answer ✔ (a) Indole
Question 126 of 687
Q.1 The function of iron is
- Formation of bones and teeth
- Control excitability of nerves
- Regulates the permeability of membranes
- Transport of oxygen to tissue
Answer ✔ (d) Transport of oxygen to tissue
Explanation: Iron is essential element for blood production. Haemoglobin is essential for transferring O2 in blood.
Question 127 of 687
Q.2 Cobalt is a component of :
- vitB6
- Vit A
- Vit B12
- Vit D
Answer ✔ (a) vitB6
Explanation: Cobalt is the active centre of co-enzyme called cobalamine.
Question 128 of 687
Q.3 Alkaline phosphate level is increased in
- Ricket
- Leukemia
- Cardial infection
- Pancreatic deficiency
Answer ✔ (a) Ricket
Explanation: Ticket is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and a dietary deficiency of calcium or phosphorous.
Question 129 of 687
Q.4 Microcytic hyper chronic anaemia occurs due to deficiency of
- Cu2+
- Co2+
- Zinc
- Iron
Answer ✔ (d) Iron
Question 130 of 687
Q.5 Normal urine is
- Neutral
- Highly acidic
- Slightly alkaline
- Slightly acidic
Answer ✔ (d) Slightly acidic
Explanation: Urine contains high concentration of urea and other substances including toxins.
Question 131 of 687
Q.6 Milky type colour of urine gets elevated in
- Albimins
- Haemoglobin
- Fatty acid
- Nephritis
Answer ✔ (c) Fatty acid
Explanation: Milky type colour of urine is indication of UTI.
Question 132 of 687
Q.7 A component of coenzyme A is
- Inosine
- Thiamine
- Pethothenic acid
- Pyridoxine
Answer ✔ (c) Pethothenic acid
Explanation: Pethothenic acid is called vitamin B5. Animals require penthoneic acid to synthesise coenzyme A.
Question 133 of 687
Q.8 Hyperlipidemia is excess of
- Cholesterol and triglycerides
- Free fatty acids
- Glucose
- Ketone bodies
Answer ✔ (a) Cholesterol and triglycerides
Explanation: Hyperlipidemia is excess of lipids which means Cholesterol and triglycerides.
Question 134 of 687
Q.9 Out of these amino acid which one is not essential amino acid?
- Proline
- Tryptophan
- Tyrosine
- Histidine
Answer ✔ (a) Proline
Explanation: Proline is not essential amino acid.
Question 135 of 687
Q.10 Which one is essential amino acid
- Alanine
- Leucine
- Proline
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (c) Proline
Explanation: Proline is an essential amino acid.
Question 136 of 687
Q.11 Polypeptide chain number can be identified by treatment of protein with
- Barium chloride
- Mercuric chloride
- Nitric acid
- Dansyl chloride
Answer ✔ (d) Dansyl chloride
Explanation: Because dansyl chloride reacts with the free amino group of peptides and proteins.
Question 137 of 687
Q.12 Isoelectric pH of pepsin is
- 4.6
- 4.7
- 1.1
- 11.0
Answer ✔ (c) 1.1
Question 138 of 687
Q.13 Methionine enkephalin is chain
- Dipeptide
- Tripeptide
- Tetra peptide
- Pentapeptide
Answer ✔ (d) Pentapeptide
Explanation: It consist of five amino acid linked together and attached to a fatty acid to enhance oil solubility.
Question 139 of 687
Q.14 Plasminogen is converted to plasma with the help of enzyme
- Streptokinase
- Amylase
- Aldolase
- Acid phosphatase
Answer ✔ (a) Streptokinase
Explanation: Streptokinase is an enzyme secreted by several species of streptococcus.
Question 140 of 687
Q.15 Thiamine includes which one of the following chemical nucleus
- Pyrimidine and thiazole
- Pyrrole and furan
- Imidazole
- Acid phosphatase
Answer ✔ (a) Pyrimidine and thiazole
Explanation: Thiamine is also known as VitB1, found in virtually all food.
Question 141 of 687
Q.16 Biotin structure is formed by fusion of
- Imidazole and thiophene ring
- Imidazole and furan rings
- Imidazole and insoles ring
- Imidazole and purine rings
Answer ✔ (a) Imidazole and thiophene ring
Explanation: Biotin has two rings fused together via one of their sider.
Question 142 of 687
Q.17 1 kilobase in DNA is equal to the
- 10 base pair
- 100 base pair
- 1 base pair
- 1000 base pair
Answer ✔ (d) 1000 base pair
Explanation: 1 kilobase in DNA is equal to the 1000 base pair.
Question 143 of 687
Q.18 Which one is not the type of RNA
- mRNA
- iRNA
- tRNA
- rRNA
Answer ✔ (b) iRNA
Explanation: iRNA is not the type of RNA
Question 144 of 687
Q.19 Which of the following RNA have high concentration in cell?
- mRNA
- tRNA
- rRNA
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) tRNA
Explanation: tRNA has L-shaped 3D structure because it has primary, secondary and tertiary structure.
Question 145 of 687
Q.20 An example of transferase enzyme
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Esterase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (b) Hexokinase
Explanation: It is an enzyme which phosphorylase hexose into hexose phosphate.
Question 146 of 687
Q.21 Appropriate percentage of carbon in protein is the range of
- 10-20%
- 20-30%
- 30-40%
- 50-55%
Answer ✔ (d) 50-55%
Question 147 of 687
Q.22 Appropriate percentage of sulphur in protein is the range of
- 0-4%
- 4-8%
- 8-12%
- 12-16%
Answer ✔ (a) 0-4%
Question 148 of 687
Q.23 An example of amino acid which does not contain sulphur is
- Aspartic acid
- cystine
- Methionine
- Cysteine
Answer ✔ (a) Aspartic acid
Explanation: Aspartic acid does not contain sulphur in it.
Question 149 of 687
Q.24 Main ring present in histidine amino acid is
- Pyrrole
- Imidazole
- Furan
- Thiophene
Answer ✔ (b) Imidazole
Question 150 of 687
Q.25 Main ring present in tryptophan is
- Indole
- Imidazole
- Furan
- Thiophane
Answer ✔ (a) Indole
Question 151 of 687
Q.1 The glycolytic pathway is the
- Conversion of pyruvic acid into oxaloacetate
- Degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
- Successive oxidation - reduction reaction involving succinate NADH
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
Explanation: The glycolytic pathway is the degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
Question 152 of 687
Q.2 Oxidative phosphorylation is the generation of
- Phosphoglyceric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- ATP
- ADP
Answer ✔ (c) ATP
Explanation: It is the metabolic pathway in which mitochondria in cells use their structure, enzymes and energy released by oxidation.
Question 153 of 687
Q.3 The term lipolysis is used for
- Breakdown of lipids
- Biosynthesis of lipids
- Accumulation of lipids in the body
- Inherited metabolic disorder of lipids
Answer ✔ (d) Inherited metabolic disorder of lipids
Explanation: The term lipolysis is used for breakdown of lipids
Question 154 of 687
Q.4 Milky fluid containing emulsified fat in small intestine is known as
- Lymph
- Blood
- Chyle
- Chyme
Answer ✔ (c) Chyle
Explanation: Chyle is milky fluid containing emulsified fat in small intestine.
Question 155 of 687
Q.5 The amino acid which contains guanidino group is
- Cysteine
- Methionine
- Arginine
- cystine
Answer ✔ (c) Arginine
Question 156 of 687
Q.6 Hyperlipidemia is excess of
- Cholesterol and triglyceride
- Free fatty acids
- Glycerol
- Ketone bodies
Answer ✔ (a) Cholesterol and triglyceride
Explanation: Hyperlipidemia involves abnormality in which Cholesterol and triglyceride gets elevated.
Question 157 of 687
Q.7 The RNA synthesis on a DNA template is known as
- Translation
- Transduction
- Replication
- Transcription
Answer ✔ (d) Transcription
Explanation: The RNA synthesis on a DNA template is known as Transcription.
Question 158 of 687
Q.8 Deamination of amino acids occurs during the
- Anabolism of amino acid
- Catabolism of amino acid
- Formation of urea
- Krebs cycle
Answer ✔ (c) Formation of urea
Explanation: Deamination of amino acid is the process by which amino acid are broken down into ammonia. Ammonia is toxic so its converted into urea or uric acid.
Question 159 of 687
Q.9 Blood platelets are rich in
- Carbohydrates
- Cholesterol
- Phospholipids and protein
- Nucleic acids
Answer ✔ (c) Phospholipids and protein
Explanation: Blood platelets are rich in Phospholipids and protein.
Question 160 of 687
Q.10 Increase in number of erythrocytes
- Poikilocytosis
- Reticulocytes
- displacia
- Polycythemia
Answer ✔ (d) Polycythemia
Explanation: Polycythemia is a state in which the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by RBC increases.
Question 161 of 687
Q.11 Treatment of iodine with starch shows
- Blue
- Red
- Green
- Red
Answer ✔ (a) Blue
Explanation: Treatment of iodine with starch shows Blue.
Question 162 of 687
Q.12 Which test is used for distinguishing monosaccharides?
- Bebedicts
- Tollens
- Barfoeds
- Ninhydrin
Answer ✔ (c) Barfoeds
Explanation: Barfoeds test is based on the reduction of copper acetate to copper oxide which forms brick red colour.
Question 163 of 687
Q.13 Drug which is used in the treatment of tuberculosis from glycosidic class
- Isoniazid
- Ethambutol
- Streptomycin
- Pyrizinamide
Answer ✔ (c) Streptomycin
Explanation: Streptomycin is an antibiotic drug called aminoglycosides.
Question 164 of 687
Q.14 which compound is used as reference carbohydrate for rotation determination
- Glyceraldehyde
- Glucose
- Fructose
- Maltose
Answer ✔ (a) Glyceraldehyde
Explanation: Glyceraldehyde is a triose monosaccharides and is simple of all aldoses.
Question 165 of 687
Q.15 Glucose and galactose are epimers to each other with reference to
- C2
- C3
- C4
- C1
Answer ✔ (c) C4
Question 166 of 687
Q.16 D-glucose corresponding alcohol is
- D- Sorbitol
- D-Ribitol
- D-Mannitol
- D-Dulcitol
Answer ✔ (a) D- Sorbitol
Explanation: It is also known as glucitol sugar which is a sugar alcohol.
Question 167 of 687
Q.17 Starch is hydrolysed by enzyme
- Lactose
- Amylase
- Aldolase
- Phosphatase
Answer ✔ (b) Amylase
Explanation: The pancreas and salivary gland make amylase hydrolyse dietary starch into disaccharide and trisaccharide.
Question 168 of 687
Q.18 Which carbohydrate is exclusively used in kidney functioning test
- Lactose
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Insulin
Answer ✔ (d) Insulin
Explanation: Insulin is helpful during kidney functioning.
Question 169 of 687
Q.19 Monosaccharides are called as
- Simple sugar
- Complex sugar
- Common sugar
- Lactose sugar
Answer ✔ (a) Simple sugar
Explanation: Monosaccharides are the most basic unit of sugar and thus are called as simple sugar.
Question 170 of 687
Q.20 In TCA oxaloacetate is formed from
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- Succinate
- Malate
Answer ✔ (d) Malate
Explanation: It is an enzyme that reversibly catalysed by oxidation of malate into oxaloacetate.
Question 171 of 687
Q.21 Heparin is a
- Monosaccharide
- Disaccharide
- Mucopolysaccharide
- Heteropolysaccharide
Answer ✔ (a) Monosaccharide
Explanation: Heparin is also known as unfractioned sugar.
Question 172 of 687
Q.22 An example of transferase enzyme
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Esterase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (b) Hexokinase
Explanation: Hexokinase is an anticoagulant which phosphorylase hexose to hexose phosphate.
Question 173 of 687
Q.23 An example of enzyme of oxidoreductase class
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Aldolase
Answer ✔ (a) Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation: It facilitates interconversion.
Question 174 of 687
Q.24 In example of enzyme in lyase class
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Aldolase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (c) Aldolase
Explanation: Aldolase is an enzyme which carries aldol reaction.
Question 175 of 687
Q.25 Functional unit of enzyme is known as
- Holoenzyme
- Gene
- Cell
- Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (a) Holoenzyme
Explanation: Functional unit of enzyme is known as Holoenzyme.
Question 176 of 687
Q.1 The glycolytic pathway is the
- Conversion of pyruvic acid into oxaloacetate
- Degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
- Successive oxidation - reduction reaction involving succinate NADH
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
Explanation: The glycolytic pathway is the degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
Question 177 of 687
Q.2 Oxidative phosphorylation is the generation of
- Phosphoglyceric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- ATP
- ADP
Answer ✔ (c) ATP
Explanation: It is the metabolic pathway in which mitochondria in cells use their structure, enzymes and energy released by oxidation.
Question 178 of 687
Q.3 The term lipolysis is used for
- Breakdown of lipids
- Biosynthesis of lipids
- Accumulation of lipids in the body
- Inherited metabolic disorder of lipids
Answer ✔ (d) Inherited metabolic disorder of lipids
Explanation: The term lipolysis is used for breakdown of lipids
Question 179 of 687
Q.4 Milky fluid containing emulsified fat in small intestine is known as
- Lymph
- Blood
- Chyle
- Chyme
Answer ✔ (c) Chyle
Explanation: Chyle is milky fluid containing emulsified fat in small intestine.
Question 180 of 687
Q.5 The amino acid which contains guanidino group is
- Cysteine
- Methionine
- Arginine
- cystine
Answer ✔ (c) Arginine
Question 181 of 687
Q.6 Hyperlipidemia is excess of
- Cholesterol and triglyceride
- Free fatty acids
- Glycerol
- Ketone bodies
Answer ✔ (a) Cholesterol and triglyceride
Explanation: Hyperlipidemia involves abnormality in which Cholesterol and triglyceride gets elevated.
Question 182 of 687
Q.7 The RNA synthesis on a DNA template is known as
- Translation
- Transduction
- Replication
- Transcription
Answer ✔ (d) Transcription
Explanation: The RNA synthesis on a DNA template is known as Transcription.
Question 183 of 687
Q.8 Deamination of amino acids occurs during the
- Anabolism of amino acid
- Catabolism of amino acid
- Formation of urea
- Krebs cycle
Answer ✔ (c) Formation of urea
Explanation: Deamination of amino acid is the process by which amino acid are broken down into ammonia. Ammonia is toxic so its converted into urea or uric acid.
Question 184 of 687
Q.9 Blood platelets are rich in
- Carbohydrates
- Cholesterol
- Phospholipids and protein
- Nucleic acids
Answer ✔ (c) Phospholipids and protein
Explanation: Blood platelets are rich in Phospholipids and protein.
Question 185 of 687
Q.10 Increase in number of erythrocytes
- Poikilocytosis
- Reticulocytes
- displacia
- Polycythemia
Answer ✔ (d) Polycythemia
Explanation: Polycythemia is a state in which the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by RBC increases.
Question 186 of 687
Q.11 Treatment of iodine with starch shows
- Blue
- Red
- Green
- Red
Answer ✔ (a) Blue
Explanation: Treatment of iodine with starch shows Blue.
Question 187 of 687
Q.12 Which test is used for distinguishing monosaccharides?
- Bebedicts
- Tollens
- Barfoeds
- Ninhydrin
Answer ✔ (c) Barfoeds
Explanation: Barfoeds test is based on the reduction of copper acetate to copper oxide which forms brick red colour.
Question 188 of 687
Q.13 Drug which is used in the treatment of tuberculosis from glycosidic class
- Isoniazid
- Ethambutol
- Streptomycin
- Pyrizinamide
Answer ✔ (c) Streptomycin
Explanation: Streptomycin is an antibiotic drug called aminoglycosides.
Question 189 of 687
Q.14 which compound is used as reference carbohydrate for rotation determination
- Glyceraldehyde
- Glucose
- Fructose
- Maltose
Answer ✔ (a) Glyceraldehyde
Explanation: Glyceraldehyde is a triose monosaccharides and is simple of all aldoses.
Question 190 of 687
Q.15 Glucose and galactose are epimers to each other with reference to
- C2
- C3
- C4
- C1
Answer ✔ (c) C4
Question 191 of 687
Q.16 D-glucose corresponding alcohol is
- D- Sorbitol
- D-Ribitol
- D-Mannitol
- D-Dulcitol
Answer ✔ (a) D- Sorbitol
Explanation: It is also known as glucitol sugar which is a sugar alcohol.
Question 192 of 687
Q.17 Starch is hydrolysed by enzyme
- Lactose
- Amylase
- Aldolase
- Phosphatase
Answer ✔ (b) Amylase
Explanation: The pancreas and salivary gland make amylase hydrolyse dietary starch into disaccharide and trisaccharide.
Question 193 of 687
Q.18 Which carbohydrate is exclusively used in kidney functioning test
- Lactose
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Insulin
Answer ✔ (d) Insulin
Explanation: Insulin is helpful during kidney functioning.
Question 194 of 687
Q.19 Monosaccharides are called as
- Simple sugar
- Complex sugar
- Common sugar
- Lactose sugar
Answer ✔ (a) Simple sugar
Explanation: Monosaccharides are the most basic unit of sugar and thus are called as simple sugar.
Question 195 of 687
Q.20 In TCA oxaloacetate is formed from
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- Succinate
- Malate
Answer ✔ (d) Malate
Explanation: It is an enzyme that reversibly catalysed by oxidation of malate into oxaloacetate.
