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Q.1 The function of iron is
- Formation of bones and teeth
- Control excitability of nerves
- Regulates the permeability of membranes
- Transport of oxygen to tissue
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Iron is essential element for blood production. Haemoglobin is essential for transferring O2 in blood.
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Q.2 Cobalt is a component of :
- vitB6
- Vit A
- Vit B12
- Vit D
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Cobalt is the active centre of co-enzyme called cobalamine.
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Q.3 Alkaline phosphate level is increased in
- Ricket
- Leukemia
- Cardial infection
- Pancreatic deficiency
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Ticket is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and a dietary deficiency of calcium or phosphorous.
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Q.4 Microcytic hyper chronic anaemia occurs due to deficiency of
- Cu2+
- Co2+
- Zinc
- Iron
Answer ✔ (D)
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Q.5 Normal urine is
- Neutral
- Highly acidic
- Slightly alkaline
- Slightly acidic
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Urine contains high concentration of urea and other substances including toxins.
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Q.6 Milky type colour of urine gets elevated in
- Albimins
- Haemoglobin
- Fatty acid
- Nephritis
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Milky type colour of urine is indication of UTI.
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Q.7 A component of coenzyme A is
- Inosine
- Thiamine
- Pethothenic acid
- Pyridoxine
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Pethothenic acid is called vitamin B5. Animals require penthoneic acid to synthesise coenzyme A.
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Q.8 Hyperlipidemia is excess of
- Cholesterol and triglycerides
- Free fatty acids
- Glucose
- Ketone bodies
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Hyperlipidemia is excess of lipids which means Cholesterol and triglycerides.
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Q.9 Out of these amino acid which one is not essential amino acid?
- Proline
- Tryptophan
- Tyrosine
- Histidine
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Proline is not essential amino acid.
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Q.10 Which one is essential amino acid
- Alanine
- Leucine
- Proline
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Proline is an essential amino acid.
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Q.11 Polypeptide chain number can be identified by treatment of protein with
- Barium chloride
- Mercuric chloride
- Nitric acid
- Dansyl chloride
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Because dansyl chloride reacts with the free amino group of peptides and proteins.
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Q.12 Isoelectric pH of pepsin is
- 4.6
- 4.7
- 1.1
- 11.0
Answer ✔ (C)
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Q.13 Methionine enkephalin is chain
- Dipeptide
- Tripeptide
- Tetra peptide
- Pentapeptide
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: It consist of five amino acid linked together and attached to a fatty acid to enhance oil solubility.
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Q.14 Plasminogen is converted to plasma with the help of enzyme
- Streptokinase
- Amylase
- Aldolase
- Acid phosphatase
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Streptokinase is an enzyme secreted by several species of streptococcus.
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Q.15 Thiamine includes which one of the following chemical nucleus
- Pyrimidine and thiazole
- Pyrrole and furan
- Imidazole
- Acid phosphatase
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Thiamine is also known as VitB1, found in virtually all food.
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Q.16 Biotin structure is formed by fusion of
- Imidazole and thiophene ring
- Imidazole and furan rings
- Imidazole and insoles ring
- Imidazole and purine rings
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Biotin has two rings fused together via one of their sider.
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Q.17 1 kilobase in DNA is equal to the
- 10 base pair
- 100 base pair
- 1 base pair
- 1000 base pair
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: 1 kilobase in DNA is equal to the 1000 base pair.
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Q.18 Which one is not the type of RNA
- mRNA
- iRNA
- tRNA
- rRNA
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: iRNA is not the type of RNA
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Q.19 Which of the following RNA have high concentration in cell?
- mRNA
- tRNA
- rRNA
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: tRNA has L-shaped 3D structure because it has primary, secondary and tertiary structure.
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Q.20 An example of transferase enzyme
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Esterase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: It is an enzyme which phosphorylase hexose into hexose phosphate.
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Q.21 Appropriate percentage of carbon in protein is the range of
- 10-20%
- 20-30%
- 30-40%
- 50-55%
Answer ✔ (D)
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Q.22 Appropriate percentage of sulphur in protein is the range of
- 0-4%
- 4-8%
- 8-12%
- 12-16%
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.23 An example of amino acid which does not contain sulphur is
- Aspartic acid
- cystine
- Methionine
- Cysteine
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Aspartic acid does not contain sulphur in it.
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Q.24 Main ring present in histidine amino acid is
- Pyrrole
- Imidazole
- Furan
- Thiophene
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.25 Main ring present in tryptophan is
- Indole
- Imidazole
- Furan
- Thiophane
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.1 Optimum temp at which denaturation of protein takes place is
- 10
- 20
- 40
- 50
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Optimum temp at which denaturation of protein takes place is 50
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Q.2 ATPase enzyme is associated with metal ion
- Na+ and K+
- Mg2+ and Ca2+
- Co2+ and K2+
- Mn2+ and Ca2+
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: ATPase enzyme is associated with metal ion Na+ and K+
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Q.3 Enolase enzyme is associated with metal ion
- Mn2+
- Co2+
- Mg2+
- Cu2+
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Enolase is present in all tissues and organisms and is capable of glycolysis and fermentation.
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Q.4 Metal ion present in pyruvate oxidase enzyme
- Cu2+
- Co2+
- Mg2+
- Mn2+
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Metal ion present in pyruvate oxidase enzyme is Mn2+
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Q.5 Metal ion present in xanthine oxidase enzyme
- Mn2+
- Mo2+
- Cu2+
- Ca2+
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: xanthine oxidase is a enzyme which generate reactive oxygen.
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Q.6 Metal ion present in cytochrome oxidase is
- Iron and copper
- Molybdenum
- Manganese
- Calcium
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Metal ion present in cytochrome oxidase is Iron and copper.
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Q.7 The enzyme which contains more than one polysaccharides chain is
- Monomeric enzyme
- Oligomeric enzyme
- Ligase
- Lyase
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Oligomeric enzyme that contains two or more polypeptide chains associated with non-covalent forces.
