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Home ❭ Questions ❭ One Liners ❭ A drug that dulls the sense of pain. It differs from an anesthetic agent in that it relieves pain without loss of consciousness.
A drug that dulls the sense of pain. It differs from an anesthetic agent in that it relieves pain without loss of consciousness.
Pharmacology Pharmacist Competitive Exams DSSSB Pharmacist
Q. A drug that dulls the sense of pain. It differs from an anesthetic agent in that it relieves pain without loss of consciousness.
Ans → Analgesic
Explanation →
This question is taken from the test/quiz post: Pharmacology Chapter 1 Revision: Key One-Liner Questions for Pharmacist Exams - attemp/practice
More oneliners in - Pharmacology Chapter 1 Revision: Key One-Liner Questions for Pharmacist Exams
Q. Continued substance use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent psychological, or physical problem that is caused or exacerbated by use of the substance
Ans → Addiction
Explanation →
Q. A ligand that binds to a receptor and alters the receptor state resulting in a biological response.
Ans → Agonist
Explanation →
Q. A partial agonist is an agonist that produces a maximal response that is less than the maximal response produced by another agonist acting at the same receptors on the same tissue.
Ans → Partial Agonist
Explanation →
Q. A full agonist is an agonist that produces the largest maximal response of any known agonist that acts on the same receptor.
Ans → Full Agonist
Explanation →
Q. An inverse agonist is a ligand that by binding to a receptor reduces the fraction of receptors in an active conformation, thereby reducing basal activity.
Ans → Inverse Agonist
Explanation →
Q. The amount of change in measured output per unit change in input.
Ans → Amplification
Explanation →
Q. A drug that dulls the sense of pain. It differs from an anesthetic agent in that it relieves pain without loss of consciousness.
Ans → Analgesic
Explanation →
Q. The joint effect of two or more drugs such that the combined effect is less than the sum of the effects produced by each agent separately.
Ans → Antagonism
Explanation →
Q. The determination of the potency of a physical, chemical or biological agent, by means of a biological indicator
Ans → Biological Assay
Explanation →
Q. The percent of dose entering the systemic circulation after administration of a given dosage form.
Ans → Bioavailability
Explanation →
Q. The science and study of the ways in which the pharmaceutical formulation of administered agents can influence their pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic behaviour.
Ans → Biopharmaceutics
Explanation →
Q. Chemical alteration of an agent (drug) that occurs by virtue of the sojourn of the agent in a biological system.
Ans → Biotransformation
Explanation →
Q. The movement of chemicals (drugs) into, through, and out of biological organisms or their parts.
Ans → Biotranslocation
Explanation →
More one-liners in - Pharmacology
Q. A formal non-ambiguous, nomenclature system for the assignment of absolute configuration of structure to chiral atoms, using the Cahn, Ingold and Prelog priority rules.
Ans → R,S convention
Explanation →
Q. Name the cell envelope structure outside the cell wall in some bacteria that allows bacteria to adhere to surfaces,
Ans → glycocalyx
Explanation →
Q. cancer of skin that develops when melanocytes (the cells that give the skin its tan or brown color) start to grow out of control.
Ans → Melanoma
Explanation →
Q. A partial agonist is an agonist that produces a maximal response that is less than the maximal response produced by another agonist acting at the same receptors on the same tissue.
Ans → Partial Agonist
Explanation →
Q. The two final products in the -oxidation of odd chain fatty acids are
Ans → Acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA
Explanation →
Q. An antibacterial and antiprotozoan drug of the nitroimidazole class that is activated in anaerobic target cell and introduces DNA strand breakage, thus interfering with DNA replication in target cells
Ans → metronidazole
Explanation →
Q. An individual capable of transmitting a pathogen to another individual without becoming infected
Ans → passive carrier
Explanation →
Q. Having numerous flagella covering the entire surface of a bacterial cell is known as
Ans → peritrichous
Explanation →
Q. The stage of replication during which various proteins bind to the origin of replication to begin the replication process
Ans → initiation of DNA replication
Explanation →
Q. Cheese is not given with MAO inhibitors because there is a risk of
Ans → Hypertensive crisis
Explanation →
Q. Class of antibacterials that inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to peptidoglycan subunits and blocking their insertion into the cell wall
Ans → glycopeptides
Explanation →
Q. Use of products containing genetic material (e.g., pDNA, antisense DNA, si RNA) to treat a disease or condition, or to modify or manipulate the expression of genetic material or to alter the biological properties of living cells.
Ans → gene therapy
Explanation →
Q. FIGLU (formimino glutamic acid) is excreted in urine in the deficiency of vitamin
Ans → Folic acid
Explanation →
Q. Examples of two enzymes containing zinc are
Ans → Alcohol dehydrogenase, carbonic anhydrase
Explanation →
Q. A ring structure formed from complement proteins C6 through C9 that penetrates the membranes of a targeted cell, causing cell lysis and death
Ans → membrane attack complex (MAC)
Explanation →
Q. A process in which the forward reaction can reach an equilibrium with the reverse reaction.
Ans → reversible process
Explanation →
Q. Movement of a pathogen from one host to another population through physical contact or through droplet transmission
Ans → horizontal direct transmission
Explanation →
Q. The phenomenon of disorganization of native protein structure is known as
Ans → Denaturation
Explanation →
Q. A glycoprotein expressed only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells and involved in the presentation of foreign antigens from pathogens ingested by phagocytosis
Ans → MHC II molecule
Explanation →
Q. The total number of ATP produced by the oxidation of a molecule of palmitic acid is
Ans → 129 ATP,
Explanation →
Q. An infection of the external ear canal, most commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa; often called swimmer’s ear
Ans → otitis externa
Explanation →