Question 196 of 687
Q.21 Heparin is a
- Monosaccharide
- Disaccharide
- Mucopolysaccharide
- Heteropolysaccharide
Answer ✔ (a) Monosaccharide
Explanation: Heparin is also known as unfractioned sugar.
Question 197 of 687
Q.22 An example of transferase enzyme
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Esterase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (b) Hexokinase
Explanation: Hexokinase is an anticoagulant which phosphorylase hexose to hexose phosphate.
Question 198 of 687
Q.23 An example of enzyme of oxidoreductase class
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Aldolase
Answer ✔ (a) Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation: It facilitates interconversion.
Question 199 of 687
Q.24 In example of enzyme in lyase class
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Aldolase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (c) Aldolase
Explanation: Aldolase is an enzyme which carries aldol reaction.
Question 200 of 687
Q.25 Functional unit of enzyme is known as
- Holoenzyme
- Gene
- Cell
- Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (a) Holoenzyme
Explanation: Functional unit of enzyme is known as Holoenzyme.
Question 201 of 687
Q.1 What is green vitrol?
- Copper sulphate
- Ferrous sulphate
- Magnesium sulphate
- Sodium sulphate
Answer ✔ (b) Ferrous sulphate
Explanation: ferrous sulphate is also known as green vitrol (vitriol). It is used to treat Iron deficiency anaemia.
Question 202 of 687
Q.2 Ferrous salt with organic acid is preferred because these are-
- Less astringent
- More potent
- Less astringent and less irritant
- Less irritant
Answer ✔ (c) Less astringent and less irritant
Explanation: Ferrous salt with organic acids (Ferrous fumarate, Ferrous Gluconate etc.) are less astringent and less irritant than ferrous salt alone.
Question 203 of 687
Q.3 Which one of these is used in metabolic alkalosis?
- Sodium chloride
- Sodium bicarbonate
- Ammonium chloride
- Potassium citrate
Answer ✔ (c) Ammonium chloride
Explanation: Ammonium chloride is an acidic salt it converted to ammonia and hydrochloric acid on metabolism, so used to treat metabolic alkalosis.
Question 204 of 687
Q.4 To carry out limit test for sulphate and chloride in potassium permangnate, colour is destroyed by boiling with-
- Water
- Ethanol alcohol
- Oxalic acid
- Sulphuric acid
Answer ✔ (b) Ethanol alcohol
Explanation: Ethanol is used to destroy the pink colour of KMnO4 (potassium permangnate) in the limit test.
Question 205 of 687
Q.5 Which one of these is used in sunburns?
- Titanium oxide
- Potassium iodide
- Boric acid
- Calamine
Answer ✔ (a) Titanium oxide
Explanation: Titanium dioxide is used as a pigment, sunscreen, and a thickener in cosmetic and skin care products.
Question 206 of 687
Q.6 The activity of radioactive particles passing through biological tissue depends on-
- Ability of the radiation to penetrate tissue
- Energy of radiation
- surface area exposed
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: The radioactive particles are used for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes.
Question 207 of 687
Q.7 Drug used in inhalants administered in the form of-
- solid droplets
- liquid droplets
- gas
- none of these
Answer ✔ (a) solid droplets
Explanation: Small size solid particles of a drug are administered as inhalants.
Question 208 of 687
Q.8 Solution of Borax is used as eyewash and wet dressing for wounds is-
- 1-2% of solution
- 10-20% of solution
- 5-10% of solution
- 70-78% of solution
Answer ✔ (b) 10-20% of solution
Explanation: A 12% w/v solution of Borax is used as eyewash and wet dressing of wounds.
Question 209 of 687
Q.9 Which of the following is used as a protective and soothing application in eczema?
- Silicon polymers
- zinc oxide
- calamine
- bentonite
Answer ✔ (b) zinc oxide
Explanation: Zinc oxide has protective and soothing (non-irritant) properties hence used in eczema.
Question 210 of 687
Q.10 Antacids forms metal complexes with-
- Chloramphenicol
- Paracetamol
- Tetracycline
- Cephalosporin's
Answer ✔ (c) Tetracycline
Explanation: Antacids form complexes with tetracyclines and amphetamine thereby altering their bioavailability.
Question 211 of 687
Q.11 Bismuth subcarbonate is an example of-
- Chelating agent
- Preservative
- Protective and adsorbents
- Cathartics
Answer ✔ (c) Protective and adsorbents
Explanation: Bismuth subcarbonate, methylcellulose, etc. has protective and adsorbent properties and is used for the treatment of Diarrhea.
Question 212 of 687
Q.12 Which statement below is correct for cathartics?
- Agents which reduce the evacuation of bowels
- Agents which is used in case of diarrhoea
- Agents which is used in case of acidosis
- Agents which fastens and increase evacuation of bowels
Answer ✔ (d) Agents which fastens and increase evacuation of bowels
Explanation: Cathartic (sorbitol, magnesium citrate, magnesium sulphate, sodium sulphate) accelerates defecation.
Question 213 of 687
Q.13 Which statement is correct for topical agents?
- It is used externally
- drug may accomplish within body cavity
- They are not placed in eyes, nose or mouth
- All statements are correct
Answer ✔ (c) They are not placed in eyes, nose or mouth
Explanation: Topical agents are used externally and should not be used in eye, nose, or mouth.
Question 214 of 687
Q.14 The stabilizing agent is used with adrenaline injection is-
- Sodium thiosulphate
- Sodium metabisulphite
- sodium bisulphate
- sodium sulphate
Answer ✔ (b) Sodium metabisulphite
Explanation: Sodium metabisulphite (Na2S2O5) is added to adrenaline or lidocaine injection as stabilizing agent to prevent the oxidation of these agents (improves self life)
Question 215 of 687
Q.15 Sodium thiosulphate is used as-
- Antidote
- Antioxidant
- Antifungal
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: Sodium thiosulphate is used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning, an antioxidant, topical antifungal, and anti-ringworm agent.
Question 216 of 687
Q.16 Which of the following is used as Rust inhibitor?
- sodium nitrite
- calcium carbide
- Liquid nitrogen
- sodium thiosulphate
Answer ✔ (a) sodium nitrite
Explanation: Sodium nitrite is an effective rust inhibitor and is used as an additive in industrial greases.
Sodium nitrite is also used in cyanide poisoning. Sodium nitrite and amine nitrite when used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning a non-toxic cyanide derivative of methaemoglobin (Cyanomethaemoglobin) is formed.
sodium nitrite forms complex ions with different metallic salts.
Question 217 of 687
Q.17 Karl Fischer reagent consists-
- Iodine and sulphur dioxide in water with methanol
- iodine and sulphur dioxide in pyridine with methanol
- sulphur dioxide in pyridine with methanol
- Iodine and sulphur dioxide
Answer ✔ (b) iodine and sulphur dioxide in pyridine with methanol
Explanation: Karl Fischer reagent is a mixture of iodine, sulphur dioxide (SO2), and pyridine in methanol.
Question 218 of 687
Q.18 Salicylic acid is used as-
- Analgesic
- Antipyretic
- Keratolytic agent
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Keratolytic agent
Explanation: Salicylic acid, urea, lactic acid, and allantoin are used as keratolytic agents.
Question 219 of 687
Q.19 Collutorium means-
- Eye lotion
- Mouth wash
- Half
- Immediately
Answer ✔ (b) Mouth wash
Explanation: Collutorium or collutory means mouthwash.
Question 220 of 687
Q.20 The Chemical name of Vitamin C is -
- Ascorbic acid
- Benzoic acid
- Maleic acid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ascorbic acid
Explanation: Ascorbic acid is known as vitamin C. It is used in the treatment of vitamin C Deficiency and to boost up the immune system.
Question 221 of 687
Q.21 Standard solution of arsenic contain-
- Arsenious acid
- Arsine
- Arsenic acid
- Arsenic oxide
Answer ✔ (c) Arsenic acid
Explanation: Arsenic acid is used to prepare a standard solution of arsenic.
Question 222 of 687
Q.22 The Colour of the lead dithizone complex is-
- Green colour
- Yellow colour
- Violet colour
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Violet colour
Explanation: Lead dithizone complex is violet in color.
Question 223 of 687
Q.23 Oxygen is used in the treatment of-
- CO poisoning
- Lead poisoning
- Mercury poisoning
- Blood pressure
Answer ✔ (a) CO poisoning
Explanation: Oxygen is used in Carbon monoxide poisoning.
Question 224 of 687
Q.24 In the limit test of iron, the colour is obtained due to formation of-
- Ferric salt
- Ferrous salt
- Ferrous ion
- Ferric ion
Answer ✔ (b) Ferrous salt
Explanation: In the iron limit test, the colour is produced due to the formation of ferrous thioglycolate salt.
Question 225 of 687
Q.25 Ammonium carbonate assay is based on the principle-
- Acid-base
- Iodometric
- Complexometric
- Conductometric
Answer ✔ (a) Acid-base
Explanation: The assay of ammonium carbonate is based on acidometry and alkalimetry (acid-base) titration. Methyl red solution is used as an indicator for this assay. Ammonium carbonate is used as a respiratory stimulant and expectorant.
Question 226 of 687
Q.1 Alupent is common brand name for-
- Isoprenaline
- Phenylephrine
- Orciprenaline
- Terbutaline
Answer ✔ (b) Phenylephrine
Explanation: Orciprenaline is also known as metaproterenol, is a bronchodilator.
Question 227 of 687
Q.2 Which of these hypnotic possess a muscle relaxant property?
- Paraldehyde
- Phenobarbitone
- Barbitone
- Diazepam
Answer ✔ (d) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam possesses anticonvulasant and skeletal muscle relaxant activity.
Question 228 of 687
Q.3 Paracetamol is excreted as-
- Glucuronide
- Deacetylated product
- Hydroxy derivatives
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Glucuronide
Explanation: Paracetamol is metabolised in the liver (90-95%) and?excreted?in the urine mainly as the glucuronide and sulphate conjugates. less than 5% is excreted as unchanged paracetamol.
Question 229 of 687
Q.4 Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-
- α - receptor
- α and β receptor
- β receptor
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) β receptor
Explanation: Ephinephrine is also known as adrenaline hormone and neurotransmitter. Cardiovascular action of epinephrine is mediated through β receptor.
Question 230 of 687
Q.5 Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-
- Genetic variation
- Idiosyncracy
- Teratogenic effect
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic variation
Explanation: Isoniazid is given in the treatment of TB. Also known as isonicotinylhydrazine. In Africans Metabolism of Isoniazid is slow due genetic variations.
Question 231 of 687
Q.6 Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-
- inhibiting the enzyme
- blocking the receptor
- acting on cell membrane
- non-specific drug action
Answer ✔ (c) acting on cell membrane
Explanation: Phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative, class 1B anti-arrythmic. It act on cell membrane by sodium channel blockade.
Question 232 of 687
Q.7 Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-
- sublingual route
- Oral route
- Intravenous route
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual route
Explanation: Isosorbide Dinitrate is used to prevent chest pain (angina attacks). It works by relaxing and widening blood vessels so blood can flow more easily to the heart. These tablets will not treat an angina attack that has already begun. They may be also used to control heart failure. generally taken as sublingual route (below the tongue) for quick absorption and action in emergency.
Question 233 of 687
Q.8 Methotrexate is a -
- Enzyme inhibitor
- Receptor blocker
- Alkylating agent
- Anti-metabolic
Answer ✔ (d) Anti-metabolic
Explanation: Methotrexate is used in cancer, autoimmune diseases and ectopic pregnancy.
Question 234 of 687
Q.9 Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?
- Tetracycline
- Bacitracin
- Paramomycin
- tobramycin
Answer ✔ (c) Paramomycin
Explanation: Paromomycin is an antimicrobial used to treat a number of parasitic infections including amebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis, and tapeworm infection. It is a first-line treatment for amebiasis or giardiasis during pregnancy. Otherwise it is generally a second line treatment option. It is used by mouth, applied to the skin, or by injection into a muscle.
Question 235 of 687
Q.10 Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-
- Nematodes
- Cestodes
- Trematodes
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Cestodes
Explanation: Niclosamide is a tenacide in the antihelmintic family especially effective against cestodes.
Question 236 of 687
Q.11 Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?
- Amantadine
- Idoxuridine
- Acyclovir
- Haymycin
Answer ✔ (d) Haymycin
Explanation: Haymycin is a polyene antimycotic agent.
Question 237 of 687
Q.12 Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-
- Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
- Inhibiting protein synthesis
- Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
Explanation: Amphotericin B id often used for treatment of systemic fungal nfections.
Question 238 of 687
Q.13 Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-
- Penicillin
- Cephalosporin
- Sulphonamides
- Erythromycin
Answer ✔ (c) Sulphonamides
Explanation: Stevens- Johnson syndrom affects the skin and mucus membrane and these is the common side effects of sulphonamides.
Question 239 of 687
Q.14 Penicillinase resistance penicillin include-
- Penicillin G
- Penicillin V
- Cloxacilline
- Ampicilline
Answer ✔ (c) Cloxacilline
Explanation: Cloxacillin used against staphylococci that produce β- lactamase.
Question 240 of 687
Q.15 Which one of the antibacterial agent is effective against typhoid fever?
- Chloramphenicol
- Penicillin
- Teracycline
- Sulphathiazole
Answer ✔ (a) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Typhoid fever is also called pathogenic fever. Chloramphenicol is a second line agent in the treatment of tetracycline resistant cholera.
Question 241 of 687
Q.16 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-
- Tryptophan
- 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid
- 5-hydroxytryptamine
- Indole
Answer ✔ (c) 5-hydroxytryptamine
Explanation: On decarboxylation, 5-HT gives 5-Hydroxtryptamine (serotonin).
Question 242 of 687
Q.17 Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-
- CNS stimulant
- Vasoconstriction
- Increase in blood pressure
- Release of histamine
Answer ✔ (a) CNS stimulant
Explanation: Morphine is an opiod analgesic, it acts directly on the CNS.
Question 243 of 687
Q.18 Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-
- Atenolol
- Atorvastatin
- Propranalol
- Digoxin
Answer ✔ (b) Atorvastatin
Explanation: Atorvastatin is primarily used for lowering blood cholesterol for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Question 244 of 687
Q.19 Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-
- Tuberculosis
- Diarrhoea
- inflammation and boils
- Leprosy
Answer ✔ (c) inflammation and boils
Explanation: Inchthamol is used for treating some skin disease including eczema and psoriasis.
Question 245 of 687
Q.20 Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-
- Cytosine nucleoside
- Guanosine nucleoside
- Thymidine nucleoside
- Adenine nucleoside
Answer ✔ (b) Guanosine nucleoside
Explanation: Famciclovir is used for the treatment of various herpes virus infections, most commonly for herpes zoster.
Question 246 of 687
Q.1 Vginal sponge, means of family planning belongs to-
- Physical method
- Chemical method
- Hormonal method
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (a) Physical method
Explanation: Vaginal sponge is a methos of delivering a spermicide in cervix and vagina. It provides physical barrier between ovum and sperm.
Question 247 of 687
Q.2 Mala - D (oral pills) contains which of the following hormone?
- Oestrogen
- Progestogen
- Both (a) and (b)
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Mala -D is a combined oral contraceptive pill with the low estrogen and progestogen content which provides good control on menstrual cycle.
Question 248 of 687
Q.3 Water borne disease is-
- Tuberculosis
- cholera
- measles
- influenza
Answer ✔ (b) cholera
Explanation: Cholera is a water borne disease. This infects intestine and caused by Vibrio cholra.
Question 249 of 687
Q.4 In diphtheria the causetive organism affects-
- upper respiratory tract
- Intestine
- brain
- lungs
Answer ✔ (a) upper respiratory tract
Explanation: Diphteria is a upper respiratory tract infectious disease caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin (poison). It is the toxin that can cause people to get very sick. Diphtheria bacteria spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing.
Question 250 of 687
Q.5 Elisa test is used for diagnosis of-
- Tuberculosis
- Typhoid
- AIDS
- Rabies
Answer ✔ (c) AIDS
Explanation: The Elisa test is used to determine to know antibodies related too certain infection conditions. Elisa test is used for AIDS Diagnosis.
Question 251 of 687
Q.6 In liver, Glucose is stored as-
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Sucrose
- Lactose
Answer ✔ (b) Glycogen
Explanation: Glucose is stored in liver as glycogen, which is multibranched polysachharide. Glucose is the monomer unit of Glycogen. Starch, Sucrose and Lactose are borken down to glucose in the process of digestion. Fructose is also isomerised to glucose.
Question 252 of 687
Q.7 The reserve food material of a plant is-
- Cellulose
- Starch
- Glucose
- Pectine
Answer ✔ (a) Cellulose
Explanation: Cellulose is the reserve food material of plants. It is atype of biofuel produced from lignocelluloses.
Question 253 of 687
Q.8 Measles is caused by-
- Variola virus
- Rubeola virus
- Varicella zoster
- Herpes virus
Answer ✔ (b) Rubeola virus
Explanation: Maesles is caused by rubella virus. It is an infectious disease of respiratory system, immune system, and skin caused by virus especially paromyxo virus.
Question 254 of 687
Q.9 Removal of disease from universe is-
- Eradication
- Prevention
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Answer ✔ (a) Eradication
Explanation: Eradication of infectious disease is the reduction of the global prevalence in the humans or animals host to zero.