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Q.8 Lysozyme enzyme contain number of amino acids
- 10
- 20
- 30
- 129
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Lysozyme are known as muromidase.
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Q.9 Active site of enzyme is called as
- Catalytic site
- Denaturation
- Clefts
- Oligomeric
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Active site is the small part an enzyme where substrate molecules bind and undergo a chemical reaction.
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Q.10 Drug that is not as dihyrofolate reductase inhibitor
- Allopurinol
- Methotrexate
- Aminoprotein
- Amethoprotein
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Allopurinol is used in treatment of gout, high level of uric acid in body.
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Q.11 Drug acting as acetylcholine inhibitor
- Acetylcholine
- Succinylcholine
- Dicumarol
- Lovastatin
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.12 Drug acting HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor?
- Propanalol
- lovastatin
- Captopril
- Alluprinol
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: lovastatin is a hypolipidemic agent that belongs to the statins class
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Q.13 Coenzyme derived from vitamin
- Allopurinol
- Captopril
- Riboflavin
- Pyridoxine
Answer ✔ (C)
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Q.14 Therapeutic application of enzyme streptokinase
- In cancer therapy
- Gene transfer
- In embolous
- Cheese preparation
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Therapeutic application of enzyme streptokinase In embolous.
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Q.15 Lipase enzyme is used for estimation of
- Uric acid
- Triacylglycerol
- Cholesterol
- Urea
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.16 Enzyme urease is used for estimation of :
- Glucose
- Urea
- Uric acid
- Cholesterol level
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Urease is an enzyme that catalyse hydrolysis of urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia.
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Q.17 Elevated serum level of amylase is used in diagnosis of disease
- Meningitis
- Acute pancreatitis
- Blood pressure
- Jaundice
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.18 Increased in level of SGPT is used in diagnosis of disease
- Hepatitis
- Rickets
- Heart attacks
- Alcoholism
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Hepatitis is defined by inflammation of liver.
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Q.19 Increased in level of SGOT is used in diagnosis of disease
- Acute pancreatitis
- Myocardial infarction
- Hepatitis
- Alcoholism
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Increased in level of SGOT is used in diagnosis of disease Acute pancreatitis.
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Q.20 The major site of fat digestion is
- Large intestine
- Small intestine
- Kidney
- Liver
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Fats are digested using enzyme lipase through small intestine.
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Q.21 The fats are :
- Completely insoluble in water
- Sparingly soluble in water
- Completely soluble in water
- Both a and b
Answer ✔ (D)
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Q.22 Fatty acids synthesis occurs in
- Cytoplasm
- Mitochondria
- heart
- Lungs
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Fatty acids synthesis occurs in Cytoplasm.
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Q.23 Ergosterol consists of
- 28 carbon atoms
- 30 carbon atoms
- 14 carbon atoms
- 35 carbon atoms
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.24 Lipogenesis is the formation of
- Glucose from fat
- Fat from glucagen
- Fats from glucose
- Glycogen from fats
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.25 Lipids are organic substance which are
- Insoluble in water
- Soluble in water
- Soluble in alcohol
- Both a and c
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Lipids are organic substance which are soluble in water and alcohol.
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Q.1 The glycolytic pathway is the
- Conversion of pyruvic acid into oxaloacetate
- Degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
- Successive oxidation - reduction reaction involving succinate NADH
- None of these
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: The glycolytic pathway is the degradation of glucose into pyruvic acid
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Q.2 Oxidative phosphorylation is the generation of
- Phosphoglyceric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- ATP
- ADP
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: It is the metabolic pathway in which mitochondria in cells use their structure, enzymes and energy released by oxidation.
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Q.3 The term lipolysis is used for
- Breakdown of lipids
- Biosynthesis of lipids
- Accumulation of lipids in the body
- Inherited metabolic disorder of lipids
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: The term lipolysis is used for breakdown of lipids
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Q.4 Milky fluid containing emulsified fat in small intestine is known as
- Lymph
- Blood
- Chyle
- Chyme
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Chyle is milky fluid containing emulsified fat in small intestine.
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Q.5 The amino acid which contains guanidino group is
- Cysteine
- Methionine
- Arginine
- cystine
Answer ✔ (C)
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Q.6 Hyperlipidemia is excess of
- Cholesterol and triglyceride
- Free fatty acids
- Glycerol
- Ketone bodies
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Hyperlipidemia involves abnormality in which Cholesterol and triglyceride gets elevated.
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Q.7 The RNA synthesis on a DNA template is known as
- Translation
- Transduction
- Replication
- Transcription
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: The RNA synthesis on a DNA template is known as Transcription.
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Q.8 Deamination of amino acids occurs during the
- Anabolism of amino acid
- Catabolism of amino acid
- Formation of urea
- Krebs cycle
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Deamination of amino acid is the process by which amino acid are broken down into ammonia. Ammonia is toxic so its converted into urea or uric acid.
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Q.9 Blood platelets are rich in
- Carbohydrates
- Cholesterol
- Phospholipids and protein
- Nucleic acids
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Blood platelets are rich in Phospholipids and protein.
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Q.10 Increase in number of erythrocytes
- Poikilocytosis
- Reticulocytes
- displacia
- Polycythemia
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Polycythemia is a state in which the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by RBC increases.
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Q.11 Treatment of iodine with starch shows
- Blue
- Red
- Green
- Red
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Treatment of iodine with starch shows Blue.
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Q.12 Which test is used for distinguishing monosaccharides?
- Bebedicts
- Tollens
- Barfoeds
- Ninhydrin
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Barfoeds test is based on the reduction of copper acetate to copper oxide which forms brick red colour.
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Q.13 Drug which is used in the treatment of tuberculosis from glycosidic class
- Isoniazid
- Ethambutol
- Streptomycin
- Pyrizinamide
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Streptomycin is an antibiotic drug called aminoglycosides.
