Q1. A person with sickle cell anaemia is

• A) more prone to malaria
• B) more prone to typhoid
• C) less prone to malaria
• D) less prone to typhoid

Q2. Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?

• A) Diphtheria
• B) Flu
• C) Cancer
• D) Malaria

Q3. Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively ?

• A) Typhoid and AIDS
• B) AIDS and cancer
• C) Pneumonia and malaria
• D) Cancer and malaria

Q4. Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by

• A) Plasmodium vivax
• B) Trichophyton
• C) Salmonella typhi
• D) Rhinoviruses

Q5. Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ?

• A) Dysentery
• B) Malaria
• C) Plague
• D) Both (a) & (c)

Q6. Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ?

• A) Legionella spp.
• B) Burcella melitensis
• C) Vibrio cholerae
• D) Burcella melitensis

Q7. Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ?

• A) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
• B) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
• C) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
• D) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits

Q8. The common cold is caused by

• A) Rhino viruses
• B) Streptococcus pnemoniae
• C) Salmonella typhimurium
• D) Plasmodium vivax.

Q9. Hepatitis B is transmitted through

• A) sneezing
• B) female Anopheles
• C) coughing
• D) blood transfusion

Q10. A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in malarial fever, is

• A) interferon
• B) haemozoin
• C) hirudin
• D) colostrum

Q11. Humoral immunity is associated with

• A) T-cells
• B) B-cells
• C) macrophages
• D) both (a) and (b)

Q12. The antibody which can cross placental barrier is

• A) IgA
• B) JgE
• C) IgM
• D) IgG

Q13. The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is

• A) IgA
• B) IgG
• C) IgE
• D) IgM

Q14. A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation.

• A) antigen
• B) antibiotics
• C) exotoxin
• D) endotoxins

Q15. Passive immunity can be conferred directly by

• A) vaccines
• B) antitoxins
• C) colostrum
• D) both (b) & (c)

Q16. Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ?

• A) Activated and strong pathogenic antigens
• B) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
• C) Hyperactive and strong pathogen
• D) Preformed antibodies

Q17. Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ?

• A) Active immunisation
• B) Passive immunisation
• C) Auto-immunisation
• D) Humoral immunisation

Q18. The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing

• A) B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes
• B) antibodies to the toxin
• C) weakend pathogen
• D) inactivated T-lymphocytes.

Q19. Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of

• A) auto-immunisation
• B) passive immunisation
• C) active immunisation
• D) simple immunisation

Q20. During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the following hosts ?

• A) Human
• B) Female Anopheles mosquito
• C) Male Anopheles mosquito
• D) Both (a) and (b)

Q21. Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by

• A) Entamoeba histolytica
• B) E. coli
• C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
• D) Trichophyton

Q22. Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ?

• A) Plague
• B) Amoebiasis
• C) Leprosy
• D) Whooping cough

Q23. Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by

• A) Ascaris
• B) E.coli
• C) Wuchereria
• D) Trichophyton

Q24. Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?

• A) Lymphatic vessels
• B) Respiratory system
• C) Nervous system
• D) Blood circulation

Q25. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector ?

• A) Filariasis
• B) Amoebiasis
• C) Typhoid
• D) Pneumonia