Question 255 of 687
Q.10 Chlorhexidine is used as-
- Disinfectant
- Bacteriostatic
- Antiseptic
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Antiseptic
Explanation: Chlorhexidine salt dissociates and releases negative charged ions at the physiological pH. It is active against the both gram positive and gram negative microorganisms.
Question 256 of 687
Q.11 Malaria is transmitted through -
- Female culex musquito
- Female housefly
- Female anopheles mosquito
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Female anopheles mosquito
Explanation: Female anopheles mosquito spreads malaria and its parasite traget liver to mature and reproduce.
Question 257 of 687
Q.12 The Popular IUCD is-
- Condom
- Copper T
- Foam tablet
- Cream
Answer ✔ (b) Copper T
Explanation: An intrauterine device (IUD or coil) is a small contraceptive device, often t-shaped containing erither copper or levonorgestrel, which is inserted into the uterus.
Question 258 of 687
Q.13 The intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron is-
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin A
Answer ✔ (a) Vitamin B12
Explanation: Vitamin B12 is the intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron (determines how much iron is needed for a healthy blood and cells).It is important for normal blood cells and nerves. Vitamin C Improves the absorption of iron from stomach. follates (vitamin B9 ) needed for the formation of helathy blood cells (RBCs).
Question 259 of 687
Q.14 Which of the following has the highest amount of polyunsaturated fatty acid?
- sunflower oil
- Ground nut oil
- Palm Oil
- Soyabean oil
Answer ✔ (a) sunflower oil
Explanation: Sunflower oil is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids used as an emollient.
Question 260 of 687
Q.15 Which of the following is the carbohydrate of animal origin?
- Glucose
- Sucrose
- starch
- Glycogen
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen is the animal origin carbohydrate, it is multibranched polysachhride.
Question 261 of 687
Q.16 How much retinol is equal to one I.U.?
- 0.3 mcg
- 0.6 mcg
- 1.2 mcg
- 2 mcg
Answer ✔ (a) 0.3 mcg
Explanation: Retinol is a diterpenoid, other form of vitamin A. Deficiency of Retinol (Vitamin A) causes night blindness. 1 international unit (I.U.) of retinol contains 0.3 mcg of retinol.
Question 262 of 687
Q.17 leprosy mainly affects-
- muscles and bones
- nerves and skin
- testes and eye
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: leprosy mainly affects skin and nerves leading to the disfunction of eyes, bones, muscles nd othe sensary organs.
Question 263 of 687
Q.18 Which is not a live attenuated vaccine?
- BCG
- OPV
- measles
- pertusis
Answer ✔ (d) pertusis
Explanation: Pertussis vaccine is a vaccine that protects against whooping cough. There are two main types: whole-cell vaccines and acellular vaccines.
Question 264 of 687
Q.19 In general, which foods are considered to be high in vitamin K and should be avoided in large amounts when on warfarin dose?
- Citrus fruits
- Dairy products
- bread and cereals
- Green leafy vegatables
Answer ✔ (d) Green leafy vegatables
Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are nutritional power houses filled with vitamins, minerals, and polynutrients.
Question 265 of 687
Q.20 Tocoferol also known as-
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin K
Answer ✔ (b) Vitamin E
Explanation: Tocoferols and tocotrienols are related compounds have vitamin activity and known as vitamin E compounds. These are fat soluble antioxidants and also have many other functions in the body.
Question 266 of 687
Q.1 Vginal sponge, means of family planning belongs to-
- Physical method
- Chemical method
- Hormonal method
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (a) Physical method
Explanation: Vaginal sponge is a methos of delivering a spermicide in cervix and vagina. It provides physical barrier between ovum and sperm.
Question 267 of 687
Q.2 Mala - D (oral pills) contains which of the following hormone?
- Oestrogen
- Progestogen
- Both (a) and (b)
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Mala -D is a combined oral contraceptive pill with the low estrogen and progestogen content which provides good control on menstrual cycle.
Question 268 of 687
Q.3 Water borne disease is-
- Tuberculosis
- cholera
- measles
- influenza
Answer ✔ (b) cholera
Explanation: Cholera is a water borne disease. This infects intestine and caused by Vibrio cholra.
Question 269 of 687
Q.4 In diphtheria the causetive organism affects-
- upper respiratory tract
- Intestine
- brain
- lungs
Answer ✔ (a) upper respiratory tract
Explanation: Diphteria is a upper respiratory tract infectious disease caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin (poison). It is the toxin that can cause people to get very sick. Diphtheria bacteria spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing.
Question 270 of 687
Q.5 Elisa test is used for diagnosis of-
- Tuberculosis
- Typhoid
- AIDS
- Rabies
Answer ✔ (c) AIDS
Explanation: The Elisa test is used to determine to know antibodies related too certain infection conditions. Elisa test is used for AIDS Diagnosis.
Question 271 of 687
Q.6 In liver, Glucose is stored as-
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Sucrose
- Lactose
Answer ✔ (b) Glycogen
Explanation: Glucose is stored in liver as glycogen, which is multibranched polysachharide. Glucose is the monomer unit of Glycogen. Starch, Sucrose and Lactose are borken down to glucose in the process of digestion. Fructose is also isomerised to glucose.
Question 272 of 687
Q.7 The reserve food material of a plant is-
- Cellulose
- Starch
- Glucose
- Pectine
Answer ✔ (a) Cellulose
Explanation: Cellulose is the reserve food material of plants. It is atype of biofuel produced from lignocelluloses.
Question 273 of 687
Q.8 Measles is caused by-
- Variola virus
- Rubeola virus
- Varicella zoster
- Herpes virus
Answer ✔ (b) Rubeola virus
Explanation: Maesles is caused by rubella virus. It is an infectious disease of respiratory system, immune system, and skin caused by virus especially paromyxo virus.
Question 274 of 687
Q.9 Removal of disease from universe is-
- Eradication
- Prevention
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Answer ✔ (a) Eradication
Explanation: Eradication of infectious disease is the reduction of the global prevalence in the humans or animals host to zero.
Question 275 of 687
Q.10 Chlorhexidine is used as-
- Disinfectant
- Bacteriostatic
- Antiseptic
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Antiseptic
Explanation: Chlorhexidine salt dissociates and releases negative charged ions at the physiological pH. It is active against the both gram positive and gram negative microorganisms.
Question 276 of 687
Q.11 Malaria is transmitted through -
- Female culex musquito
- Female housefly
- Female anopheles mosquito
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Female anopheles mosquito
Explanation: Female anopheles mosquito spreads malaria and its parasite traget liver to mature and reproduce.
Question 277 of 687
Q.12 The Popular IUCD is-
- Condom
- Copper T
- Foam tablet
- Cream
Answer ✔ (b) Copper T
Explanation: An intrauterine device (IUD or coil) is a small contraceptive device, often t-shaped containing erither copper or levonorgestrel, which is inserted into the uterus.
Question 278 of 687
Q.13 The intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron is-
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin A
Answer ✔ (a) Vitamin B12
Explanation: Vitamin B12 is the intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron (determines how much iron is needed for a healthy blood and cells).It is important for normal blood cells and nerves. Vitamin C Improves the absorption of iron from stomach. follates (vitamin B9 ) needed for the formation of helathy blood cells (RBCs).
Question 279 of 687
Q.14 Which of the following has the highest amount of polyunsaturated fatty acid?
- sunflower oil
- Ground nut oil
- Palm Oil
- Soyabean oil
Answer ✔ (a) sunflower oil
Explanation: Sunflower oil is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids used as an emollient.
Question 280 of 687
Q.15 Which of the following is the carbohydrate of animal origin?
- Glucose
- Sucrose
- starch
- Glycogen
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen is the animal origin carbohydrate, it is multibranched polysachhride.
Question 281 of 687
Q.16 How much retinol is equal to one I.U.?
- 0.3 mcg
- 0.6 mcg
- 1.2 mcg
- 2 mcg
Answer ✔ (a) 0.3 mcg
Explanation: Retinol is a diterpenoid, other form of vitamin A. Deficiency of Retinol (Vitamin A) causes night blindness. 1 international unit (I.U.) of retinol contains 0.3 mcg of retinol.
Question 282 of 687
Q.17 leprosy mainly affects-
- muscles and bones
- nerves and skin
- testes and eye
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: leprosy mainly affects skin and nerves leading to the disfunction of eyes, bones, muscles nd othe sensary organs.
Question 283 of 687
Q.18 Which is not a live attenuated vaccine?
- BCG
- OPV
- measles
- pertusis
Answer ✔ (d) pertusis
Explanation: Pertussis vaccine is a vaccine that protects against whooping cough. There are two main types: whole-cell vaccines and acellular vaccines.
Question 284 of 687
Q.19 In general, which foods are considered to be high in vitamin K and should be avoided in large amounts when on warfarin dose?
- Citrus fruits
- Dairy products
- bread and cereals
- Green leafy vegatables
Answer ✔ (d) Green leafy vegatables
Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are nutritional power houses filled with vitamins, minerals, and polynutrients.
Question 285 of 687
Q.20 Tocoferol also known as-
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin K
Answer ✔ (b) Vitamin E
Explanation: Tocoferols and tocotrienols are related compounds have vitamin activity and known as vitamin E compounds. These are fat soluble antioxidants and also have many other functions in the body.
Question 286 of 687
Q.1 Vginal sponge, means of family planning belongs to-
- Physical method
- Chemical method
- Hormonal method
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (a) Physical method
Explanation: Vaginal sponge is a methos of delivering a spermicide in cervix and vagina. It provides physical barrier between ovum and sperm.
Question 287 of 687
Q.2 Mala - D (oral pills) contains which of the following hormone?
- Oestrogen
- Progestogen
- Both (a) and (b)
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Mala -D is a combined oral contraceptive pill with the low estrogen and progestogen content which provides good control on menstrual cycle.
Question 288 of 687
Q.3 Water borne disease is-
- Tuberculosis
- cholera
- measles
- influenza
Answer ✔ (b) cholera
Explanation: Cholera is a water borne disease. This infects intestine and caused by Vibrio cholra.
Question 289 of 687
Q.4 In diphtheria the causetive organism affects-
- upper respiratory tract
- Intestine
- brain
- lungs
Answer ✔ (a) upper respiratory tract
Explanation: Diphteria is a upper respiratory tract infectious disease caused by strains of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae that make a toxin (poison). It is the toxin that can cause people to get very sick. Diphtheria bacteria spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing.
Question 290 of 687
Q.5 Elisa test is used for diagnosis of-
- Tuberculosis
- Typhoid
- AIDS
- Rabies
Answer ✔ (c) AIDS
Explanation: The Elisa test is used to determine to know antibodies related too certain infection conditions. Elisa test is used for AIDS Diagnosis.
Question 291 of 687
Q.6 In liver, Glucose is stored as-
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Sucrose
- Lactose
Answer ✔ (b) Glycogen
Explanation: Glucose is stored in liver as glycogen, which is multibranched polysachharide. Glucose is the monomer unit of Glycogen. Starch, Sucrose and Lactose are borken down to glucose in the process of digestion. Fructose is also isomerised to glucose.
Question 292 of 687
Q.7 The reserve food material of a plant is-
- Cellulose
- Starch
- Glucose
- Pectine
Answer ✔ (a) Cellulose
Explanation: Cellulose is the reserve food material of plants. It is atype of biofuel produced from lignocelluloses.
Question 293 of 687
Q.8 Measles is caused by-
- Variola virus
- Rubeola virus
- Varicella zoster
- Herpes virus
Answer ✔ (b) Rubeola virus
Explanation: Maesles is caused by rubella virus. It is an infectious disease of respiratory system, immune system, and skin caused by virus especially paromyxo virus.
Question 294 of 687
Q.9 Removal of disease from universe is-
- Eradication
- Prevention
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Answer ✔ (a) Eradication
Explanation: Eradication of infectious disease is the reduction of the global prevalence in the humans or animals host to zero.
Question 295 of 687
Q.10 Chlorhexidine is used as-
- Disinfectant
- Bacteriostatic
- Antiseptic
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Antiseptic
Explanation: Chlorhexidine salt dissociates and releases negative charged ions at the physiological pH. It is active against the both gram positive and gram negative microorganisms.
Question 296 of 687
Q.11 Malaria is transmitted through -
- Female culex musquito
- Female housefly
- Female anopheles mosquito
- none of the these
Answer ✔ (c) Female anopheles mosquito
Explanation: Female anopheles mosquito spreads malaria and its parasite traget liver to mature and reproduce.
Question 297 of 687
Q.12 The Popular IUCD is-
- Condom
- Copper T
- Foam tablet
- Cream
Answer ✔ (b) Copper T
Explanation: An intrauterine device (IUD or coil) is a small contraceptive device, often t-shaped containing erither copper or levonorgestrel, which is inserted into the uterus.
Question 298 of 687
Q.13 The intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron is-
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin A
Answer ✔ (a) Vitamin B12
Explanation: Vitamin B12 is the intrinsic factor for the absorption of iron (determines how much iron is needed for a healthy blood and cells).It is important for normal blood cells and nerves. Vitamin C Improves the absorption of iron from stomach. follates (vitamin B9 ) needed for the formation of helathy blood cells (RBCs).
Question 299 of 687
Q.14 Which of the following has the highest amount of polyunsaturated fatty acid?
- sunflower oil
- Ground nut oil
- Palm Oil
- Soyabean oil
Answer ✔ (a) sunflower oil
Explanation: Sunflower oil is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids used as an emollient.
Question 300 of 687
Q.15 Which of the following is the carbohydrate of animal origin?
- Glucose
- Sucrose
- starch
- Glycogen
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogen
Explanation: Glycogen is the animal origin carbohydrate, it is multibranched polysachhride.
Question 301 of 687
Q.16 How much retinol is equal to one I.U.?
- 0.3 mcg
- 0.6 mcg
- 1.2 mcg
- 2 mcg
Answer ✔ (a) 0.3 mcg
Explanation: Retinol is a diterpenoid, other form of vitamin A. Deficiency of Retinol (Vitamin A) causes night blindness. 1 international unit (I.U.) of retinol contains 0.3 mcg of retinol.
Question 302 of 687
Q.17 leprosy mainly affects-
- muscles and bones
- nerves and skin
- testes and eye
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: leprosy mainly affects skin and nerves leading to the disfunction of eyes, bones, muscles nd othe sensary organs.
Question 303 of 687
Q.18 Which is not a live attenuated vaccine?
- BCG
- OPV
- measles
- pertusis
Answer ✔ (d) pertusis
Explanation: Pertussis vaccine is a vaccine that protects against whooping cough. There are two main types: whole-cell vaccines and acellular vaccines.
Question 304 of 687
Q.19 In general, which foods are considered to be high in vitamin K and should be avoided in large amounts when on warfarin dose?
- Citrus fruits
- Dairy products
- bread and cereals
- Green leafy vegatables
Answer ✔ (d) Green leafy vegatables
Explanation: Green leafy vegetables are nutritional power houses filled with vitamins, minerals, and polynutrients.
Question 305 of 687
Q.20 Tocoferol also known as-
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin B
- Vitamin K
Answer ✔ (b) Vitamin E
Explanation: Tocoferols and tocotrienols are related compounds have vitamin activity and known as vitamin E compounds. These are fat soluble antioxidants and also have many other functions in the body.
Question 306 of 687
Q.1 The term transactions in business referes to-
- Exchange of goods
- goods and services
- transfer of goods
- Goods and sale
Answer ✔ (c) transfer of goods
Explanation: Transaction referes to transfer of goods. The buyer and seller often involved in the exchange of items of value such as goods, information, services and money.
Question 307 of 687
Q.2 Channel of distribution is zero level in-
- Manufacturers → physician → consumer
- Manufacturer → wholesaler → physician → patient
- Manufacturer → retailer → patient
- Manufacturer → patient
Answer ✔ (d) Manufacturer → patient
Explanation: zero level channels have no intermediates.
Question 308 of 687
Q.3 Type of relationship of street vendor is-
- small scale fixed retailer
- large scale retailer
- Itinerant retailer
- Pertinent retailer
Answer ✔ (c) Itinerant retailer
Explanation: The trem itinerant retailer shall include person selling goods door to door as well as person selling goods from a mobile cart, trailer or similar devices.
Question 309 of 687
Q.4 OTC drugs are-
- Ethical drugs
- Prescription drugs
- Ethical and prescription drugs
- non-prescription drugs
Answer ✔ (d) non-prescription drugs
Explanation: OTC drugs are over the counter medicines, sold directly to a consumer wothout a prescripton.
Question 310 of 687
Q.5 Safety stock is used for -
- For protection of store from fire or thefts
- As an insuarance claim during emergency
- for emergency to meet unforeseen demands
- to increase the market value of product
Answer ✔ (c) for emergency to meet unforeseen demands
Explanation: safety stock is also known as buffer stock and its is used in emergency to meet extra demands.
Question 311 of 687
Q.6 ICICI stands for -
- Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
- Inductrial and Commercial Investment Corporation of India
- Indian Corporation of Investments and Commercial Institution
- Industrial Corporation of Investment and Credit Income
Answer ✔ (a) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
Explanation: ICICI stands for Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India.
Question 312 of 687
Q.7 Which one of the following will not apear as source of fund in flow statement?
- Increase in share capital
- increase in working capital
- increase in secured loans
- funds from operation
Answer ✔ (b) increase in working capital
Explanation: Increase in working capital will not appear as source of fund in flow statement.