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Q.14 which compound is used as reference carbohydrate for rotation determination
- Glyceraldehyde
- Glucose
- Fructose
- Maltose
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Glyceraldehyde is a triose monosaccharides and is simple of all aldoses.
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Q.15 Glucose and galactose are epimers to each other with reference to
- C2
- C3
- C4
- C1
Answer ✔ (C)
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Q.16 D-glucose corresponding alcohol is
- D- Sorbitol
- D-Ribitol
- D-Mannitol
- D-Dulcitol
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: It is also known as glucitol sugar which is a sugar alcohol.
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Q.17 Starch is hydrolysed by enzyme
- Lactose
- Amylase
- Aldolase
- Phosphatase
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: The pancreas and salivary gland make amylase hydrolyse dietary starch into disaccharide and trisaccharide.
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Q.18 Which carbohydrate is exclusively used in kidney functioning test
- Lactose
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Insulin
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Insulin is helpful during kidney functioning.
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Q.19 Monosaccharides are called as
- Simple sugar
- Complex sugar
- Common sugar
- Lactose sugar
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Monosaccharides are the most basic unit of sugar and thus are called as simple sugar.
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Q.20 In TCA oxaloacetate is formed from
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- Succinate
- Malate
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: It is an enzyme that reversibly catalysed by oxidation of malate into oxaloacetate.
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Q.21 Heparin is a
- Monosaccharide
- Disaccharide
- Mucopolysaccharide
- Heteropolysaccharide
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Heparin is also known as unfractioned sugar.
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Q.22 An example of transferase enzyme
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Esterase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Hexokinase is an anticoagulant which phosphorylase hexose to hexose phosphate.
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Q.23 An example of enzyme of oxidoreductase class
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Aldolase
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: It facilitates interconversion.
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Q.24 In example of enzyme in lyase class
- Lipase
- Hexokinase
- Aldolase
- Urease
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Aldolase is an enzyme which carries aldol reaction.
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Q.25 Functional unit of enzyme is known as
- Holoenzyme
- Gene
- Cell
- Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Functional unit of enzyme is known as Holoenzyme.
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Q.1 Serum acid phosphatase activity increases during
- Carcinoma
- Pancreatitis
- Leukemia
- Obstructive jaundice
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: It is increased in breast cancer, prostate disease, bone cancer or metastases.
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Q.2 Normal urine is
- Neutral
- Highly acidic
- Slightly alkaline
- Slightly acidic
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Urine is principally water but it contains some inorganic salts or compounds such as protein, hormones, metabolites etc,.
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Q.3 Creatinine level in urine get elevated in
- Addison’s disease
- Hypothyroidism
- Nephritis
- Typhoid fever
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: The normal range for creatinine is 0.6 to 1.3 mg per decilitre. Generally high level of creatinine means kidney failure.
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Q.4 A component of coenzyme A is
- Inosine
- Thiamine
- Pantothenic acid
- Pyridoxine
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: In all living organisms, coA is synthesised in a 5 step process that requires 4 molecules of ATP.
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Q.5 The normal value for glucose in the blood is
- 250 mg
- 200 mg
- 100-200 mg
- 80-120 mg
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: It is the amount of glucose present in the blood of a human or an animal.
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Q.6 Hyperlipidemia is excess of
- Cholesterol and triglycerides
- Free fatty acid
- Glucose
- Ketone body
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: It is sterol, a lipid molecule and is biosynthesised by all animals
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Q.7 Cholesterol is a
- Carbohydrate
- Steroid
- Lipid
- Fatty acid
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: it is a bile solid essential structural compound of animal cell membrane.
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Q.8 The coenzyme for niacin is
- NAD
- TPN
- FMN
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Niacin and its derivatives are precursors of nicotinamide adenine nucleotide in this oxidation and reduction reactions.
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Q.9 Which of these vitamins is a part of coenzyme?
- Vit a
- Vit c
- Thiamine
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: It is a severe disease by the deficiency of protein in diet that contains calories mostly from carbohydrates.
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Q.10 Protein deficiency is known as
- Kavashiorkar
- Cushings syndrome
- Gaucher’s disease
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Kavashiorkar is a disease caused due to protein deficiency.
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Q.11 Cobalt is a constituent of
- Vitamin B12
- Haemoglobin
- Insulin
- Thyroid hormone
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Cobalt is also known as cobalamin.
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Q.12 Xanthoprotic acid is positive in protein containing:
- Sulphur containing amino acid
- Alpha amino acid
- Aromatic amino acid
- Aliphatic amino acid
Answer ✔ (C)
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Q.13 Neutral amino acid is
- Leucine
- Lysine
- Aspartic acid
- Histidine
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Leucine is amino acid that the human body cannot synthesised.
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Q.14 The major connective tissue is
- Keratin
- Collagen
- Myosin
- Melanin
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Collagen is the main component of connective tissues.
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Q.15 Intercellular substance present in connective tissue is
- Fatty in nature
- Muco-polysaccharide
- Protein
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.16 Quaternary structure of proteins refers to
- Sub-unit structure
- Amino acid sequence
- Irregular folding of protein
- Regular structure like alpha helix
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Quaternary structure is the arrangement of multiple folded protein.
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Q.17 A keto sugar can be detected by
- fehlings solution
- Benedict’s solution
- Seliwanoffs solution
- Aniline acetate solution
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Seliwanoffs test is chemical test which distinguish between aldose and ketose sugars.
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Q.18 Which of the following saccharides is not a reducing sugar
- Sucrose
- Lactose
- Mannose
- Galactose
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Sucrose is not a reducing sugar.
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Q.19 Vitamin B2 ( riboflavin) is a component of
- NAD+
- FAD
- TPP
- CoA
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: It is a central component of cofactors FAD and FMN and as such required for variety of flavoprotein enzyme reactions including activations of other vitamins.
