Q1. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A) Work done can only be negative.
• B) Work done can be positive or negative depending on the direction of force.
• C) Work done does not depend on force or displacement.
• D) Work done can only be positive.

Answer: (B) Work done can be positive or negative depending on the direction of force.

Work = F·s cosθ. Depending on direction of force, work can be positive or negative.

Q2. Through which method of cell division are the diploid chromosomes divided into haploid gametes?

• A) Mitosis
• B) Binary Fission
• C) Amitosis
• D) Meiosis

Answer: (D) Meiosis

Meiosis reduces chromosome number from diploid (2n) to haploid (n).

Q3. The power of a lens is defined as:

• A) The reciprocal of its focal length in meters
• B) The ratio of image distance to object distance
• C) The product of its focal length and refractive index
• D) The square of its focal length

Answer: (A) The reciprocal of its focal length in meters

Power (P) = 1/f (in meters). Unit is dioptre.

Q4. When a thick glass slab is placed over printed matter, the letters appear raised. This is due to ___________.

• A) Scattering of light
• B) Refraction of light
• C) Total internal reflection
• D) Polarization of light

Answer: (B) Refraction of light

Refraction causes apparent shift making letters appear raised.

Q5. The motion of a satellite orbiting the Earth in a circular path at constant speed is a classic example of uniform circular motion. What property of this motion prevents its acceleration from being zero?

• A) The total mechanical energy is conserved necessitating acceleration.
• B) The direction of motion changes continuously at every point, meaning the velocity is changing.
• C) The object's mass continually changes due to orbital dynamics.
• D) The speed is too high for the gravitational force to sustain a constant velocity.

Answer: (B) The direction of motion changes continuously at every point, meaning the velocity is changing.

Acceleration exists because velocity direction changes continuously (centripetal acceleration).

Q6. Asthma primarily affects which part of the respiratory system?

• A) Diaphragm
• B) Bronchi and bronchioles
• C) Trachea
• D) Alveoli

Answer: (B) Bronchi and bronchioles

Asthma causes inflammation and narrowing of bronchi and bronchioles.

Q7. Which of the following describes an example of uniform circular motion?

• A) A train moving on its track
• B) A car accelerating on its way
• C) A ball thrown vertically upwards
• D) A fan blade rotating at constant speed

Answer: (D) A fan blade rotating at constant speed

Uniform circular motion requires constant speed in circular path.

Q8. During reproduction, why is it important to create DNA copies?

• A) For blood circulation
• B) For digestion
• C) For inheritance of traits
• D) For respiration

Answer: (C) For inheritance of traits

DNA copying ensures transmission of hereditary traits.

Q9. What happens when a naphthalene ball is burnt in a metal plate in open space?

• A) It burns with a blue flame.
• B) It burns with yellow flame with no deposit on the metal plate.
• C) It burns with a yellow flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.
• D) It burns with a blue flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.

Answer: (B) It burns with yellow flame with no deposit on the metal plate.

Q10. When water and nutrients are available, algae grow and multiply rapidly by the process of _________.

• A) spore formation
• B) pollination
• C) fragmentation
• D) budding

Answer: (C) fragmentation

Algae commonly reproduce by fragmentation.

Q11. A coil has a resistance of 44 Ω. If it is connected across a 220 V supply, what is the power consumed by the coil?

• A) 5 W
• B) 1100 W
• C) 110 W
• D) 0.2 W

Answer: (B) 1100 W

P = V²/R = 220²/44 = 1100 W.

Q12. Which of the following options best describes the term Culture Fishery?

• A) Catching fishes from marine water
• B) Capturing fishes from artificial resources
• C) Farming of the fishes
• D) Capturing fishes from natural resources

Answer: (C) Farming of the fishes

Q13. A body is dropped from a height. If it falls for 3.0 s and g = 10 m/s², its final velocity (v) is ______________.

• A) 10 m/s
• B) 30 m/s
• C) 40 m/s
• D) 20 m/s

Answer: (B) 30 m/s

v = gt = 10 × 3 = 30 m/s.

Q14. What happens when a zinc rod is placed in aqueous copper sulphate solution?

• A) The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.
• B) The temperature of the solution falls.
• C) Heat is required to start the reaction.
• D) No chemical change observed.

Answer: (A) The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.

Zinc displaces copper, reducing blue CuSO4 solution.

Q15. The fractional atomic mass of chlorine is due to which of the following?

• A) Presence of ions
• B) Presence of isotopes
• C) Its compound nature
• D) Experimental error

Answer: (B) Presence of isotopes

Chlorine exists as isotopes Cl-35 and Cl-37.

Q16. The functional group which does NOT contain oxygen hetero atom is:

• A) halo alkane
• B) ketone
• C) carboxylic acid
• D) alcohol

Answer: (A) halo alkane

Q17. What is the main role of micelles in the cleansing action of soap?

• A) To trap and remove oil and dirt from clothes
• B) To reduce the hardness of water
• C) To produce lather with water
• D) To increase the surface tension of water

Answer: (A) To trap and remove oil and dirt from clothes

Micelles trap oily dirt in hydrophobic core.

Q18. Which poultry are birds farmed to produce eggs?

• A) Milch
• B) Common carp
• C) Layers
• D) Broilers

Answer: (C) Layers

Q19. Statement 1: The potential difference is measured in volts. Statement 2: One volt is equal to one newton per coulomb. Which of the following is true?

• A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• B) Only Statement 2 is correct.
• C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
• D) Only Statement 1 is correct.

Answer: (D) Only Statement 1 is correct.

1 volt = 1 joule/coulomb, not newton/coulomb.

Q20. The frequency of a sound wave is 50 Hz. How much time will it take to complete one wave?

• A) 50 s
• B) 0.02 s
• C) 0.2 s
• D) 5 s

Answer: (B) 0.02 s

Time period T = 1/f = 1/50 = 0.02 s.

Q21. Which of the following statements best explains the Law of Constant Proportions?

• A) Elements are always found in random ratios in a compound.
• B) Atoms can be divided into smaller particles during a reaction.
• C) Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
• D) A chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass.

Answer: (D) A chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass.

Q22. Which of the following is NOT used for expressing the concentration of a solution?

• A) Volume by Volume percentage of a solution
• B) Volume by Mass percentage of a solution
• C) Mass by volume percentage of a solution
• D) Mass by mass percentage of a solution

Answer: (B) Volume by Mass percentage of a solution

Q23. Which of the following plant tissue performs photosynthesis?

• A) Chlorenchyma
• B) Sclerenchyma
• C) Xylem
• D) Phloem

Answer: (A) Chlorenchyma

Q24. Which of the following life processes is important to bring variation in species?

• A) Heterotrophic nutrition
• B) Transportation
• C) Autotrophic nutrition
• D) Sexual reproduction

Answer: (D) Sexual reproduction

Q25. Which of the following metals is extracted in the middle of the activity series?

• A) Gold
• B) Potassium
• C) Iron
• D) Sodium

Answer: (C) Iron