Question 313 of 687
Q.8 Inventories comprise of-
- Raw material
- General store machinery
- Finished products
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Inventory refers to the goods and material that a business holds for the ultimate purpose of resale/repair.
Question 314 of 687
Q.9 A leader who permits the members of the group to do whatever they want to do whatever they want to do may be classified into-
- Democratic leader
- Laissez - Faire leader
- Herzberg leader
- social leader
Answer ✔ (b) Laissez - Faire leader
Explanation: The Laissez - Faire leadership style is where all the rights and powers to make decision is fully given to the worker.
Question 315 of 687
Q.10 Advertisement and salesmanship help to remove the-
- Hindrance of place
- Hindrance of persons
- Hindrance of finance
- Unawareness
Answer ✔ (d) Unawareness
Explanation: advertisement and salesmanship help to remove the unawareness.
Question 316 of 687
Q.11 Business is an-
- non-economic activity
- economic activity
- both economic and non-economic activity
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) economic activity
Explanation: Business is also known as Enterprise or a firm. It is an economic activity.
Question 317 of 687
Q.12 Partners who are neither entitled to take part in the management nor do they invest and get a share of profits are-
- silent partners
- Prtners by estoppel
- Nominal partner
- Limited partner
Answer ✔ (a) silent partners
Explanation: Silent partners do not involved in a business.
Question 318 of 687
Q.13 The oldest form of business organisation is-
- Joint stock company
- Sole Proprietorship
- Partnership
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Sole Proprietorship
Explanation: Sole or single properietorship is considered as the simplest as well as the oldest form of business ownership.
Question 319 of 687
Q.14 The buying and selling of pharmaceuticals items for making profit is called-
- Trading
- Commerce
- Direct service
- Miscellaneous
Answer ✔ (a) Trading
Explanation: Trading is the value added function of the economic process.
Question 320 of 687
Q.15 Warehousing is done to save-
- Time
- Place
- Cost
- Labour requirements
Answer ✔ (b) Place
Explanation: Warehousing is done primarily to save place.
Question 321 of 687
Q.16 The maximum number of members in public limited company is-
- 20
- 30
- 50
- unlimited
Answer ✔ (d) unlimited
Explanation: There is no restriction for maximum number of members in a public limited company.
Question 322 of 687
Q.17 In a mail order business goods are sold on-
- cash
- credit
- both cash and credit
- Instalment basis
Answer ✔ (a) cash
Explanation: In a mail order business goods are sold on cash and it can be done exclusively from home.
Question 323 of 687
Q.18 Coding of items helps in-
- Handling of store items
- Standardization of drug
- Reduction of items
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Handling of store items
Explanation: coding of items helps in handling of store items.
Question 324 of 687
Q.19 The layout of drug store depends upon-
- Pharmacist/proprietor
- Rules specified in shedule N
- Availability of space
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Rules specified in shedule N
Explanation: Schedule N includes list of minimum equipment for the efficient running of a pharmacy.
Question 325 of 687
Q.20 ABC analysis is based on-
- Unit price material
- consumption value of material
- storage value of material
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) consumption value of material
Explanation: ABC analysis is the business term used to define inventory chategorisation technique often used in material management. It is also known as selective inventory control. It depends on consumption value of materials.
Question 326 of 687
Q.21 Which of these data of marketing research is more reliable?
- Primary data
- secondary data
- both primary and secondary data
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Primary data
Explanation: Marketing research is the process or set of process that link the consumers, customers and end users to the marketer through information. Primary data is more reliable for marketing research.
Question 327 of 687
Q.22 Location which attracts the customer for shopping may be termed as-
- Interceptive location
- Geographic location
- Generative Location
- Sucipent location
Answer ✔ (c) Generative Location
Explanation: People are attracted to generative location for the purpose of shopping thus it generates business. E.g. shopping centers, out laying retail stores, full line department stores.
Question 328 of 687
Q.23 Bank provides finance to bussiness for-
- Long term
- Short term
- medium term
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (d) Any of the above
Explanation: finance deals with the allocation of assets. Bank provides finance to the business for various length of time.
Question 329 of 687
Q.24 Fixed rate of divident is given to-
- Equity share holders
- Preference share holders
- Differed shares
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preference share holders
Explanation: Fixed rate of divident is given to preferance share holders.
Question 330 of 687
Q.25 Each transaction has double effect is shown by-
- Dual aspect concept
- Realization concept
- cost concept
- Money measurement concept
Answer ✔ (a) Dual aspect concept
Explanation: dual aspect concept also known as duality principle, it is a fundamental convention of accounting.
Question 331 of 687
Q.26 What is the role of shareholders in a company?
- Owners
- Creditors
- Managers
- Any of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Owners
Explanation: shareholders are the owners of the company. They have different percentage of ownership (share).
Question 332 of 687
Q.27 Plant and machinery will appear on-
- Debit side of balance sheet
- Debit side of profit and loss account
- Credit side of balance sheet
- Credit side of profit and loss account
Answer ✔ (a) Debit side of balance sheet
Explanation: In a balance sheet, plant and machinery are placed on the debit side.
Question 333 of 687
Q.28 Buying of items from foreign country is called-
- Export
- Import
- Enteport
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Import
Explanation: Import is buying of items from foreign country.
Question 334 of 687
Q.29 Trial balance helps in preparing-
- Trading account
- profit and loss account
- Balance sheet
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Trial balance checks the sum of debits against the sum of credits.
Question 335 of 687
Q.30 A chemist shop deals only in drugs so it is an example of-
- General store
- Single line store
- Street stall
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Single line store
Explanation: Single line store is also known as speciality store.
Question 336 of 687
Q.1 Proteins are precipitated by-
- water
- sodium hydroxide
- formaldehyde
- Trichloro acetic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Trichloro acetic acid
Explanation: Trichloro aetic acid is widely used in downstream processing of Biological products in order to ccentrate the protein and purify them from vaarious contaminants.
Question 337 of 687
Q.2 The major site of fat digestion is-
- Large intestine
- small intestine
- Kidney
- Liver
Answer ✔ (b) small intestine
Explanation: small intestine, is the major site of fat digestion. Small intestine is the part of GIT where digestionand absorption is takes place.
Question 338 of 687
Q.3 Ninhydrin oxidatively decarboxylates α-amino acids to-
- CO2
- H2O,CO2
- CO2,NH3
- NH3
Answer ✔ (c) CO2,NH3
Explanation: Oxydative decarboxylation reaction reaction is oxidation reaction in which a carboxylate group is removed forming CO2 and NH3.
Question 339 of 687
Q.4 one example of glycoside is-
- Cholesterol
- Sphingomyelin
- Lecithin
- Gangliosides
Answer ✔ (d) Gangliosides
Explanation: Gangliosides belongs to the glycosides. Ganglioside is a molecule composed of glycolipid with one or more sialic acid linked to sugar chain.
Question 340 of 687
Q.5 Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of-
- Succinate
- Fumerate
- Oxaloacetate
- Aspaartate
Answer ✔ (a) Succinate
Explanation: malonate is the competitive inhibitor of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. Malonate binds to the active site of the enzyme without reacting, and so competes with succinate, the usual substrate of the Enzyme.
Question 341 of 687
Q.6 Alkaline phosphate level is increases in which disease?
- Rickets
- Leukemia
- Cardial infection
- Pancreatic deficiency
Answer ✔ (a) Rickets
Explanation: Alkaline phosphate (ALP) is a hydrolase enzyme and responsible for removing phosphate groups from many types of molecules. Bone specific alkaline phosphatase isoenzyme is elevated as a result of increased osteoblastic activity. The highest total ALP values have been attributed to an increased bone isoenzyme level due to Paget disease or rickets/osteomalasia.
Question 342 of 687
Q.7 What are the chief storage sites for manganese in the body?
- Kidney
- Muscles
- Stomach
- Heart
Answer ✔ (a) Kidney
Explanation: Manganese (Mn++) is a trace mineral helps the body to convert protein and fat to energy. It also promotes normal bone growth, helps maintain healthy reproductive, nervous, and immune systems, and is involved in blood sugar regulation.In addition mangnese is involved in blood clotting and the formation of cartilage and lubricating fluid in the joints. Mangnese is predominantly stored in the bones, liver, Kidney, and pancreas.
Question 343 of 687
Q.8 Microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs due to deficiency of-
- Cu++
- CO2
- Zinc
- Iron
Answer ✔ (d) Iron
Explanation: In microcytic anemia the size of red blood cells decreases due to less hemoglobin. deficiency of Iron is the most common cause of microcytic anemia.
Question 344 of 687
Q.9 The first amino acid during protein synthesis is-
- Arginine
- leucine
- valine
- methionine
Answer ✔ (d) methionine
Explanation: Methionine is specified by the codon AUG, which is also known as the start codon. Consequently, methionine is the first amino acid to dock in the ribosome during the synthesis of proteins. Protein synthesis requires the translation of nucleotide sequence into amino acid sequences.
Question 345 of 687
Q.10 Milky type colour of urine is due to the presence of-
- Albumins
- haemoglobin
- Fatty acid
- Nephritis
Answer ✔ (c) Fatty acid
Explanation: milky urine can rarely be due to chyluria (lymph fluid resuting from a communication between the lymphatic system and the urinary tract. The preasence of fatty acids in urine results urinary tract infections. Cloudy or milky urine is a sign of a urinary tract infection, which may also cause a bad smell. Milky urine may also be caused by bacteria, crystals, fat, white or red blood cells, or mucus in the urine
Question 346 of 687
Q.11 FAD and FMN are coenzyme form of-
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Ascorbic acid
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Riboflavin
Explanation: Riboflavin (vitamin B2) is a cofactor that can carry one or two eletrons. It is a component of two major coenzymes FAD and FMN.
Question 347 of 687
Q.12 Which monosaccharide unit constitutes Milk Sugar?
- Galactose and glucose
- 2 galactose units
- 2 glucose units
- Fructose and galactose
Answer ✔ (a) Galactose and glucose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide suger composed of galactose and glucose. 2.8% lactose is found in sugar and also called as milk sugar.
Question 348 of 687
Q.13 The sugars formed as a result of sucrose digestion are-
- Fructose and glucose
- maltose and glucose
- glucose and glucose
- galactose and glucose
Answer ✔ (a) Fructose and glucose
Explanation: Fructose is a simple monosaccharide, it bonded to glucose to form the disaccharide, sucrose. Frucrose and glucose have the same molecular formula but Fructose is a ketose sugar anf glucose is a aldose sugar.
Question 349 of 687
Q.14 The processing of blood clotting is initiated by-
- Prothrombin
- Fibrinogen
- Thrombin
- Thromboplastin
Answer ✔ (a) Prothrombin
Explanation: Prothrombin is used to determine the clotting tendency of blood in the measure of warfarin dosage, liver damage and vit K status.
Question 350 of 687
Q.15 Intracellular substance present in connective tissue is-
- Fatty in nature
- Muco polysaccharide
- Protein
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Muco polysaccharide
Explanation: Heparin is present as intracellular sustance in connectice tissue is a mucopolysacchride. Orther polyscaharides associated with connective tissue are Hyluronic acid and chondriotin sulphuric acid.
Question 351 of 687
Q.16 Multiple forms of same enzymes are called-
- Coenzyme
- Apoenzymes
- Isoenzymes
- Haloenzymes
Answer ✔ (c) Isoenzymes
Explanation: Enzymes that are differ from amino acid sequence but catalyze the same chemical reaction are known as Isoenzymes.
Question 352 of 687
Q.17 Treatment of glycogen with iodine shows which colour?
- Violet
- Green
- Red
- Yellow
Answer ✔ (c) Red
Explanation: The colour depends on the 3D structure of the polysaccharide. Starch is coiled structure which turns blue with iodine solution, whereas glycogen which is a branched molecule turns red/brown with iodine solution.
Question 353 of 687
Q.18 Which alcohol is a constituent of flavin coenzyme?
- inositol
- xylitol
- Ribitol
- Mannitol
Answer ✔ (c) Ribitol
Explanation: Ribitol is a crystalline pentose alcohol formed by the reduction of ribose. It is naturally occuring from the plants and also contribute the structure of riboflavin and flavin mononuleotide.
Question 354 of 687
Q.19 In TCA, oxaloacetate is formed from-
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- succinate
- Malate
Answer ✔ (d) Malate
Explanation: In TCA (tricarboxylic acid ) cycle in the presence of enzyme malate-dehydrogenase, malate is converted to oxaloacetate. Again oxaloacetate reacts with acetyle CoA and cycle continues. Total 30 ATPs fromed from TCA in each reaction of glycolysis (Glycolysis generates two molecules of Acetyle CoA).
Question 355 of 687
Q.20 Net ATPs formed in the β oxidation of palmitic acid?
- 100
- 30
- 50
- 129
Answer ✔ (d) 129
Explanation: Palmitic acid (16 + 1 carbons) is a fatty acid and it can form 8 acetyl CoA units. For this it must complete 7 cycles of β oxidation ( each cycle removes 2 carbon atoms from fatty acid chain in the form of acetyl CoA). Each cyce of beta oxidation generates 5 ATPs. Each TCA cycle generates 12 ATPs (from acetyl CoA).
Total 7 cycles of beta oxidation = 7 × 5 = 35 ATPs.
Total 8 cycles of TCA = 8 × 12 = 96 ATPs. total ATPs = 96 +35 = 131.
2 ATP molecues utiised in the β-oxidation. net molecules obtained from palmitic acid →129 ATPs.
Question 356 of 687
Q.21 Edman's reagent is chemically-
- Phenyl isothiocyanate
- Phenyl chloride
- Phenyl bromide
- Aniline
Answer ✔ (a) Phenyl isothiocyanate
Explanation: Phenylisothiocyanate (PITC) enables the sequential degradation of amino acid in a polypeptide chain.
Question 357 of 687
Q.22 The main ring structure is present in tryptophan is-
- Indole
- imidazole
- furan
- thiophane
Answer ✔ (a) Indole
Explanation: Tryptophan consists of Indole ring.
Question 358 of 687
Q.23 Double helix structure of DNA was proposed by-
- Lewis
- Chargaff's
- James Watson and crick
- Mandel
Answer ✔ (c) James Watson and crick
Question 359 of 687
Q.24 The smallest amino acid is-
- Alanine
- Glycine
- Valine
- Phenylalanine
Answer ✔ (b) Glycine
Explanation: Glycine is the smallest amino acid with only H as its residue.
Question 360 of 687
Q.25 Xanthine is converted to uric acid in the presence of enzyme-
- Xanthine oxidase
- xanthine reductase
- xanthine transferase
- xanthine isomerase
Answer ✔ (a) Xanthine oxidase
Explanation: by the action of xanthine oxidase enzyme, xanthine converted to uric acid.
Question 361 of 687
Q.26 Pantohenic acid is also known as-
- vitamin B1
- vitamin B5
- vitamin B2
- Vitamin B12
Answer ✔ (b) vitamin B5
Explanation: Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) is a water soluble vitamin of B-complex class.
Question 362 of 687
Q.27 Cholesterol is one of the important factor in the synthesis of-
- Bile acids
- hormones
- vitamin D
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Cholesterol is important for the biosynthesis of Bile acids, hormones, and vitamin D.
Question 363 of 687
Q.28 The cyclic fatty acid, Chaulmoogric acid is used in the treatment of-
- T.B.
- ulcers
- Leprosy
- Goiter
Answer ✔ (c) Leprosy
Explanation: Chalmoogric is a tree in acanthaceae family, the oil from its seeds have been widely used for the treatment of leprosy (a disease caused by bacteria) in the Indian and chinese traditional medicines.
Question 364 of 687
Q.29 Cynocobalamine is the metabolic effect of-
- Bacillus pumulis
- Streptomyces griseus
- Bacillus subtilis
- Bacillus sterothermophilus
Answer ✔ (b) Streptomyces griseus
Explanation: Streptomyces griseus is a species of bacteria. It is gram positive bacterium and was the source of industrial production of vitamin B12.
Question 365 of 687
Q.30 Menke's disease is related to-
- deficiency of sulphur
- deficiency of zinc
- defect in transport of copper
- defect in transport of zinc
Answer ✔ (c) defect in transport of copper
Explanation: Mnkel's disease (MNK) is also called copper transport disease, steely hair disease, kinky hair disease, is a disorder that affects copper level in the body, leading to copper deficiency. It is an x-linked recessive disorder, and is therefore considerably more common in males.
Question 366 of 687
Q.1 Proteins are precipitated by-
- water
- sodium hydroxide
- formaldehyde
- Trichloro acetic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Trichloro acetic acid
Explanation: Trichloro aetic acid is widely used in downstream processing of Biological products in order to ccentrate the protein and purify them from vaarious contaminants.
Question 367 of 687
Q.2 The major site of fat digestion is-
- Large intestine
- small intestine
- Kidney
- Liver
Answer ✔ (b) small intestine
Explanation: small intestine, is the major site of fat digestion. Small intestine is the part of GIT where digestionand absorption is takes place.
Question 368 of 687
Q.3 Ninhydrin oxidatively decarboxylates α-amino acids to-
- CO2
- H2O,CO2
- CO2,NH3
- NH3
Answer ✔ (c) CO2,NH3
Explanation: Oxydative decarboxylation reaction reaction is oxidation reaction in which a carboxylate group is removed forming CO2 and NH3.