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Q.20 Rickets is due to deficiency of
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin c
- Zinc
- Iodine
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Vitamin D is a group of fat soluble secosteroids responsible for enhancing intestinal absorption of Ca, Fe, Mg, Zn and deficiency of these leads to rickets.
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Q.21 Vitamin K deficiency results in the disorder
- Dermatitis
- Retarded growth
- Color blindness
- Defective blood clotting
Answer ✔ (D)
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Q.22 Goitre is caused by the deficiency of
- Fluorine
- Iodine
- Chloride
- Sulphide
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Iodine is very important for proper functioning of thyroid gland.
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Q.23 Aldosterone regulates :
- Blood glucose
- Serum calcium
- Urine concentration
- Sodium absorption
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced by the zone glomerulasa of adrenal cortex in adrenal gland.
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Q.24 Invertase is
- Vitamin
- carbohydrate
- Hormone
- Enzyme
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Invertase is an enzyme that catalyse the hydrolysis of sucrose.
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Q.25 Glycogenesis is the synthesis of :
- Starch
- Glucose
- Glycogen
- Glycerol
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Glycogenesis is the synthesis of glycogen.
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Q.1 Ribose is a
- Triose
- Tetrose
- Pentose
- Hexose
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Ribose is an organic compound with a pentose monosaccharide
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Q.2 In the TCA malate is oxidised to
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- Succinate
- Oxaloacetate
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Malate dehydrogenase is an enzyme that reversibly catalyse the oxidation of malate to oxaloacetate.
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Q.3 Heparin is a
- Monosaccharide
- Disaccharide
- Mucopolysaccharide
- Heteropolysaccharide
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Heparin is a highly sulphated glycosaminoglycogen.
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Q.4 Transamination takes place principally in
- Liver
- Muscles
- Stomach
- Gall bladder
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Liver is the main organ where transamination takes place.
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Q.5 Amino acids linked by
- Hydrogen bond
- Sulphate bond
- Ionic bond
- Peptide bond
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Proteins are polymers linked by peptide bond.
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Q.6 One example of phosphoprotein
- Phenylalanine
- Tryptophan
- Casein
- Glycine
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Phosphoprotein is a protein that is post translationally modified by the attachment of single phosphate group.
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Q.7 Schlock and humph method is used to determine
- C terminal amino acid
- N and C terminal amino acid
- N terminal amino acid
- Nono of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Schlock and humph method is used to determine C terminal amino acid.
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Q.8 Protein are precipatetd by
- Water
- Sodium hydroxide
- Formaldehyde
- Trichloroethane acetic acid
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Trichloroacetic acid is widely used in downstream processing of biological products.
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Q.9 One example of sulphur containing amino acid
- Aspartate
- Cysteine
- Serine
- Tyrosine
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.10 In beta oxidation no of ATP molecule utilised are
- 4
- 2
- 5
- Nono of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: In beta oxidation no of ATP molecule utilised are 4
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Q.11 The normal level of ketone bodies in the blood are
- 1-5 mg/dl
- 10 mg/dl
- 15 mg/dl
- 20 mg/dl
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: The normal level of ketone bodies in the blood are 1-5 mg/dl.
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Q.12 The fats are
- Completely insoluble in water
- Sparingly soluble in water
- Completely soluble in water
- Nono of the above
Answer ✔ (D)
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Q.13 One example of polyunsaturated fattyacid is
- Acetic acid
- Butanoic acid
- Glyceric acid
- Linoleic acid
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: polyunsaturated fattyacid contains more than one double bond in their backbone
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Q.14 Fatty acids synthesis occurs in
- Cytoplasm
- Mitochondria
- Heart
- Lungs
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Fatty acids synthesis occurs in Cytoplasm.
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Q.15 Cholesterol contains of
- 27 carbon atom
- 30 carbon atom
- 14 carbon atom
- 35 carbon atom
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Cholesterol contains of 27 carbon atom.
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Q.16 One example of glycoside is
- Cholesterol
- Sphingomyelin
- Lecithin
- Gangliosides
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Gangliosides belong to glycosides.
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Q.17 Similarity between inorganic catalysts and enzymes
- They have very high molecular weight
- Both catalyse the biological reaction
- Both are efficient catalysts
- They temporally combine with substrate molecule
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: inorganic catalysts and enzymes only temporally combine with substrate molecule.
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Q.18 Malonate is competitive inhibitor of
- Succinate
- Fumarate
- Oxaloacetate
- Aspartate
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Malonate is competitive inhibitor of Succinate
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Q.19 Oxidoreductase include enzyme
- Which are concerned with beta oxidation and reduction
- Catalyse the transfer of group from one substance to other
- Carry out hydrolytic reaction
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Oxidoreductase catalyse the transfer of electrons from one molecule to the other molecule.
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Q.20 Wilson disease occurs due to abnormal secretion of
- cu2+
- Iron
- Ca2+
- Mg2+
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: It is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in which copper accumulates in tissues.
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Q.21 The main protein of connective tissue
- Keratin
- Myosin
- Collagen
- Melanin
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Myosin comprise a family of ATP dependent motor proteins and are best known for their role in muscle contraction.
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Q.22 The sugar present in nucleic acid is
- Ribose
- Xylose
- Glycose
- Fructose
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Ribose comprises the backbone for RNA and relates to deoxyribose as found in DNA by removal of the hydroxyl group on the 2C carbon.
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Q.23 Which element is required for contraction of muscles
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Magnesium
- Manganese
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Muscle contraction is regulated by Ca2+ ions.
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Q.24 Lipogenesis is the formation of
- Glucose from fat
- Fats from glucose
- Fats from surplus glucose
- Glycogen from fats
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Lipogenesis is the formation of fatty acid from acetyl coA
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Q.25 Serum and phosphatase activity increases during
- Carcinoma
- Pancreatitis
- Leukemia
- Obstructive jaundice
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Serum and phosphatase activity increases during Carcinoma.
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Q.1 Proteins are precipitated by-
- water
- sodium hydroxide
- formaldehyde
- Trichloro acetic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Trichloro acetic acid
Explanation: Trichloro aetic acid is widely used in downstream processing of Biological products in order to ccentrate the protein and purify them from vaarious contaminants.
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Q.2 The major site of fat digestion is-
- Large intestine
- small intestine
- Kidney
- Liver
Answer ✔ (b) small intestine
Explanation: small intestine, is the major site of fat digestion. Small intestine is the part of GIT where digestionand absorption is takes place.
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Q.3 Ninhydrin oxidatively decarboxylates α-amino acids to-
- CO2
- H2O,CO2
- CO2,NH3
- NH3
Answer ✔ (c) CO2,NH3
Explanation: Oxydative decarboxylation reaction reaction is oxidation reaction in which a carboxylate group is removed forming CO2 and NH3.
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Q.4 one example of glycoside is-
- Cholesterol
- Sphingomyelin
- Lecithin
- Gangliosides
Answer ✔ (d) Gangliosides
Explanation: Gangliosides belongs to the glycosides. Ganglioside is a molecule composed of glycolipid with one or more sialic acid linked to sugar chain.
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Q.5 Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of-
- Succinate
- Fumerate
- Oxaloacetate
- Aspaartate
Answer ✔ (a) Succinate
Explanation: malonate is the competitive inhibitor of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. Malonate binds to the active site of the enzyme without reacting, and so competes with succinate, the usual substrate of the Enzyme.
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Q.6 Alkaline phosphate level is increases in which disease?
- Rickets
- Leukemia
- Cardial infection
- Pancreatic deficiency
Answer ✔ (a) Rickets
Explanation: Alkaline phosphate (ALP) is a hydrolase enzyme and responsible for removing phosphate groups from many types of molecules. Bone specific alkaline phosphatase isoenzyme is elevated as a result of increased osteoblastic activity. The highest total ALP values have been attributed to an increased bone isoenzyme level due to Paget disease or rickets/osteomalasia.
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Q.7 What are the chief storage sites for manganese in the body?
- Kidney
- Muscles
- Stomach
- Heart
Answer ✔ (a) Kidney
Explanation: Manganese (Mn++) is a trace mineral helps the body to convert protein and fat to energy. It also promotes normal bone growth, helps maintain healthy reproductive, nervous, and immune systems, and is involved in blood sugar regulation.In addition mangnese is involved in blood clotting and the formation of cartilage and lubricating fluid in the joints. Mangnese is predominantly stored in the bones, liver, Kidney, and pancreas.
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Q.8 Microcytic hypochromic anemia occurs due to deficiency of-
- Cu++
- CO2
- Zinc
- Iron
Answer ✔ (d) Iron
Explanation: In microcytic anemia the size of red blood cells decreases due to less hemoglobin. deficiency of Iron is the most common cause of microcytic anemia.
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Q.9 The first amino acid during protein synthesis is-
- Arginine
- leucine
- valine
- methionine
Answer ✔ (d) methionine
Explanation: Methionine is specified by the codon AUG, which is also known as the start codon. Consequently, methionine is the first amino acid to dock in the ribosome during the synthesis of proteins. Protein synthesis requires the translation of nucleotide sequence into amino acid sequences.
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Q.10 Milky type colour of urine is due to the presence of-
- Albumins
- haemoglobin
- Fatty acid
- Nephritis
Answer ✔ (c) Fatty acid
Explanation: milky urine can rarely be due to chyluria (lymph fluid resuting from a communication between the lymphatic system and the urinary tract. The preasence of fatty acids in urine results urinary tract infections. Cloudy or milky urine is a sign of a urinary tract infection, which may also cause a bad smell. Milky urine may also be caused by bacteria, crystals, fat, white or red blood cells, or mucus in the urine
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Q.11 FAD and FMN are coenzyme form of-
- Thiamine
- Riboflavin
- Ascorbic acid
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Riboflavin
Explanation: Riboflavin (vitamin B2) is a cofactor that can carry one or two eletrons. It is a component of two major coenzymes FAD and FMN.
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Q.12 Which monosaccharide unit constitutes Milk Sugar?
- Galactose and glucose
- 2 galactose units
- 2 glucose units
- Fructose and galactose
Answer ✔ (a) Galactose and glucose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide suger composed of galactose and glucose. 2.8% lactose is found in sugar and also called as milk sugar.
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Q.13 The sugars formed as a result of sucrose digestion are-
- Fructose and glucose
- maltose and glucose
- glucose and glucose
- galactose and glucose
Answer ✔ (a) Fructose and glucose
Explanation: Fructose is a simple monosaccharide, it bonded to glucose to form the disaccharide, sucrose. Frucrose and glucose have the same molecular formula but Fructose is a ketose sugar anf glucose is a aldose sugar.
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Q.14 The processing of blood clotting is initiated by-
- Prothrombin
- Fibrinogen
- Thrombin
- Thromboplastin
Answer ✔ (a) Prothrombin
Explanation: Prothrombin is used to determine the clotting tendency of blood in the measure of warfarin dosage, liver damage and vit K status.
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Q.15 Intracellular substance present in connective tissue is-
- Fatty in nature
- Muco polysaccharide
- Protein
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Muco polysaccharide
Explanation: Heparin is present as intracellular sustance in connectice tissue is a mucopolysacchride. Orther polyscaharides associated with connective tissue are Hyluronic acid and chondriotin sulphuric acid.
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Q.16 Multiple forms of same enzymes are called-
- Coenzyme
- Apoenzymes
- Isoenzymes
- Haloenzymes
Answer ✔ (c) Isoenzymes
Explanation: Enzymes that are differ from amino acid sequence but catalyze the same chemical reaction are known as Isoenzymes.