Question 369 of 687
Q.4 one example of glycoside is-
- Cholesterol
- Sphingomyelin
- Lecithin
- Gangliosides
Answer ✔ (d) Gangliosides
Explanation: Gangliosides belongs to the glycosides. Ganglioside is a molecule composed of glycolipid with one or more sialic acid linked to sugar chain.
Question 370 of 687
Q.5 Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of-
- Succinate
- Fumerate
- Oxaloacetate
- Aspaartate
Answer ✔ (a) Succinate
Explanation: malonate is the competitive inhibitor of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. Malonate binds to the active site of the enzyme without reacting, and so competes with succinate, the usual substrate of the Enzyme.
Question 371 of 687
Q.6 Alkaline phosphate level is increases in which disease?
- Rickets
- Leukemia
- Cardial infection
- Pancreatic deficiency
Answer ✔ (a) Rickets
Explanation: Alkaline phosphate (ALP) is a hydrolase enzyme and responsible for removing phosphate groups from many types of molecules. Bone specific alkaline phosphatase isoenzyme is elevated as a result of increased osteoblastic activity. The highest total ALP values have been attributed to an increased bone isoenzyme level due to Paget disease or rickets/osteomalasia.
Question 372 of 687
Q.7 What are the chief storage sites for manganese in the body?
- Kidney
- Muscles
- Stomach
- Heart
Answer ✔ (a) Kidney
Explanation: Manganese (Mn++) is a trace mineral helps the body to convert protein and fat to energy. It also promotes normal bone growth, helps maintain healthy reproductive, nervous, and immune systems, and is involved in blood sugar regulation.In addition mangnese is involved in blood clotting and the formation of cartilage and lubricating fluid in the joints. Mangnese is predominantly stored in the bones, liver, Kidney, and pancreas.
Question 373 of 687
Q.8 Microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs due to deficiency of-
- Cu++
- CO2
- Zinc
- Iron
Answer ✔ (d) Iron
Explanation: In microcytic anemia the size of red blood cells decreases due to less hemoglobin. deficiency of Iron is the most common cause of microcytic anemia.
Question 374 of 687
Q.9 The first amino acid during protein synthesis is-
- Arginine
- leucine
- valine
- methionine
Answer ✔ (d) methionine
Explanation: Methionine is specified by the codon AUG, which is also known as the start codon. Consequently, methionine is the first amino acid to dock in the ribosome during the synthesis of proteins. Protein synthesis requires the translation of nucleotide sequence into amino acid sequences.
Question 375 of 687
Q.10 Milky type colour of urine is due to the presence of-
- Albumins
- haemoglobin
- Fatty acid
- Nephritis
Answer ✔ (c) Fatty acid
Explanation: milky urine can rarely be due to chyluria (lymph fluid resuting from a communication between the lymphatic system and the urinary tract. The preasence of fatty acids in urine results urinary tract infections. Cloudy or milky urine is a sign of a urinary tract infection, which may also cause a bad smell. Milky urine may also be caused by bacteria, crystals, fat, white or red blood cells, or mucus in the urine
Question 376 of 687
Q.11 FAD and FMN are coenzyme form of-
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Ascorbic acid
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Riboflavin
Explanation: Riboflavin (vitamin B2) is a cofactor that can carry one or two eletrons. It is a component of two major coenzymes FAD and FMN.
Question 377 of 687
Q.12 Which monosaccharide unit constitutes Milk Sugar?
- Galactose and glucose
- 2 galactose units
- 2 glucose units
- Fructose and galactose
Answer ✔ (a) Galactose and glucose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide suger composed of galactose and glucose. 2.8% lactose is found in sugar and also called as milk sugar.
Question 378 of 687
Q.13 The sugars formed as a result of sucrose digestion are-
- Fructose and glucose
- maltose and glucose
- glucose and glucose
- galactose and glucose
Answer ✔ (a) Fructose and glucose
Explanation: Fructose is a simple monosaccharide, it bonded to glucose to form the disaccharide, sucrose. Frucrose and glucose have the same molecular formula but Fructose is a ketose sugar anf glucose is a aldose sugar.
Question 379 of 687
Q.14 The processing of blood clotting is initiated by-
- Prothrombin
- Fibrinogen
- Thrombin
- Thromboplastin
Answer ✔ (a) Prothrombin
Explanation: Prothrombin is used to determine the clotting tendency of blood in the measure of warfarin dosage, liver damage and vit K status.
Question 380 of 687
Q.15 Intracellular substance present in connective tissue is-
- Fatty in nature
- Muco polysaccharide
- Protein
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Muco polysaccharide
Explanation: Heparin is present as intracellular sustance in connectice tissue is a mucopolysacchride. Orther polyscaharides associated with connective tissue are Hyluronic acid and chondriotin sulphuric acid.
Question 381 of 687
Q.16 Multiple forms of same enzymes are called-
- Coenzyme
- Apoenzymes
- Isoenzymes
- Haloenzymes
Answer ✔ (c) Isoenzymes
Explanation: Enzymes that are differ from amino acid sequence but catalyze the same chemical reaction are known as Isoenzymes.
Question 382 of 687
Q.17 Treatment of glycogen with iodine shows which colour?
- Violet
- Green
- Red
- Yellow
Answer ✔ (c) Red
Explanation: The colour depends on the 3D structure of the polysaccharide. Starch is coiled structure which turns blue with iodine solution, whereas glycogen which is a branched molecule turns red/brown with iodine solution.
Question 383 of 687
Q.18 Which alcohol is a constituent of flavin coenzyme?
- inositol
- xylitol
- Ribitol
- Mannitol
Answer ✔ (c) Ribitol
Explanation: Ribitol is a crystalline pentose alcohol formed by the reduction of ribose. It is naturally occuring from the plants and also contribute the structure of riboflavin and flavin mononuleotide.
Question 384 of 687
Q.19 In TCA, oxaloacetate is formed from-
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- succinate
- Malate
Answer ✔ (d) Malate
Explanation: In TCA (tricarboxylic acid ) cycle in the presence of enzyme malate-dehydrogenase, malate is converted to oxaloacetate. Again oxaloacetate reacts with acetyle CoA and cycle continues. Total 30 ATPs fromed from TCA in each reaction of glycolysis (Glycolysis generates two molecules of Acetyle CoA).
Question 385 of 687
Q.20 Net ATPs formed in the β oxidation of palmitic acid?
- 100
- 30
- 50
- 129
Answer ✔ (d) 129
Explanation: Palmitic acid (16 + 1 carbons) is a fatty acid and it can form 8 acetyl CoA units. For this it must complete 7 cycles of β oxidation ( each cycle removes 2 carbon atoms from fatty acid chain in the form of acetyl CoA). Each cyce of beta oxidation generates 5 ATPs. Each TCA cycle generates 12 ATPs (from acetyl CoA).
Total 7 cycles of beta oxidation = 7 × 5 = 35 ATPs.
Total 8 cycles of TCA = 8 × 12 = 96 ATPs. total ATPs = 96 +35 = 131.
2 ATP molecues utiised in the β-oxidation. net molecules obtained from palmitic acid →129 ATPs.
Question 386 of 687
Q.21 Edman's reagent is chemically-
- Phenyl isothiocyanate
- Phenyl chloride
- Phenyl bromide
- Aniline
Answer ✔ (a) Phenyl isothiocyanate
Explanation: Phenylisothiocyanate (PITC) enables the sequential degradation of amino acid in a polypeptide chain.
Question 387 of 687
Q.22 The main ring structure is present in tryptophan is-
- Indole
- imidazole
- furan
- thiophane
Answer ✔ (a) Indole
Explanation: Tryptophan consists of Indole ring.
Question 388 of 687
Q.23 Double helix structure of DNA was proposed by-
- Lewis
- Chargaff's
- James Watson and crick
- Mandel
Answer ✔ (c) James Watson and crick
Question 389 of 687
Q.24 The smallest amino acid is-
- Alanine
- Glycine
- Valine
- Phenylalanine
Answer ✔ (b) Glycine
Explanation: Glycine is the smallest amino acid with only H as its residue.
Question 390 of 687
Q.25 Xanthine is converted to uric acid in the presence of enzyme-
- Xanthine oxidase
- xanthine reductase
- xanthine transferase
- xanthine isomerase
Answer ✔ (a) Xanthine oxidase
Explanation: by the action of xanthine oxidase enzyme, xanthine converted to uric acid.
Question 391 of 687
Q.26 Pantohenic acid is also known as-
- vitamin B1
- vitamin B5
- vitamin B2
- Vitamin B12
Answer ✔ (b) vitamin B5
Explanation: Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) is a water soluble vitamin of B-complex class.
Question 392 of 687
Q.27 Cholesterol is one of the important factor in the synthesis of-
- Bile acids
- hormones
- vitamin D
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Cholesterol is important for the biosynthesis of Bile acids, hormones, and vitamin D.
Question 393 of 687
Q.28 The cyclic fatty acid, Chaulmoogric acid is used in the treatment of-
- T.B.
- ulcers
- Leprosy
- Goiter
Answer ✔ (c) Leprosy
Explanation: Chalmoogric is a tree in acanthaceae family, the oil from its seeds have been widely used for the treatment of leprosy (a disease caused by bacteria) in the Indian and chinese traditional medicines.
Question 394 of 687
Q.29 Cynocobalamine is the metabolic effect of-
- Bacillus pumulis
- Streptomyces griseus
- Bacillus subtilis
- Bacillus sterothermophilus
Answer ✔ (b) Streptomyces griseus
Explanation: Streptomyces griseus is a species of bacteria. It is gram positive bacterium and was the source of industrial production of vitamin B12.
Question 395 of 687
Q.30 Menke's disease is related to-
- deficiency of sulphur
- deficiency of zinc
- defect in transport of copper
- defect in transport of zinc
Answer ✔ (c) defect in transport of copper
Explanation: Mnkel's disease (MNK) is also called copper transport disease, steely hair disease, kinky hair disease, is a disorder that affects copper level in the body, leading to copper deficiency. It is an x-linked recessive disorder, and is therefore considerably more common in males.
Question 396 of 687
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Question 397 of 687
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Question 398 of 687
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Question 399 of 687
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Question 400 of 687
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Question 401 of 687
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Question 402 of 687
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 403 of 687
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Question 404 of 687
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Question 405 of 687
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Question 406 of 687
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Question 407 of 687
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Question 408 of 687
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 409 of 687
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Question 410 of 687
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Question 411 of 687
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Question 412 of 687
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Question 413 of 687
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Question 414 of 687
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Question 415 of 687
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Question 416 of 687
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Question 417 of 687
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
Question 418 of 687
Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Question 419 of 687
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Question 420 of 687
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Question 421 of 687
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Question 422 of 687
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Question 423 of 687
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Question 424 of 687
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Question 425 of 687
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Question 426 of 687
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Question 427 of 687
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Question 428 of 687
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Question 429 of 687
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Question 430 of 687
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Question 431 of 687
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Question 432 of 687
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 433 of 687
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Question 434 of 687
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Question 435 of 687
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Question 436 of 687
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Question 437 of 687
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Question 438 of 687
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 439 of 687
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Question 440 of 687
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Question 441 of 687
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Question 442 of 687
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Question 443 of 687
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Question 444 of 687
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Question 445 of 687
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Question 446 of 687
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Question 447 of 687
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
Question 448 of 687
Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Question 449 of 687
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Question 450 of 687
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Question 451 of 687
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Question 452 of 687
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Question 453 of 687
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Question 454 of 687
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Question 455 of 687
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Question 456 of 687
Q.1 Suganril is common brand name for:
- Phenylbutazone
- Piroxican
- Benorylate
- Indomethacin
Answer ✔ (b) Piroxican
Explanation: Piroxicam is used to relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid and osteoarthritis.
Question 457 of 687
Q.2 Which one of these is μ-opioid agonist?
- Pethidine
- Codeine
- Nalorphine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Pethidine
Explanation: Pethidine is a phenyl piperidine that is also a strong agonist of μ-opioid receptor.
Question 458 of 687
Q.3 Levodopa is amino acid precursor of -
- Adrenaline
- Dopamine
- Norepinephrine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: levo dopa is the amino acid precursor for dopamine and also for adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Question 459 of 687
Q.4 The most potent CNS stimulant among xanthine bases are-
- Theophylline
- Caffeine
- Theobromine
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Caffeine
Explanation: Caffeine is the most potent CNS stimulant.
Question 460 of 687
Q.5 Chlorpromazine is useful in the treatment of -
- Mental depression
- Schizophrenia
- Parkinsonism
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Schizophrenia
Explanation: Chlorpromazine (CPZ) is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional anti-adrenergic, anti-serotonergic, anti-cholinergic, and anti-histaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.
Question 461 of 687
Q.6 Amlodepine Lowers blood pressure by-
- Inhibition of calcium influx
- Inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
- Blocking norepinephrine reuptake
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of calcium influx
Explanation: Amlodepine is a long acting dihydropyridine type calcium channel blocker.
Question 462 of 687
Q.7 Cholestyramine is useful in the treatment of -
- Arrhythmia
- Hypertension
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 463 of 687
Q.8 Clofibrate mainly Lowers the -
- LDL
- VLDL
- HDL
- Chylomicrons
Answer ✔ (b) VLDL
Explanation: Clofibrate is used for controlling cholesterol and triglycerides levels. It changes VLDL to LDL.
Question 464 of 687
Q.9 Lovastatin is useful in -
- High blood pressure
- Arrhythmia
- Hyper lipoproteinemia
- Angina pectoris
Answer ✔ (c) Hyper lipoproteinemia
Explanation: Lovastatin is a naturally occurring Drug in food, which controls blood cholesterol level.
Question 465 of 687
Q.10 Oral anticoagulants act by antagonising the actions of -
- Calcium ion
- Prothrombin
- Vitamin K
- Fibrinogen
Answer ✔ (c) Vitamin K
Explanation: vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin and is required for post translational modification.
Question 466 of 687
Q.11 Glucocorticoid are used in the treatment of :
- Inflammation
- Inflammation and allergy
- Skin infections
- Allergy
Answer ✔ (b) Inflammation and allergy
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are the part of the feedback mechanism in the immune system that turns immune activity (inflammation).
Question 467 of 687
Q.12 The sulphonamides are :
- Bactericidal in nature
- Bacteriostatic in nature
- Bactericidal only at high dose
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Bacteriostatic in nature
Explanation: A Sulphonamide displaces bilirubin. It is competitive inhibitor of enzyme DHPS, cause inhibition of folate synthesis and cause bacteriostatic action.
Question 468 of 687
Q.13 Tetracycline act by -
- Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Interfering in cell wall synthesis
- Altering the permeability of cell membrane of organism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation: Tetracycline is a broad spectrum antibiotic which reduces the growth of bacteria by inhibiting the protein synthesis. it binds with the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes, to inhibit protein synthesis.
Question 469 of 687
Q.14 Nystatin is principally effective in:
- Candidia albicans
- Blastomyces
- Cryptococcus histoplasma
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Candidia albicans
Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal medication derived from streptomyces noursei.
Question 470 of 687
Q.15 Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimise the:
- Hepatotoxicity
- Neurotoxicity
- Nephrotoxicity
- Allergic reaction
Answer ✔ (c) Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: Pyridoxine is also called vitamin B6, assist in the balancing of sodium and potassium as well as promoting RBC.
Question 471 of 687
Q.16 Which one of these combination is used in Chloroquine resistance malaria?
- Trimethoprim + pyrimethamine
- Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
- Mefloquine + Primaquine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine
Explanation: Sulphadoxine + Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) is a combination antimalarial containing the sulphonamide antibiotic sulphadoxine and the anti-protozoal pyrimethamine.
Question 472 of 687
Q.17 Which one of the enzyme is used in the treatment of cancer?
- L- asparginase
- Phosphodiesterase
- Xanthine Oxidase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) L- asparginase
Explanation: L- asparginase catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagines to aspartic acid.
Question 473 of 687
Q.18 Eserine acts by -
- Receptor mechanism
- Acting on cell membrane
- Drug-enzyme interactions
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Drug-enzyme interactions
Explanation: Eserine is another term for physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid.
Question 474 of 687
Q.19 Desferrioxamine is a :
- Chelating agent
- Antimetabolite
- Enzyme inhibitor
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Chelating agent
Explanation: Desferrioxamine is a bacterial siderophore produced by the actinobateria, Streptomyces pilosos.
Question 475 of 687
Q.20 Sodium valproate prevent the epileptic seizure by -
- Depressing the CNS
- Preventing influx of sodium
- Preventing influx of calcium
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Preventing influx of sodium
Explanation: Sodium valproate used in epilepsy, Anorexia, and bipolar disorder.
Question 476 of 687
Q.21 Which one of these is used with hyoscine to induce Twilight sleep?
- Pentazocine
- Pethidine
- Diphenhydramine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pethidine
Explanation: Hyoscine is also known as levo-duboisine, tropane alkaloid.
Question 477 of 687
Q.22 Ergot preparations are useful in migraine due to its-
- Oxytocic action
- Vasoconstriction action
- α -receptors blocking action
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasoconstriction action
Question 478 of 687
Q.23 Which one of these is a major tranquilizer?
- Phenelzine
- Promethazine
- Trifluoperazine
- Hydroxyzine
Answer ✔ (c) Trifluoperazine
Explanation: trifluoperazine is a drug from phenothiazine chemical class is atypical antipsychotic drug.
Question 479 of 687
Q.24 Which one is a cholinomimetic agent?
- Atropine
- Salbutamol
- Tolbutamide
- Acetylcholine
Answer ✔ (d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine mimics the action of the cholinergic system.