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Q.17 Treatment of glycogen with iodine shows which colour?
- Violet
- Green
- Red
- Yellow
Answer ✔ (c) Red
Explanation: The colour depends on the 3D structure of the polysaccharide. Starch is coiled structure which turns blue with iodine solution, whereas glycogen which is a branched molecule turns red/brown with iodine solution.
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Q.18 Which alcohol is a constituent of flavin coenzyme?
- inositol
- xylitol
- Ribitol
- Mannitol
Answer ✔ (c) Ribitol
Explanation: Ribitol is a crystalline pentose alcohol formed by the reduction of ribose. It is naturally occuring from the plants and also contribute the structure of riboflavin and flavin mononuleotide.
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Q.19 In TCA, oxaloacetate is formed from-
- Fumarate
- L-ketoglutarate
- succinate
- Malate
Answer ✔ (d) Malate
Explanation: In TCA (tricarboxylic acid ) cycle in the presence of enzyme malate-dehydrogenase, malate is converted to oxaloacetate. Again oxaloacetate reacts with acetyle CoA and cycle continues. Total 30 ATPs fromed from TCA in each reaction of glycolysis (Glycolysis generates two molecules of Acetyle CoA).
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Q.20 Net ATPs formed in the β oxidation of palmitic acid?
- 100
- 30
- 50
- 129
Answer ✔ (d) 129
Explanation: Palmitic acid (16 + 1 carbons) is a fatty acid and it can form 8 acetyl CoA units. For this it must complete 7 cycles of β oxidation ( each cycle removes 2 carbon atoms from fatty acid chain in the form of acetyl CoA). Each cyce of beta oxidation generates 5 ATPs. Each TCA cycle generates 12 ATPs (from acetyl CoA).
Total 7 cycles of beta oxidation = 7 × 5 = 35 ATPs.
Total 8 cycles of TCA = 8 × 12 = 96 ATPs. total ATPs = 96 +35 = 131.
2 ATP molecues utiised in the β-oxidation. net molecules obtained from palmitic acid →129 ATPs.
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Q.21 Edman's reagent is chemically-
- Phenyl isothiocyanate
- Phenyl chloride
- Phenyl bromide
- Aniline
Answer ✔ (a) Phenyl isothiocyanate
Explanation: Phenylisothiocyanate (PITC) enables the sequential degradation of amino acid in a polypeptide chain.
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Q.22 The main ring structure is present in tryptophan is-
- Indole
- imidazole
- furan
- thiophane
Answer ✔ (a) Indole
Explanation: Tryptophan consists of Indole ring.
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Q.23 Double helix structure of DNA was proposed by-
- Lewis
- Chargaff's
- James Watson and crick
- Mandel
Answer ✔ (c) James Watson and crick
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Q.24 The smallest amino acid is-
- Alanine
- Glycine
- Valine
- Phenylalanine
Answer ✔ (b) Glycine
Explanation: Glycine is the smallest amino acid with only H as its residue.
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Q.25 Xanthine is converted to uric acid in the presence of enzyme-
- Xanthine oxidase
- xanthine reductase
- xanthine transferase
- xanthine isomerase
Answer ✔ (a) Xanthine oxidase
Explanation: by the action of xanthine oxidase enzyme, xanthine converted to uric acid.
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Q.26 Pantohenic acid is also known as-
- vitamin B1
- vitamin B5
- vitamin B2
- Vitamin B12
Answer ✔ (b) vitamin B5
Explanation: Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) is a water soluble vitamin of B-complex class.
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Q.27 Cholesterol is one of the important factor in the synthesis of-
- Bile acids
- hormones
- vitamin D
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: Cholesterol is important for the biosynthesis of Bile acids, hormones, and vitamin D.
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Q.28 The cyclic fatty acid, Chaulmoogric acid is used in the treatment of-
- T.B.
- ulcers
- Leprosy
- Goiter
Answer ✔ (c) Leprosy
Explanation: Chalmoogric is a tree in acanthaceae family, the oil from its seeds have been widely used for the treatment of leprosy (a disease caused by bacteria) in the Indian and chinese traditional medicines.
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Q.29 Cynocobalamine is the metabolic effect of-
- Bacillus pumulis
- Streptomyces griseus
- Bacillus subtilis
- Bacillus sterothermophilus
Answer ✔ (b) Streptomyces griseus
Explanation: Streptomyces griseus is a species of bacteria. It is gram positive bacterium and was the source of industrial production of vitamin B12.
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Q.30 Menke's disease is related to-
- deficiency of sulphur
- deficiency of zinc
- defect in transport of copper
- defect in transport of zinc
Answer ✔ (c) defect in transport of copper
Explanation: Mnkel's disease (MNK) is also called copper transport disease, steely hair disease, kinky hair disease, is a disorder that affects copper level in the body, leading to copper deficiency. It is an x-linked recessive disorder, and is therefore considerably more common in males.
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Q.1 The peptide bond in proteins is detected by
- Biuret test
- formaldehyde
- Million test
- water
Answer ✔ (a) Biuret test
Explanation: In the presence of peptides, a copper (ii) ion forms violet coloured complexes in alkali solutions.
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Q.2 Which is the smallest amino acid?
- Glycine
- Alanine
- Valine
- Phenylalanine
Answer ✔ (a) Glycine
Explanation: Glycine is the smallest amino acid with only 'H' as the residue.
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Q.3 Vitamin A is related to:
- β-ionone
- α-ionone
- δ-ionone
- ɣ-ionone
Answer ✔ (a) β-ionone
Explanation: Vitamin A is composed of β -ionone ring (cyclohexenyl) to which polyisoprenoid side chain is attached.
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Q.4 Vitamins that bind to Ca++ ATPase in intestinal cells is:
- Vitamin B1
- Vitamin B2
- Vitamin B6
- Vitamin D
Answer ✔ (d) Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D is fat soluble responsible for enhancing intestinal absoption of calcium, Iron, Magnesium, Phosphate and zinc.