Question 480 of 687
Q.25 Testosterone is not orally active because?
- React with acid
- Degradation
- Reduction
- Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Answer ✔ (d) Rapid oxidation of 17-hydroxy group to ketones
Explanation: Testosterone is an androgenic steroid hormone, responsible for male characteristics.
Question 481 of 687
Q.26 Which one of the following drug shows antiplatelet activity?
- Verapamil
- Nifedipine
- Warferin
- Dipyridamole
Answer ✔ (d) Dipyridamole
Explanation: Dipyridamole inhibits Thrombus formation.
Question 482 of 687
Q.27 Nociceptors are associated with:
- Chemical
- Pain
- Temperature
- Pressure
Answer ✔ (b) Pain
Explanation: A Nociceptor is a receptor of a sensory neuron (nerve cell) that responds to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the spinal cord and brain. This process called nociception usually causes the perception of pain.
Question 483 of 687
Q.28 Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?
- Chlorpheniramine
- Cimetidine
- Ranitidine
- Thioperamide
Answer ✔ (a) Chlorpheniramine
Explanation: Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation alkylamine and anti-histamine for H1.
Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 antagonists and inhibit stomach acid production.
Thioperamide is a selective H3 antagonist, and also capable of crossing the Blood-brain barrier.
Question 484 of 687
Q.29 Which one is the alkylating anticancer drug?
- Fluorouracil
- Vincristine
- Thiotepa
- Doxorubicin
Answer ✔ (c) Thiotepa
Explanation: Thiotepa is an organophosphorus compound, is an alkylating anticancer drug.
Question 485 of 687
Q.30 Which one is a HMGC A reductase inhibitor?
- Rhabdomylosis
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Rise in serum transaminase
Answer ✔ (a) Rhabdomylosis
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which damaged skeletal muscle tissue breaks down rapidly.
Question 486 of 687
Q.1 The term 'Pharmacognosy' was coined by-
- Pelletier
- Sertuener
- Stars and Otto
- Seydler
Answer ✔ (d) Seydler
Explanation: In 1811 seydler used the term in his work titled Analects Pharma Cognostica.
Question 487 of 687
Q.2 The source of Indian acacia is-
- Acacia arabica
- Gelidium amansii
- Astragalus gummifur
- Sterculia urens
Answer ✔ (a) Acacia arabica
Explanation: Acacia contains gallic acid, catechin, chlorogenic acid and gallolyated falvan-3,4-diole.
Question 488 of 687
Q.3 Ashwagandha is common name for-
- Wthania somniferum
- Holarrhena antidysentrica
- Bacopa moneira
- Centella asiatica
Answer ✔ (a) Wthania somniferum
Explanation: Withania somnifera, Indian ginseng is a plant in Solanaceae or nightshade family.
Question 489 of 687
Q.4 Quinine and quinidine is differ in-
- Chemical structure
- solubility
- In rotating the plane of polarized light
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) In rotating the plane of polarized light
Explanation: Quinine is levo isomer while quinidine is dextro isomer.
Question 490 of 687
Q.5 Cinchona belongs to family-
- Rutaceae
- Apocynaceae
- Rubiaceae
- Lauraceae
Answer ✔ (c) Rubiaceae
Explanation: Cinchona is a genus of about 38 species in the family Rubiaceae.
Question 491 of 687
Q.6 Which one of these is called a Indian tobacco?
- Lobelia
- Nicotina
- Cocca leaves
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Lobelia
Explanation: Lobelia is also called Indian Tobacco is used as herbal remedy for respiratory condition such as asthma, bronchitis.
Question 492 of 687
Q.7 Sarpagandha is related to-
- Rauwolfia
- Arjuna
- Nux-vomica
- Physostigma
Answer ✔ (a) Rauwolfia
Explanation: Rauwolfia serpentina, commonly known as Indian Snak root or sarpagandha, contain ajmaline, reserpine extra.
Question 493 of 687
Q.8 Deadly night shade plant is related to-
- Hyoscyamus niger
- Datura stramonium
- Belladonna
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Belladonna
Explanation: Atropa belladonna, commonly known as deadly night shade, is a perennial herbaceous plants in the family Solanaceae.
Question 494 of 687
Q.9 Which one of these reagent is used to indicate the presence of emetine?
- Picric acid
- Potassium chlorate
- potassium bismuth iodide
- Iodine in pottassium iodide solution
Answer ✔ (b) Potassium chlorate
Explanation: Emetine is shaken with water and small amount of HCL. To the filtrate pottasium chlorate is added. It goves a yellow colour changing to red.
Question 495 of 687
Q.10 Nux-vomica seed belongs to the family-
- Rubiaceae
- Loganiaceae
- Papaveraceae
- Apocynaceae
Answer ✔ (b) Loganiaceae
Explanation: Nux-vomica is also known as poison nut and quaker buttons.
Question 496 of 687
Q.11 Which one of these alkaloids is volatile in nature?
- Narcotine
- Papaverine
- Nicotine
- Thebaine
Answer ✔ (a) Narcotine
Explanation: Due to volatile nature of narcotine it is extracted out by steam distillation process.
Question 497 of 687
Q.12 Keller-Killiani test is specified for-
- Aglycon part of digitalis glycosides
- Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
- Both Glycon and Aglycon part
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
Explanation: Cardiac glycoside + CH3COOH + H2SO4 +FeCl3 → brown colour.
Question 498 of 687
Q.13 which one of these is adulterant of digitalis leaves?
- Verbasscum thapsus
- Digitalis lutea
- Digitalis thapsi
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Verbasscum thapsus
Explanation: The leaves of Verbascum thapsus belonging to the family Scrophulareae are usually mixed with digitalis leaves which may be identified and distinguised by the abundant presence of huge woody and branched candelabra trichomes. Pemula vulgaris is another adultrant.
Question 499 of 687
Q.14 Revand chini is common name for-
- Aloe
- Rhubarb
- Cascara
- Cinnamon
Answer ✔ (b) Rhubarb
Explanation: Revand Chini is the common name for Rhubarb (Rheum emodi) in Hindi language.
Question 500 of 687
Q.15 Amylum is synonym for-
- starch
- cellulose
- sodium alginate
- isaphgol mucilage
Answer ✔ (a) starch
Explanation: The word 'starch' means to stiffen. The 'amylum' is dried from greek greek word 'amylon' means not ground at a mill.
Question 501 of 687
Q.16 The marmelosin is constituent of-
- Agar
- Acacia gum
- Bael
- Karaya gum
Answer ✔ (c) Bael
Explanation: Bael contains shikimmianine, lupeol, cineol, marmelosin, etc.
Question 502 of 687
Q.17 Urginea maritimma is used as-
- Purgative
- Astringent
- Cardiotonic
- Anti-infective
Answer ✔ (c) Cardiotonic
Explanation: due to presence of Scillarene B, it is used as cardiotonic. It also has diuretic and expectorant actions.
Question 503 of 687
Q.18 Vasaka is used as-
- Expectorant
- sedative
- stimulant
- cardiac tonic
Answer ✔ (a) Expectorant
Explanation: vasaka shows bonchodilatory activity due to presence of alkaloids vasicine and vasicinone.
Question 504 of 687
Q.19 Camphor is obtained from which plant?
- Eucalyptus globulus
- Cinnammonnum camphora
- Chenopodium ambrosoids
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Cinnammonnum camphora
Explanation: Camphor is obtained from the wood of Camphor laurel (Cinnammonnum camphora).
Question 505 of 687
Q.20 Cymbopogon citratus belongs to the family-
- Graminae
- Lauraceae
- Myrtaceae
- Rubiaceae
Answer ✔ (a) Graminae
Explanation: Cymbopogon citratus, commony known as lemon grass, is tropical plants from southeast Asia. It belongs to the family Graminae or poaceae.
Question 506 of 687
Q.21 Terpentine oil contains mainly-
- citral
- α-pinene
- Limonene
- Phellandrene
Answer ✔ (b) α-pinene
Explanation: Terpentine oil contains mainly terpenes, alpha-pinene and beta-pinene with lesser amounts of camphene dipentene and terpinolene.
Question 507 of 687
Q.22 Peppermint oil is synonym for-
- Mentha oil
- Chenopodium oil
- Cardamom oil
- Lemon oil
Answer ✔ (a) Mentha oil
Explanation: Mentha oil obtained by steam distillation of mentha arensis leaves.
Question 508 of 687
Q.23 Which part of the Dill fruit contains oil?
- Entire fruit
- Endosperm
- Vittae
- Mericarp
Answer ✔ (c) Vittae
Explanation: Dill fruits are oval compressed, winged about one tenth wide, with three longitudinal ridges on the bark and three dark lines or oil cells (vittae) between them and two on the flat surface.
Question 509 of 687
Q.24 Pale and black catechu are differentiated on the basis of presence/ absence of-
- Catechin
- Quercetin
- Gambier fluorecin
- Gums
Answer ✔ (c) Gambier fluorecin
Explanation: Alcoholic extract of the drug when treated with NaOH and light petrolium ether, Pale catechu shows green fluorescence due to the presence of Gambier fluorecin.
Question 510 of 687
Q.25 Triterpenoid saponins are present in-
- Arjuna Bark
- Black catechu
- Bahera
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Arjuna Bark
Explanation: The terpenoidal saponins are arjunic acid, arjunolic acid, and arjugenins.
Question 511 of 687
Q.26 Pungency of chilies is due to the presence of?
- Capsaicin
- Capsanthin
- Carotene
- Pungent protein
Answer ✔ (a) Capsaicin
Explanation: pungency is due to the group of coumpounds named capsicinoids.
Question 512 of 687
Q.27 Turmeric possess saffron colour due to presence of-
- Curcumin
- Turmerone
- Curcumens
- Phellandrene
Answer ✔ (a) Curcumin
Explanation: Turmeric contains group of compounds called curcuminoids, which includes curcumin (diferucoylmehane), dimethoxycurcumin, and bisdimethoxycurcumin. Curcumin impart saffron colour to it.
Question 513 of 687
Q.28 Free cinnamic acid is present in-
- Colophony
- Storax
- Asafoetida
- Balsam of tolu
Answer ✔ (d) Balsam of tolu
Explanation: The balsam contains a fairly large amount of benzyl and cinnamylester of benzoic acid and cinnamic acid.
Question 514 of 687
Q.29 Bees wax mainly contains-
- Palmitin
- Myricin
- Stearin
- Cerotic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Myricin
Explanation: Myricin is present in beeswax.
Question 515 of 687
Q.30 Silk fibres obtained from-
- seeds of goissypium
- Cacoons of Bombyx mori
- Synthetic source
- Corchorus cupsularin
Answer ✔ (b) Cacoons of Bombyx mori
Explanation: Silk is natural protein fiber, some forms of which can be wooven into textiles. The best known type of silk is obtained from cocoons of larvae of the mulberry silkworm, Bombyx mori.
Question 516 of 687
Q.1 The term 'Pharmacognosy' was coined by-
- Pelletier
- Sertuener
- Stars and Otto
- Seydler
Answer ✔ (d) Seydler
Explanation: In 1811 seydler used the term in his work titled Analects Pharma Cognostica.
Question 517 of 687
Q.2 The source of Indian acacia is-
- Acacia arabica
- Gelidium amansii
- Astragalus gummifur
- Sterculia urens
Answer ✔ (a) Acacia arabica
Explanation: Acacia contains gallic acid, catechin, chlorogenic acid and gallolyated falvan-3,4-diole.
Question 518 of 687
Q.3 Ashwagandha is common name for-
- Wthania somniferum
- Holarrhena antidysentrica
- Bacopa moneira
- Centella asiatica
Answer ✔ (a) Wthania somniferum
Explanation: Withania somnifera, Indian ginseng is a plant in Solanaceae or nightshade family.
Question 519 of 687
Q.4 Quinine and quinidine is differ in-
- Chemical structure
- solubility
- In rotating the plane of polarized light
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) In rotating the plane of polarized light
Explanation: Quinine is levo isomer while quinidine is dextro isomer.
Question 520 of 687
Q.5 Cinchona belongs to family-
- Rutaceae
- Apocynaceae
- Rubiaceae
- Lauraceae
Answer ✔ (c) Rubiaceae
Explanation: Cinchona is a genus of about 38 species in the family Rubiaceae.
Question 521 of 687
Q.6 Which one of these is called a Indian tobacco?
- Lobelia
- Nicotina
- Cocca leaves
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Lobelia
Explanation: Lobelia is also called Indian Tobacco is used as herbal remedy for respiratory condition such as asthma, bronchitis.
Question 522 of 687
Q.7 Sarpagandha is related to-
- Rauwolfia
- Arjuna
- Nux-vomica
- Physostigma
Answer ✔ (a) Rauwolfia
Explanation: Rauwolfia serpentina, commonly known as Indian Snak root or sarpagandha, contain ajmaline, reserpine extra.
Question 523 of 687
Q.8 Deadly night shade plant is related to-
- Hyoscyamus niger
- Datura stramonium
- Belladonna
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Belladonna
Explanation: Atropa belladonna, commonly known as deadly night shade, is a perennial herbaceous plants in the family Solanaceae.
Question 524 of 687
Q.9 Which one of these reagent is used to indicate the presence of emetine?
- Picric acid
- Potassium chlorate
- potassium bismuth iodide
- Iodine in pottassium iodide solution
Answer ✔ (b) Potassium chlorate
Explanation: Emetine is shaken with water and small amount of HCL. To the filtrate pottasium chlorate is added. It goves a yellow colour changing to red.
Question 525 of 687
Q.10 Nux-vomica seed belongs to the family-
- Rubiaceae
- Loganiaceae
- Papaveraceae
- Apocynaceae
Answer ✔ (b) Loganiaceae
Explanation: Nux-vomica is also known as poison nut and quaker buttons.
Question 526 of 687
Q.11 Which one of these alkaloids is volatile in nature?
- Narcotine
- Papaverine
- Nicotine
- Thebaine
Answer ✔ (a) Narcotine
Explanation: Due to volatile nature of narcotine it is extracted out by steam distillation process.
Question 527 of 687
Q.12 Keller-Killiani test is specified for-
- Aglycon part of digitalis glycosides
- Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
- Both Glycon and Aglycon part
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Glycon part of Digitalis glycosides
Explanation: Cardiac glycoside + CH3COOH + H2SO4 +FeCl3 → brown colour.
Question 528 of 687
Q.13 which one of these is adulterant of digitalis leaves?
- Verbasscum thapsus
- Digitalis lutea
- Digitalis thapsi
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Verbasscum thapsus
Explanation: The leaves of Verbascum thapsus belonging to the family Scrophulareae are usually mixed with digitalis leaves which may be identified and distinguised by the abundant presence of huge woody and branched candelabra trichomes. Pemula vulgaris is another adultrant.
Question 529 of 687
Q.14 Revand chini is common name for-
- Aloe
- Rhubarb
- Cascara
- Cinnamon
Answer ✔ (b) Rhubarb
Explanation: Revand Chini is the common name for Rhubarb (Rheum emodi) in Hindi language.
Question 530 of 687
Q.15 Amylum is synonym for-
- starch
- cellulose
- sodium alginate
- isaphgol mucilage
Answer ✔ (a) starch
Explanation: The word 'starch' means to stiffen. The 'amylum' is dried from greek greek word 'amylon' means not ground at a mill.
Question 531 of 687
Q.16 The marmelosin is constituent of-
- Agar
- Acacia gum
- Bael
- Karaya gum
Answer ✔ (c) Bael
Explanation: Bael contains shikimmianine, lupeol, cineol, marmelosin, etc.
Question 532 of 687
Q.17 Urginea maritimma is used as-
- Purgative
- Astringent
- Cardiotonic
- Anti-infective
Answer ✔ (c) Cardiotonic
Explanation: due to presence of Scillarene B, it is used as cardiotonic. It also has diuretic and expectorant actions.
Question 533 of 687
Q.18 Vasaka is used as-
- Expectorant
- sedative
- stimulant
- cardiac tonic
Answer ✔ (a) Expectorant
Explanation: vasaka shows bonchodilatory activity due to presence of alkaloids vasicine and vasicinone.
Question 534 of 687
Q.19 Camphor is obtained from which plant?
- Eucalyptus globulus
- Cinnammonnum camphora
- Chenopodium ambrosoids
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Cinnammonnum camphora
Explanation: Camphor is obtained from the wood of Camphor laurel (Cinnammonnum camphora).
Question 535 of 687
Q.20 Cymbopogon citratus belongs to the family-
- Graminae
- Lauraceae
- Myrtaceae
- Rubiaceae
Answer ✔ (a) Graminae
Explanation: Cymbopogon citratus, commony known as lemon grass, is tropical plants from southeast Asia. It belongs to the family Graminae or poaceae.
Question 536 of 687
Q.21 Terpentine oil contains mainly-
- citral
- α-pinene
- Limonene
- Phellandrene
Answer ✔ (b) α-pinene
Explanation: Terpentine oil contains mainly terpenes, alpha-pinene and beta-pinene with lesser amounts of camphene dipentene and terpinolene.
Question 537 of 687
Q.22 Peppermint oil is synonym for-
- Mentha oil
- Chenopodium oil
- Cardamom oil
- Lemon oil
Answer ✔ (a) Mentha oil
Explanation: Mentha oil obtained by steam distillation of mentha arensis leaves.
Question 538 of 687
Q.23 Which part of the Dill fruit contains oil?