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Q.5 Regular use of isoniazid as antitubercular drug causes deficiency of:
- Vitamin B2
- vitamin B6
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin B1
Answer ✔ (b) vitamin B6
Explanation: Isoniazid causes depletion of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxin).
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Q.6 Sakaguchi's test is specified to:
- Glycine
- Arginine
- Tryptophan
- Tyrosine
Answer ✔ (b) Arginine
Explanation: Sakaguch's test is used to detect the Arginine in proteins. The guanidine group in arginine reacts with sakaguch's reagent to form red coloured complex.
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Q.7 Which Enzyme is useful for the clinical diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
- Lipase
- Amylase
- Creatinine phosphokinase
- Both A and B
Answer ✔ (d) Both A and B
Explanation: Acute pancreatitis is sudden swelling and inflammation of the pancreas. It is due to the billiary tract disease, heavy alcohol, idiopathic causes.
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Q.8 Which enzyme catalyse the linking of two compounds?
- Transferase
- Isomerase
- Ligase
- Lyases
Answer ✔ (c) Ligase
Explanation: Ligase is an enzyme that can catalyse the joining of two large molecules by forming a chemical bond.
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Q.9 Enzyme Reaction kinetics are governed by:
- Michaelis theory
- Menten theory
- Michaellis and Menten theory
- Noyes and Whitney theory
Answer ✔ (c) Michaellis and Menten theory
Explanation: Mechellis and Menten theory is one of the best models of enzyme kinetics. The models take the form of an equation describing the rate of enzymatic reaction , relating reaction rate, concentration of the substrate.
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Q.10 What is the source of carbon atoms in Cholesterol?
- Acetyl-CoA
- Lanosterol
- Squalene
- Mevalonic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Acetyl-CoA
Explanation: Acetyl-CoA is an important molecule in metabolism used in many biochemical reactions.
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Q.11 The Enzymes of HMP pathway are located in:
- Cytosol
- Adipose tissue
- Heart
- Intestine
Answer ✔ (a) Cytosol
Explanation: Cytosol is the liquid found inside cells. It is seprated into compartment by membranes. For example Mitochondrial matrix, seprates the mitochondrion into many compartments.
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Q.12 The citrate is converted into isocitrate via cis-aconitase by the enzyme:
- Cutrate synthase
- aconitase
- isocitrate dehydrogenate
- malate dehydrogenase
Answer ✔ (b) aconitase
Explanation: Aconitase is an enzyme that catalyse the sterio-specific isomerisation of citrate to isocitrate in the tricarboxylic acid cycle
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Q.13 In Glycolysis under anaerobic condition, there is a net gain of:
- 4 ATP
- 3 ATP
- 2 ATP
- 1 ATP
Answer ✔ (c) 2 ATP
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Q.14 Which is the major pathway/cycle for removal of amonia in brain?
- Glutamine pathway
- Kreb's Henseleit cycle
- Urea synthesis pathway
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Glutamine pathway
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Q.15 The disease albinism is related to:
- defect of tyrosine metabolism
- defect of phenylealanine metabolism
- defect related to melanin biosynthesis
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) defect related to melanin biosynthesis
Explanation: Albinism is the rare group of genetic desorder that causes the skin, hair, eyes to have little or no colour.
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Q.16 Knoop's beta oxidation is related to:
- oxidation of fatty acids
- oxidation of acetyl Coenzyme
- oxidation of keto-bodies
- oxidation of uric acid
Answer ✔ (a) oxidation of fatty acids
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Q.17 The normal level of calcium in blood plasma is:
- 20-40 mg/ 100ml
- 30-40 mg/100 ml
- 9-11 mg/100 ml
- 100mg/100 ml
Answer ✔ (c) 9-11 mg/100 ml
Explanation: the calcium is present plasma of blood in concentration of 9 to 11mg per 100ml
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Q.18 Xanthine oxidase contains:
- Zinc
- Molybdenum
- cobalt
- magnesium
Answer ✔ (b) Molybdenum
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Q.19 Barfoed's reagent is a solution of:
- copper sulphate
- copper acetate in acetic acid
- cupric tartrate
- cupric nitrate
Answer ✔ (b) copper acetate in acetic acid
Explanation: Barfoed's reagent is used for detection of monosachrides in carbohydrate, based on the reaction of copper acetate to copper oxide.
RCH + 2Cu2+ + 2 H2O → RCOOH + 2Cu2O + NH+
Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.20 The risk factor for atherosclerosis is related to:
- Chylomicron
- VLDL
- HDL
- VLDL and LDL
Answer ✔ (d) VLDL and LDL
Explanation: LDL diposits excess cholesterol in the walls of blood vessels, so it is also called bad cholesterol.
Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.21 The precursor for Vitamin D is:
- Fatty acid
- Sterol
- Cholesterol
- Lipid
Answer ✔ (c) Cholesterol
Explanation: Several forms of vitamin D exists. The two major forms are vitamin D2 or ergocalciferol and vitamin D3 or Cholecalciferol.
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Q.22 Glutathione is:
- Dipeptide
- Tripeptide
- Cyclic peptide
- Polypeptide
Answer ✔ (b) Tripeptide
Explanation: Glutathione is an important anti-oxidant in plants, animals, fungi and some bacteria. It is a tripeptide with a gamma peptide linkage between the carboxyl groups.
Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.23 Bial's Reagent is a solution of:
- Alpha napthol in alcohol
- Phenol in 30% HCL
- Orcinol in 30% HCL
- Orcinol in 30% HCL + ferric chloride
Answer ✔ (d) Orcinol in 30% HCL + ferric chloride
Explanation: Bial's test is achemical test for the presence of pentose. It contains 0.4 g of orcinol, 200ml of conc. HCL and 0.5 m of 10% solution of ferric chloride.
Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.24 Fluorosis is caused by the excess intake of:
- Copper
- Calcium
- Zinc
- Fluorine
Answer ✔ (d) Fluorine
Explanation: It is developemental disturbance in enamel caused by excessive exposure to high concentration of fluorine intake.
Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.25 Mutarotation is:
- change in structure
- change in cyclic structure
- change in optical rotation
- none of above
Answer ✔ (c) change in optical rotation
Explanation: Mutarotation is the change in the optical rotation that occurs by epimerization. The optical rotation of the solution depends on the optical rotation of each anomer and their ratio in the solution.
Biomedical Science • D. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.1 The scientific study of disease which deals with causes, effects, mechanism, and nature of the disease is…
- Pathology
- Biology
- Physiology
- Oceanology
Answer ✔ (a) Pathology
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Q.2 Functions of blood include…
- Transport of oxygen & nutrients
- Maintenance of osmotic pressure & body temperature
- Transport of hormones & waste product
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.3 Composition of blood is…
- Plasma and blood cells
- Plasma and RBCs
- Plasma and WBCs
- Respiratory gases and blood cells
Answer ✔ (a) Plasma and blood cells
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Q.4 Blood plasma contains…
- Inorganic substances
- Organic substances
- Respiratory gases
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.5 Blood cells fraction is composed of…
- WBCs/ leukocytes
- RBCs/ erythrocyte
- Platelets / thrombocytes
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.6 ......... is involved in formation of antibodies
- WBCs
- RBCs
- Platelets
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) WBCs
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Q.7 In the case of immunodeficiency diseases, no. of WBCs will…
- Increase
- Decrease
- Remains same
- None of them
Answer ✔ (b) Decrease
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Q.8 Thrombocytes are called…
- WBCs
- RBCs
- Platelets
- None of them
Answer ✔ (c) Platelets
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Q.9 Decrease in platelet count is called …
- Thrombocytopenia
- Thrombocytosis
- Thrombocytosis
- None of them
Answer ✔ (a) Thrombocytopenia
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Q.10 Increase in platelet count is called …
- Thrombocytopenia
- Thrombocytosis
- Thrombosis
- None of them
Answer ✔ (b) Thrombocytosis
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Q.1 The process occurring in the presence of oxygen is called… ..
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
General Science • Class 12th • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.2 The process occuring in the absence of oxygen is called… .
- Anaerobic
- Aerobic
- Glycogenic
- Microaerophilic
Answer ✔ (a) Anaerobic
Explanation:
General Science • Class 12th • D. Pharma • B. Pharma • Biochemistry • Bachelor of Pharmacy
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Q.3 Enzymatic hydrolysis of major nutrients in GIT to yield their simpler components is .....
- Fermentation
- Deglutition
- Glycolysis
- Digestion
Answer ✔ (d) Digestion
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Q.4 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into glucose or glycogen are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Glucogenic amino acids
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Directions:
Q.5 Amino acids with carbon chains that can be metabolically converted into ketone bodies are called… .
- Metagenic amino acids
- Glucogenic amino acids
- Ketogenic amino acids
- Glutamic amino acids
Answer ✔ (c) Ketogenic amino acids
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Q.6 The water soluble fuels which are overproduced during fasting or in untreated diabetes mellitus are called… . .
- Melanin bodies
- Ketone bodies
- Glucose bodies
- Citrate bodies
Answer ✔ (b) Ketone bodies
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Q.7 Energy yielding anaerobic breakdown of glucose yielding lactate, ethanol with some other products is… . ..
- Protein fermentation
- Fat metabolism
- Glucose fermentation
- Nucleic acid fermentation
Answer ✔ (a) Protein fermentation
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Q.8 The biosynthesis of carbohydrates from simpler, non carbohydrate precursors is… . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Gluconeogenesis
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Q.9 An oxidative pathway of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as…
- Phosphogluconate pathway
- Pentose phosphate pathway
- Hexose monophosphate pathway
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
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Q.10 The process of breakdown of glycogen to blood glucose is … . .
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenesis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
Answer ✔ (d) Glycogenolysis
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Q.1 The process of converting glucose to glycogen for storage is…
- Glycogenolysis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycogenesis
- Gluconeogenesis
Answer ✔ (c) Glycogenesis
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Q.2 The catabolic pathway by which a molecule of glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate is ..
- Glycogenolysis
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycolysis
- Thermogenesis
Answer ✔ (c) Glycolysis
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Q.3 What is glycolysis?
- synthesis of glycogen
- breakdown of glycogen
- synthesis of glucose
- Utilization of glucose
Answer ✔ (d) Utilization of glucose
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Q.4 Where does glycolysis occur?
- Cytosol
- Mitochondria
- Nucleus
- Ribosomes
Answer ✔ (a) Cytosol
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Q.5 Glycolysis occurs in …. cells
- Plant
- Animals
- Eukaryotic
- All of them
Answer ✔ (a) Plant
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Q.6 Oxidation of glucose for energy production is… ..
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
- Thermogenesis
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (d) Glycolysis
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Q.7 Glycolysis is the conversion of
- Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate
- Fructose into pyruvate
- Glucose into phosphoenolpyruvate
- Glucose into pyruvate
Answer ✔ (d) Glucose into pyruvate
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Q.8 Glycolysis is also known as?
- Embden Meyerhof pathway
- HMP-shun
- Respiratory cycle
- Kreb’s cycle
Answer ✔ (a) Embden Meyerhof pathway
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Q.9 EMP stands for …
- Embden Meyerhof & parulekar
- Emmoline Meyerhof & parnas
- Embden Meyerhof & parnas
- Embden Meyerhof & parnar
Answer ✔ (c) Embden Meyerhof & parnas
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Q.10 In the EMP pathway, the steps involved are ……
- Energy generation phase
- Energy investment phase
- Splitting phase
- All of them
Answer ✔ (d) All of them
B. Pharma • Biochemistry
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