- Entire fruit
- Endosperm
- Vittae
- Mericarp
Answer ✔ (c) Vittae
Explanation: Dill fruits are oval compressed, winged about one tenth wide, with three longitudinal ridges on the bark and three dark lines or oil cells (vittae) between them and two on the flat surface.
Question 539 of 687
Q.24 Pale and black catechu are differentiated on the basis of presence/ absence of-
- Catechin
- Quercetin
- Gambier fluorecin
- Gums
Answer ✔ (c) Gambier fluorecin
Explanation: Alcoholic extract of the drug when treated with NaOH and light petrolium ether, Pale catechu shows green fluorescence due to the presence of Gambier fluorecin.
Question 540 of 687
Q.25 Triterpenoid saponins are present in-
- Arjuna Bark
- Black catechu
- Bahera
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Arjuna Bark
Explanation: The terpenoidal saponins are arjunic acid, arjunolic acid, and arjugenins.
Question 541 of 687
Q.26 Pungency of chilies is due to the presence of?
- Capsaicin
- Capsanthin
- Carotene
- Pungent protein
Answer ✔ (a) Capsaicin
Explanation: pungency is due to the group of coumpounds named capsicinoids.
Question 542 of 687
Q.27 Turmeric possess saffron colour due to presence of-
- Curcumin
- Turmerone
- Curcumens
- Phellandrene
Answer ✔ (a) Curcumin
Explanation: Turmeric contains group of compounds called curcuminoids, which includes curcumin (diferucoylmehane), dimethoxycurcumin, and bisdimethoxycurcumin. Curcumin impart saffron colour to it.
Question 543 of 687
Q.28 Free cinnamic acid is present in-
- Colophony
- Storax
- Asafoetida
- Balsam of tolu
Answer ✔ (d) Balsam of tolu
Explanation: The balsam contains a fairly large amount of benzyl and cinnamylester of benzoic acid and cinnamic acid.
Question 544 of 687
Q.29 Bees wax mainly contains-
- Palmitin
- Myricin
- Stearin
- Cerotic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Myricin
Explanation: Myricin is present in beeswax.
Question 545 of 687
Q.30 Silk fibres obtained from-
- seeds of goissypium
- Cacoons of Bombyx mori
- Synthetic source
- Corchorus cupsularin
Answer ✔ (b) Cacoons of Bombyx mori
Explanation: Silk is natural protein fiber, some forms of which can be wooven into textiles. The best known type of silk is obtained from cocoons of larvae of the mulberry silkworm, Bombyx mori.
Question 546 of 687
Q.1 'Jungli pyaz' is synonym for
- Strophanthus
- Indian squil
- Garlic
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Indian squil
Question 547 of 687
Q.2 Shatavary is common name for
- Asparagus racemosus
- Catelli asiatica
- Bacopa moniera
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Asparagus racemosus
Question 548 of 687
Q.3 Ginseng is commonly used for
- Cardiac tonic
- Aphrodisiac
- Purgative
- Demulcent
Answer ✔ (b) Aphrodisiac
Explanation: Ginseng root is used as anaphrodiasiac stimulant,type II diabetes or cure for sexual disfunction in man.
Question 549 of 687
Q.4 Ephedra is used as :
- Astringent
- Bronchodilator
- Hypotensive
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Bronchodilator
Explanation: Ephedra is used for Hey fever, nasal congestion, and respiratory tract conditions such as bronchospasm, asthma and bronchitis.
Question 550 of 687
Q.5 Which one of these is immunomodulatory drug?
- Amla
- Brahmi
- Ashwagandha
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Ashwagandha
Explanation: In Indian Ayurveda System of medicine, Ashwagandha is common drug as Rasayana (tonic).
Question 551 of 687
Q.6 Which one of these terpenoids is solid in nature?
- Camphor
- α-pinene
- Citral
- Ascaridol
Answer ✔ (a) Camphor
Explanation: Camphor is waxy, flammable, white or transparent solid with strong aromatic odour.
Question 552 of 687
Q.7 Caraway Oil contains :
- Phellandrene
- Pinene
- Carvone
- Cineole
Answer ✔ (c) Carvone
Explanation: Caraway oil is used as Anti-histaminic, galactogogue, antiseptic, cardiac, anti spasmodic etc.
Question 553 of 687
Q.8 Which one of these is a drying oil?
- Linseed Oil
- Castor Oil
- Coconut Oil
- Seasome Oli
Answer ✔ (a) Linseed Oil
Explanation: Linseed Oil contains multiple double bond which gives its drying charactereristics.
Question 554 of 687
Q.9 Which one of these oils contain cynogenetic glycoside?
- Ground nut oil
- Seasome oil
- Linseed oil
- Olive oil
Answer ✔ (c) Linseed oil
Explanation: Linamarine found in Linum species, is a cynogenetic glycoside .
Question 555 of 687
Q.10 Which one of these possess cytotoxic action?
- Circuma longa
- Ipomoea hederacea
- Podophyllum emodi
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Podophyllum emodi
Explanation: Podophyllum is highly poisonous, used in treatment of cancer
Question 556 of 687
Q.1 Pharmacokinetic deals with the study of:
- Rate of metabolism of drug
- Rate of distribution of drug
- Rate of drug action
- Rate of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug
Answer ✔ (d) Rate of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug
Explanation: Pharmacokinetics is the study of the fate of substances administered externally i.e.,ADME
Question 557 of 687
Q.2 Idiosyncratic reaction is related to:
- Clinical pharmacology
- Pharmacogenetics
- Toxicity
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Pharmacogenetics
Explanation: Idiosyncratic reactions occur unpredictably among the population. Examples of drugs showing idiosyncratic reaction include troglitazone, valproate, amiodarone, ketoconazole, disulfiram, and isoniazid
Question 558 of 687
Q.3 Thalidomide, effective in insomnia was discarded due to its :
- Side effect
- Resistance
- Idiosyncratic reaction
- Teratogenic effect
Answer ✔ (d) Teratogenic effect
Explanation: Thalidomide causes malformation of the limb in newborns, called Phocomelia.
Question 559 of 687
Q.4 Oily injection is preferably given by :
- Subcutaneous route
- Intramuscular
- Intravenous
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Intramuscular
Explanation: Oily injections are given in an small volume upto 3ml. Intramuscular route might be applied to the buttock, thigh and deltoid.
Question 560 of 687
Q.5 The main use of eserine is in :
- Urinary retention
- Myasthenia gravis
- Glaucoma
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) Glaucoma
Explanation: Serine is also known as 'Physostigmine'. It is naturally occurring alkaloid. Physostigmine increases the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
Question 561 of 687
Q.6 Which one of these is non barbiturate, used for paediatric anaesthesia?
- Nikethamide
- Morphine
- Ketamine
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Ketamine
Explanation: Ketamine is a phencyclidine derivative is used as an ideal emergency drug for pediatric anaesthesia and as a pain killer in intensive care.
Question 562 of 687
Q.7 Fortwin is a common brand name for :
- Methadone
- Pentazocine
- Fentanyl
- Dextropropoxyphene
Answer ✔ (b) Pentazocine
Explanation: Pentazocine is a prototypical mixed agonist-antagonist narcotic.
Question 563 of 687
Q.8 Salicylate decreases the synthesis of one of the following
- Bradykinin
- Histamine
- Prostaglandin
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Prostaglandin
Explanation: Postaglandins are the group of compounds derived enzymatically from fatty acids.
Question 564 of 687
Q.9 In, Alcoholism, which one of these drug is used?
- Disulfiram
- Methanol
- Barbituric acid
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Disulfiram
Explanation: Disulfiram blocks the processing of alcohol in the body by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
Question 565 of 687
Q.10 First line drug for tuberculosis unclude :
- Isoniazid + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
- Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
- Isoniazid + Refampin + ethambutol + para amino salicylic acid
- Isoniazid + Cycloserine + ethambutol + pyrazinamide
Answer ✔ (b) Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
Explanation: TB can be treated effectively by using first line drugs (FLD) isoniazid (INH), rifampin (RIF), pyrazinamide (PZA), ethambutol (EMB) and streptomycin (SM)
Question 566 of 687
Q.1 'Jangali Pyaz' is synonym for
- Strophanthus
- Indian squil
- Garlic
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Indian squil
Explanation: In Hindi language 'indian squill' is known as 'jungali pyaz'
Question 567 of 687
Q.2 Nutmeg belongs to the family-
- Myristicaceae
- Myrtaceae
- Lauraceae
- Caryophyllaceae
Answer ✔ (a) Myristicaceae
Explanation: The nutmeg tree is species of the genus Myristica and family myristicaceae.
Question 568 of 687
Q.3 Anise fruit is obtained from-
- piper cubeba
- Pimpenella anisum
- Apium graveolens
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Pimpenella anisum
Explanation: Pimpinella anisum, also called aniseed is a flowering plant in the family Apiaceae.
Question 569 of 687
Q.4 Fennel contains sweet principle called-
- fenchone
- anethole
- limonene
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) anethole
Explanation: The essential oil in fennel is constituted mainly anethole (80%) and about fenchone ( 7.5% ).
Question 570 of 687
Q.5 'Mother cloves' is a term given to-
- Ripened fruit
- Allied fruit
- Clove stalk
- Flowers of clove tree
Answer ✔ (a) Ripened fruit
Explanation: Mother cloves (anthophyllie) are the ripe fruits of cloves that are ovoid, brown berries, unicellular, and one-seeded.
Question 571 of 687
Q.1 WHAT IS FALSE NEUROTRANSMITTER
- DOPAMINE
- NOR EPINEPHRINE
- METHYL DOPA
- SEROTONIN
Answer ✔ (c) METHYL DOPA
Question 572 of 687
Q.2 WEIGHT LOSS IS MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF WHICH ANTIDIABETIC DRUG?
- PIOGLITAZONE
- METFORMIN
- GLIPIZIDE
- GLIMEPRIDE
Answer ✔ (b) METFORMIN
Question 573 of 687
Q.3 DRUG USED IN INDUCE LABOUR
- OXYTOCIN
- VASOPRESSIN
- NIFEDIPINE
- SALBUTAMOL
Answer ✔ (a) OXYTOCIN
Question 574 of 687
Q.4 MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF CHLORPROMAZINE?
- PALPITATION
- DRYNESS OF MOUTH
- PARKINSONISM
- DIABETES
Answer ✔ (c) PARKINSONISM
Question 575 of 687
Q.5 DRUG USED IN ANAPHYLATIC SHOCK?
- EPINEPHRINE
- ADRENALINE
- BOTH A AND B
- ATROPINE
Answer ✔ (c) BOTH A AND B
Question 576 of 687
Q.1 WHAT IS FALSE NEUROTRANSMITTER
- DOPAMINE
- NOR EPINEPHRINE
- METHYL DOPA
- SEROTONIN
Answer ✔ (c) METHYL DOPA
Question 577 of 687
Q.2 WEIGHT LOSS IS MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF WHICH ANTIDIABETIC DRUG?
- PIOGLITAZONE
- METFORMIN
- GLIPIZIDE
- GLIMEPRIDE
Answer ✔ (b) METFORMIN
Question 578 of 687
Q.3 DRUG USED IN INDUCE LABOUR
- OXYTOCIN
- VASOPRESSIN
- NIFEDIPINE
- SALBUTAMOL
Answer ✔ (a) OXYTOCIN
Question 579 of 687
Q.4 MAJOR SIDE EFFECT OF CHLORPROMAZINE?
- PALPITATION
- DRYNESS OF MOUTH
- PARKINSONISM
- DIABETES
Answer ✔ (c) PARKINSONISM
Question 580 of 687
Q.5 DRUG USED IN ANAPHYLATIC SHOCK?
- EPINEPHRINE
- ADRENALINE
- BOTH A AND B
- ATROPINE
Answer ✔ (c) BOTH A AND B
Question 581 of 687
Q.1 Ginseng is commonly used for -
- Cardiac tonic
- Aphrodiasiac
- Purgative
- Demulcent
Answer ✔ (b) Aphrodiasiac
Explanation: Ginseng roots is used as an aphrodisiac, stimulant, type II diabetes and cure for erectile dysfunction in man. Ginseng contains a series of tetracyclic triterpenoid saponins (ginsenosides) as active ingredients. It is considered a tonic or adaptogenic that enhances physical performance (including sexual), promotes vitality and increases resistance to stress and ageing.
Question 582 of 687
Q.1 Shatavary Is Common Name For
- Asparagus racemosus
- Catelli asiatica
- Bacopa moniera
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Asparagus racemosus
Explanation: Asparagus recemosus (satavar, shatavary, or shatamull ) is species of asparagus commonly found in Srilanka, India and Himalayas.
Question 583 of 687
Q.1 Lipase Enzyme Is Used For Estimation Of:
- Urea
- Cholesterol
- Uric acid
- Triacylglycerol
Answer ✔ (d) Triacylglycerol
Question 584 of 687
Q.2 Which Of These Is Not A Mental Disease?
- Psychoses
- Neuroses
- Schizophrenia
- Arrhythmia
Answer ✔ (d) Arrhythmia
Explanation: Arrhythmia is a regular increase in heart beat, involving upper or lower chamber of heart.
Question 585 of 687
Q.1 When businesses organisations owned and controlled by a single person it is…
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership firms
- Co operative society
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 586 of 687
Q.2 .. . Encourage self-employment.
- Sole proprietorship
- Co operative society
- Partnership firms
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 587 of 687
Q.3 The highest secrecy can be maintained in
- Sole proprietorship
- Co operative society
- Partnership firms
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 588 of 687
Q.4 Limited scope of expansion is the disadvantage of…
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership firms
- Co operative society
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Sole proprietorship
Question 589 of 687
Q.5 The oldest form of business organisation is….
- Partnership
- Joint hindu family
- Sole Proprietorship
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Partnership
Question 590 of 687
Q.6 In which of the following forms of business organization, registration is compulsory…
- Partnership firm
- Sole proprietorship
- Joint-stock company
- All of them
Answer ✔ (b) Sole proprietorship
Question 591 of 687
Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …
- Elixirs
- Vehicles
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Vehicles
Question 592 of 687
Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…
- Syrups
- Spirits
- Injections
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Spirits
Question 593 of 687
Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….
- Syrups
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
- Tinctures
Answer ✔ (d) Tinctures
Explanation: A tincture is typically an extract of plant or animal material dissolved in ethanol. Solvent concentrations of 25–60% are common, but may run as high as 90%. In chemistry, a tincture is a solution that has ethanol as its solvent
Question 594 of 687
Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …
- Gels
- Liniments
- Poultice
- Pessaries
Answer ✔ (d) Pessaries
Explanation: A pessary is a prosthetic device inserted into the vagina for structural and pharmaceutical purposes. It is most commonly used to treat stress urinary incontinence to stop urinary leakage, and pelvic organ prolapse to maintain the location of organs in the pelvic region
Question 595 of 687
Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..
- Pharmacopoeia
- Prescribed books
- Prescription
- Reference book
Answer ✔ (a) Pharmacopoeia
Explanation: A pharmacopoeia, pharmacopeia, or pharmacopoea, in its modern technical sense, is a book containing directions for the identification of compound medicines, and published by the authority of a government or a medical or pharmaceutical society. Descriptions of preparations are called monographs.
Question 596 of 687
Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: A parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebiasis infection is most common in tropical areas with untreated water. It spreads through drinking or eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been washed in contaminated local water.
Question 597 of 687
Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Helminthiasis, also known as worm infection, is any macroparasitic disease of humans and other animals in which a part of the body is infected with parasitic worms, known as helminths. There are numerous species of these parasites, which are broadly classified into tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms.
Question 598 of 687
Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…
- Local anaesthetic
- Analgesics
- Anthelmintics
- Antiemetics
Answer ✔ (c) Anthelmintics
Explanation: Anthelmintics or antihelminthics are a group of antiparasitic drugs that expel parasitic worms and other internal parasites from the body by either stunning or killing them and without causing significant damage to the host. They may also be called vermifuges or vermicides
Question 599 of 687
Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…
- Local anaesthetic
- Antiemetics
- General anaesthetic
- Analgesics
Answer ✔ (a) Local anaesthetic
Explanation: A local anesthetic is a medication that causes absence of pain sensation. In the context of surgery, a local anesthetic creates an absence of pain in a specific location of the body without a loss of consciousness, as opposed to a general anesthetic
Question 600 of 687
Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .
- Purgatives
- Antiemetics
- Tranquilizers
- Adsobent
Answer ✔ (a) Purgatives
Explanation: Laxatives, purgatives, or aperients are substances that loosen stools and increase bowel movements. They are used to treat and prevent constipation. Laxatives vary as to how they work and the side effects they may have
Question 601 of 687
Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …
- Elixirs
- Vehicles
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Vehicles
Question 602 of 687
Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…
- Syrups
- Spirits
- Injections
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Spirits
Question 603 of 687
Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….
- Syrups
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
- Tinctures
Answer ✔ (d) Tinctures
Explanation: A tincture is typically an extract of plant or animal material dissolved in ethanol. Solvent concentrations of 25–60% are common, but may run as high as 90%. In chemistry, a tincture is a solution that has ethanol as its solvent
Question 604 of 687
Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …
- Gels
- Liniments
- Poultice
- Pessaries
Answer ✔ (d) Pessaries
Explanation: A pessary is a prosthetic device inserted into the vagina for structural and pharmaceutical purposes. It is most commonly used to treat stress urinary incontinence to stop urinary leakage, and pelvic organ prolapse to maintain the location of organs in the pelvic region
Question 605 of 687
Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..
- Pharmacopoeia
- Prescribed books
- Prescription
- Reference book
Answer ✔ (a) Pharmacopoeia
Explanation: A pharmacopoeia, pharmacopeia, or pharmacopoea, in its modern technical sense, is a book containing directions for the identification of compound medicines, and published by the authority of a government or a medical or pharmaceutical society. Descriptions of preparations are called monographs.
Question 606 of 687
Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: A parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebiasis infection is most common in tropical areas with untreated water. It spreads through drinking or eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been washed in contaminated local water.
Question 607 of 687
Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Helminthiasis, also known as worm infection, is any macroparasitic disease of humans and other animals in which a part of the body is infected with parasitic worms, known as helminths. There are numerous species of these parasites, which are broadly classified into tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms.
Question 608 of 687
Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…
- Local anaesthetic
- Analgesics
- Anthelmintics
- Antiemetics
Answer ✔ (c) Anthelmintics
Explanation: Anthelmintics or antihelminthics are a group of antiparasitic drugs that expel parasitic worms and other internal parasites from the body by either stunning or killing them and without causing significant damage to the host. They may also be called vermifuges or vermicides
Question 609 of 687
Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…
- Local anaesthetic
- Antiemetics
- General anaesthetic
- Analgesics
Answer ✔ (a) Local anaesthetic
Explanation: A local anesthetic is a medication that causes absence of pain sensation. In the context of surgery, a local anesthetic creates an absence of pain in a specific location of the body without a loss of consciousness, as opposed to a general anesthetic
Question 610 of 687
Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .
- Purgatives
- Antiemetics
- Tranquilizers
- Adsobent
Answer ✔ (a) Purgatives
Explanation: Laxatives, purgatives, or aperients are substances that loosen stools and increase bowel movements. They are used to treat and prevent constipation. Laxatives vary as to how they work and the side effects they may have
Question 611 of 687
Q.1 Substances in which medicament is either dissolved or suspended are… …
- Elixirs
- Vehicles
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Vehicles
Question 612 of 687
Q.2 Alcoholic solutions of volatile substances or medicaments are…
- Syrups
- Spirits
- Injections
- Mixtures
Answer ✔ (b) Spirits
Question 613 of 687
Q.3 Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations of vegetable drugs are….
- Syrups
- Emulsions
- Mixtures
- Tinctures
Answer ✔ (d) Tinctures
Explanation: A tincture is typically an extract of plant or animal material dissolved in ethanol. Solvent concentrations of 25–60% are common, but may run as high as 90%. In chemistry, a tincture is a solution that has ethanol as its solvent
Question 614 of 687
Q.4 Vaginal suppositories are also known as …
- Gels
- Liniments
- Poultice
- Pessaries
Answer ✔ (d) Pessaries
Explanation: A pessary is a prosthetic device inserted into the vagina for structural and pharmaceutical purposes. It is most commonly used to treat stress urinary incontinence to stop urinary leakage, and pelvic organ prolapse to maintain the location of organs in the pelvic region
Question 615 of 687
Q.5 A book published by the government called as official books to prescribe the standards of purity and potency of the drugs is called… ..
- Pharmacopoeia
- Prescribed books
- Prescription
- Reference book
Answer ✔ (a) Pharmacopoeia
Explanation: A pharmacopoeia, pharmacopeia, or pharmacopoea, in its modern technical sense, is a book containing directions for the identification of compound medicines, and published by the authority of a government or a medical or pharmaceutical society. Descriptions of preparations are called monographs.
Question 616 of 687
Q.6 Protozoal infection is also known as… . .
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: A parasitic infection of the colon with the amoeba Entamoeba histolytica. Amoebiasis infection is most common in tropical areas with untreated water. It spreads through drinking or eating uncooked food, such as fruit, that may have been washed in contaminated local water.
Question 617 of 687
Q.7 Worm infestation is also called ....
- Amoebiasis
- Helminthiasis
- Antiemetics
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Amoebiasis
Explanation: Helminthiasis, also known as worm infection, is any macroparasitic disease of humans and other animals in which a part of the body is infected with parasitic worms, known as helminths. There are numerous species of these parasites, which are broadly classified into tapeworms, flukes, and roundworms.
Question 618 of 687
Q.8 Drugs used in treatment of worm infestation are called…
- Local anaesthetic
- Analgesics
- Anthelmintics
- Antiemetics
Answer ✔ (c) Anthelmintics
Explanation: Anthelmintics or antihelminthics are a group of antiparasitic drugs that expel parasitic worms and other internal parasites from the body by either stunning or killing them and without causing significant damage to the host. They may also be called vermifuges or vermicides
Question 619 of 687
Q.9 Substances which anesthetize the restricted area without making subject unconscious…
- Local anaesthetic
- Antiemetics
- General anaesthetic
- Analgesics
Answer ✔ (a) Local anaesthetic
Explanation: A local anesthetic is a medication that causes absence of pain sensation. In the context of surgery, a local anesthetic creates an absence of pain in a specific location of the body without a loss of consciousness, as opposed to a general anesthetic
Question 620 of 687
Q.10 Drugs that cause evacuation of bowels or defecation are… . .
- Purgatives
- Antiemetics
- Tranquilizers
- Adsobent
Answer ✔ (a) Purgatives
Explanation: Laxatives, purgatives, or aperients are substances that loosen stools and increase bowel movements. They are used to treat and prevent constipation. Laxatives vary as to how they work and the side effects they may have
Question 621 of 687
Q.1 An institution of community health is…
- Hospital
- Industries
- Educational institutions
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Hospital
Question 622 of 687
Q.2 Functions of modern hospitals include…
- Doctors & nurses receive training
- Lowers the incidence of disease
- Raises the quality of care & standards of medical practice
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
Question 623 of 687
Q.3 DGHS stands for…. . .
- Director General of health services
- Director General of habitual services
- Director General of health society
- Decorum General of health services
Answer ✔ (a) Director General of health services
Explanation: The Directorate General of Health Services (Dte.GHS) is a repository of technical knowledge concerning Public Health, Medical Education and Health Care. It is an attached organisation of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. The Dte.GHS is headed by Director General of Health Services (DGHS), an officer of Central Health Services, who renders technical advice on all medical and public health matters to Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Question 624 of 687
Q.4 At the central government level, the health delivery system in the Constitution of India is…
- Union ministry of health & family welfare
- Ministry of health
- DGHS
- Health ministry welfare
Answer ✔ (a) Union ministry of health & family welfare
Explanation: The Minister of Health and Family Welfare holds cabinet rank as a member of the Council of Ministers
Question 625 of 687
Q.5 DHO stands for …
- District health officer
- District hazard officer
- District medical offence
- District medical officer
Answer ✔ (a) District health officer
Question 626 of 687
Q.6 The consumption of a drug apart from medical needs or in unnecessary quantities is…
- Drug misuse
- Drug habituation
- Drug abuse
- Drug addiction
Answer ✔ (c) Drug abuse
Explanation: Excessive use of psychoactive drugs, such as alcohol, pain medications or illegal drugs. It can lead to physical, social or emotional harm.
Question 627 of 687
Q.7 The use of drugs for purposes for which they are unsuited even their appropriate use but in improper dosage is … .
- Drug misuse
- Drug abuse
- Drug addiction
- Drug habituation
Answer ✔ (a) Drug misuse
Question 628 of 687
Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:
- Is more painful
- Produces faster response
- Is unsuitable for depot preparations
- Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Answer ✔ (b) Produces faster response
Question 629 of 687
Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by
- Passive diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Pinocytosis
Answer ✔ (a) Passive diffusion
Question 630 of 687
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach
- Hyoscine hydrobromide
- Morphine sulfate
- Diclofenac sodium
- Quinine dihydrochloride
Answer ✔ (c) Diclofenac sodium
Question 631 of 687
Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
- Nature of the base used in the formulation
- Lipid solubility of the drug
- Molecular weight of the drug
- Site of application
Answer ✔ (b) Lipid solubility of the drug
Question 632 of 687
Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
- Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
- Is incompletely absorbed
- Is freely water soluble
- Is completely absorbed
Answer ✔ (b) Is incompletely absorbed
Question 633 of 687
Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of
- Highly plasma protein bound drugs
- Depot preparations
- Highly lipid soluble drugs
- Poorly lipid soluble drugs
Answer ✔ (c) Highly lipid soluble drugs
Question 634 of 687
Q.7 High plasma protein binding
- Increases volume of distribution of the drug
- Generally makes the drug long acting
- Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
- Minimises drug interactions
Answer ✔ (b) Generally makes the drug long acting
Question 635 of 687
Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug
- Enalapril
- Menapril
- Thiazine
- Penicillin
Answer ✔ (a) Enalapril
Question 636 of 687
Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of
- Tolerance
- Physical dependence
- Psychological dependence
- Idiosyncrasy
Answer ✔ (a) Tolerance
Question 637 of 687
Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
- Plasma protein binding
- Lipid solubility
- Degree of ionization
- Rate of tubular secretion
Answer ✔ (a) Plasma protein binding
Question 638 of 687
Q.1 Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramus- cular injection of drugs:
- Is more painful
- Produces faster response
- Is unsuitable for depot preparations
- Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Answer ✔ (b) Produces faster response
Question 639 of 687
Q.2 The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by
- Passive diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
- Active transport
- Pinocytosis
Answer ✔ (a) Passive diffusion
Question 640 of 687
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach
- Hyoscine hydrobromide
- Morphine sulfate
- Diclofenac sodium
- Quinine dihydrochloride
Answer ✔ (c) Diclofenac sodium
Question 641 of 687
Q.4 The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
- Nature of the base used in the formulation
- Lipid solubility of the drug
- Molecular weight of the drug
- Site of application
Answer ✔ (b) Lipid solubility of the drug
Question 642 of 687
Q.5 Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug
- Undergoes little first-pass metabolism
- Is incompletely absorbed
- Is freely water soluble
- Is completely absorbed
Answer ✔ (b) Is incompletely absorbed
Question 643 of 687
Q.6 Marked redistribution is a feature of
- Highly plasma protein bound drugs
- Depot preparations
- Highly lipid soluble drugs
- Poorly lipid soluble drugs
Answer ✔ (c) Highly lipid soluble drugs
Question 644 of 687
Q.7 High plasma protein binding
- Increases volume of distribution of the drug
- Generally makes the drug long acting
- Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
- Minimises drug interactions
Answer ✔ (b) Generally makes the drug long acting
Question 645 of 687
Q.8 Which of the following is a prodrug
- Enalapril
- Menapril
- Thiazine
- Penicillin
Answer ✔ (a) Enalapril
Question 646 of 687
Q.9 Microsomal enzyme induction can be a cause of
- Tolerance
- Physical dependence
- Psychological dependence
- Idiosyncrasy
Answer ✔ (a) Tolerance
Question 647 of 687
Q.10 Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
- Plasma protein binding
- Lipid solubility
- Degree of ionization
- Rate of tubular secretion
Answer ✔ (a) Plasma protein binding
Question 648 of 687
Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves
- Sweat glands
- Ciliary muscle
- Iris muscles
- Splenic capsule
Answer ✔ (b) Ciliary muscle
Question 649 of 687
Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut
- Nitric oxide (NO)
- Adenosine
- Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
- Kallidin
Answer ✔ (d) Kallidin
Question 650 of 687
Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site
- Neuromuscular junction
- Postganglionic parasympathetic
- Adrenal medulla
- Autonomic ganglia
Answer ✔ (b) Postganglionic parasympathetic
Question 651 of 687
Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is
- Bethanechol
- Butyrylcholine
- Methacholine
- Benzoylcholine
Answer ✔ (a) Bethanechol
Question 652 of 687
Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is
- Colon
- Gastric fundus
- Bladder trigone
- Major bronchi
Answer ✔ (c) Bladder trigone
Question 653 of 687
Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for
- Glaucoma
- Paralytic ileus
- Urinary retention
- Infection
Answer ✔ (a) Glaucoma
Question 654 of 687
Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme
- Neostigmine
- Edrophonium
- Physostigmine
- Dyflos
Answer ✔ (b) Edrophonium
Question 655 of 687
Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase
- Edrophonium
- Dyflos
- Tacrine
- Neostigmine
Answer ✔ (d) Neostigmine
Question 656 of 687
Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that
- It produces less muscarinic side effects
- It is more potent orally
- It is longer acting
- It does not have any direct action on NM receptor
Answer ✔ (c) It is longer acting
Question 657 of 687
Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is
- Canal of Schlemm
- Ciliary body
- Ciliary muscle
- Sphincter pupillae muscle
Answer ✔ (d) Sphincter pupillae muscle
Question 658 of 687
Q.1 Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves
- Sweat glands
- Ciliary muscle
- Iris muscles
- Splenic capsule
Answer ✔ (b) Ciliary muscle
Question 659 of 687
Q.2 The following cotransmitter is most probably involved in mediating nonadrenergic-noncholinergic (NANC) relaxation of the gut
- Nitric oxide (NO)
- Adenosine
- Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
- Kallidin
Answer ✔ (d) Kallidin
Question 660 of 687
Q.3 The major postjunctional cholinergic receptor is of the muscarinic type at the following site
- Neuromuscular junction
- Postganglionic parasympathetic
- Adrenal medulla
- Autonomic ganglia
Answer ✔ (b) Postganglionic parasympathetic
Question 661 of 687
Q.4 The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudo- cholinesterase is
- Bethanechol
- Butyrylcholine
- Methacholine
- Benzoylcholine
Answer ✔ (a) Bethanechol
Question 662 of 687
Q.5 The smooth muscle structure that is relaxed by choli- nergic drugs is
- Colon
- Gastric fundus
- Bladder trigone
- Major bronchi
Answer ✔ (c) Bladder trigone
Question 663 of 687
Q.6 Pilocarpine is used for
- Glaucoma
- Paralytic ileus
- Urinary retention
- Infection
Answer ✔ (a) Glaucoma
Question 664 of 687
Q.7 The following inhibitor binds only to the ani-onic site of the cholinesterase enzyme
- Neostigmine
- Edrophonium
- Physostigmine
- Dyflos
Answer ✔ (b) Edrophonium
Question 665 of 687
Q.8 Reactivation of cholinesterase enzyme occurs on hydrolysis of the inhibitor by the same enzyme mole- cule in case of the following anticholinesterase
- Edrophonium
- Dyflos
- Tacrine
- Neostigmine
Answer ✔ (d) Neostigmine
Question 666 of 687
Q.9 Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that
- It produces less muscarinic side effects
- It is more potent orally
- It is longer acting
- It does not have any direct action on NM receptor
Answer ✔ (c) It is longer acting
Question 667 of 687
Q.10 The site of action of miotics for therapeutic effect in angle closure glaucoma is
- Canal of Schlemm
- Ciliary body
- Ciliary muscle
- Sphincter pupillae muscle
Answer ✔ (d) Sphincter pupillae muscle
Question 668 of 687
Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
Question 669 of 687
Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
Question 670 of 687
Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
Question 671 of 687
Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
Question 672 of 687
Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
Question 673 of 687
Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
Question 674 of 687
Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
Question 675 of 687
Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
Question 676 of 687
Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
Question 677 of 687
Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
Question 678 of 687
Q.1 Labetalol differs from propranolol in that
- It has additional α1 blocking property
- It is a selective βS1 blocker
- It does not undergo first pass metabolism
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (a) It has additional α1 blocking property
Question 679 of 687
Q.2 Select the β-adrenergic blocker that has additional β1blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant properties
- Celiprolol
- Metoprolol
- Carvedilol
- Acebutolol
Answer ✔ (c) Carvedilol
Question 680 of 687
Q.3 Select the β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
- Atenolol
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Dompirol
Answer ✔ (a) Atenolol
Question 681 of 687
Q.4 Select the ultrashort acting cardioselective β adre- nergic blocker
- Carbinol
- Ethanol
- Esmolol
- Propalol
Answer ✔ (c) Esmolol
Question 682 of 687
Q.5 The following disease is worsened by propranolol
- Raynaud’s disease
- Infection
- Heart attack
- Epilepsy
Answer ✔ (a) Raynaud’s disease
Question 683 of 687
Q.6 Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men
- Albendazole
- Mebendazole
- Cocaine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (d) Sildenafil
Question 684 of 687
Q.7 Which of the following is a selective α1A receptor bloc- ker that affords symptomatic relief in benign prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure
- Doxazosin
- Alprostadil
- Tamsulosin
- Yohimbine
Answer ✔ (c) Tamsulosin
Question 685 of 687
Q.8 The bladder trigone and prostatic muscles are relaxed by
- Adrenergic α1 agonists
- Adrenergic α1 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 antagonists
- Adrenergic α2 agonists
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenergic α1 antagonists
Question 686 of 687
Q.9 The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an α adrenergic blocker is
- Tolazoline
- Desmopressin
- Ergotamine
- Sildenafil
Answer ✔ (c) Ergotamine
Question 687 of 687
Q.10 While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient deve- lops hypotension. Which drug can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
- Noradrenaline
- Mephentermine
- Isoxsuprine
- Oxymetazoline
Answer ✔ (b) Mephentermine
Related Posts (Quiz and tests)
Download PDF100 MCQs
25 MCQs
25 MCQs
25 MCQs
20 MCQs
20 MCQs
30 MCQs
30 MCQs
30 MCQs
30 MCQs
5 MCQs
6 MCQs
0 MCQs
10 MCQs
7 MCQs
10 MCQs
