Orciprenaline is also known as metaproterenol, is a bronchodilator.
Q2. Which of these hypnotic possess a muscle relaxant property?
A) Paraldehyde
B) Phenobarbitone
C) Barbitone
D) Diazepam
Answer: (D) Diazepam
Diazepam possesses anticonvulasant and skeletal muscle relaxant activity.
Q3. Paracetamol is excreted as-
A) Glucuronide
B) Deacetylated product
C) Hydroxy derivatives
D) none of the above
Answer: (A) Glucuronide
Paracetamol is metabolised in the liver (90-95%) and?excreted?in the urine mainly as the glucuronide and sulphate conjugates. less than 5% is excreted as unchanged paracetamol.
Q4. Cardiovuscular action of epinephrine is mediated through-
A) α - receptor
B) α and β receptor
C) β receptor
D) none of the above
Answer: (C) β receptor
Ephinephrine is also known as adrenaline hormone and neurotransmitter. Cardiovascular action of epinephrine is mediated through β receptor.
Q5. Slow metabolism of isoniazid in africans are due to-
A) Genetic variation
B) Idiosyncracy
C) Teratogenic effect
D) none of the above
Answer: (A) Genetic variation
Isoniazid is given in the treatment of TB. Also known as isonicotinylhydrazine. In Africans Metabolism of Isoniazid is slow due genetic variations.
Q6. Phenytoin act as anti-epilectic drug by-
A) inhibiting the enzyme
B) blocking the receptor
C) acting on cell membrane
D) non-specific drug action
Answer: (C) acting on cell membrane
Phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative, class 1B anti-arrythmic. It act on cell membrane by sodium channel blockade.
Q7. Isosorbide dinitrate is usually administered by-
A) sublingual route
B) Oral route
C) Intravenous route
D) none of the above
Answer: (A) sublingual route
Isosorbide Dinitrate is used to prevent chest pain (angina attacks). It works by relaxing and widening blood vessels so blood can flow more easily to the heart. These tablets will not treat an angina attack that has already begun. They may be also used to control heart failure. generally taken as sublingual route (below the tongue) for quick absorption and action in emergency.
Q8. Methotrexate is a -
A) Enzyme inhibitor
B) Receptor blocker
C) Alkylating agent
D) Anti-metabolic
Answer: (D) Anti-metabolic
Methotrexate is used in cancer, autoimmune diseases and ectopic pregnancy.
Q9. Which one of these antibiotics is used in amoebic dysentery?
A) Tetracycline
B) Bacitracin
C) Paramomycin
D) tobramycin
Answer: (C) Paramomycin
Paromomycin is an antimicrobial used to treat a number of parasitic infections including amebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis, and tapeworm infection. It is a first-line treatment for amebiasis or giardiasis during pregnancy. Otherwise it is generally a second line treatment option. It is used by mouth, applied to the skin, or by injection into a muscle.
Q10. Niclosamide is used in the infection caused by-
A) Nematodes
B) Cestodes
C) Trematodes
D) all of the above
Answer: (B) Cestodes
Niclosamide is a tenacide in the antihelmintic family especially effective against cestodes.
Q11. Which one of these is not a antiviral agent?
A) Amantadine
B) Idoxuridine
C) Acyclovir
D) Haymycin
Answer: (D) Haymycin
Haymycin is a polyene antimycotic agent.
Q12. Amphotericin B, polyene antibiotic act by-
A) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
B) Inhibiting protein synthesis
C) Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
D) all of the above
Answer: (A) Intracting with fungal membrane sterol
Amphotericin B id often used for treatment of systemic fungal nfections.
Q13. Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with-
A) Penicillin
B) Cephalosporin
C) Sulphonamides
D) Erythromycin
Answer: (C) Sulphonamides
Stevens- Johnson syndrom affects the skin and mucus membrane and these is the common side effects of sulphonamides.
Q14. Penicillinase resistance penicillin include-
A) Penicillin G
B) Penicillin V
C) Cloxacilline
D) Ampicilline
Answer: (C) Cloxacilline
Cloxacillin used against staphylococci that produce β- lactamase.
Q15. Which one of the antibacterial agent is effective against typhoid fever?
A) Chloramphenicol
B) Penicillin
C) Teracycline
D) Sulphathiazole
Answer: (A) Chloramphenicol
Typhoid fever is also called pathogenic fever. Chloramphenicol is a second line agent in the treatment of tetracycline resistant cholera.
Q16. 5-hydroxytryptophan on decarboxylation gives-
A) Tryptophan
B) 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid
C) 5-hydroxytryptamine
D) Indole
Answer: (C) 5-hydroxytryptamine
On decarboxylation, 5-HT gives 5-Hydroxtryptamine (serotonin).
Q17. Pharmaclogical action of morphine is-
A) CNS stimulant
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Increase in blood pressure
D) Release of histamine
Answer: (A) CNS stimulant
Morphine is an opiod analgesic, it acts directly on the CNS.
Q18. Rhabdomylosis side effect is related with-
A) Atenolol
B) Atorvastatin
C) Propranalol
D) Digoxin
Answer: (B) Atorvastatin
Atorvastatin is primarily used for lowering blood cholesterol for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.
Q19. Inchthamol is used in the treatment of-
A) Tuberculosis
B) Diarrhoea
C) inflammation and boils
D) Leprosy
Answer: (C) inflammation and boils
Inchthamol is used for treating some skin disease including eczema and psoriasis.
Q20. Famciclovir is an ester prodrug of-
A) Cytosine nucleoside
B) Guanosine nucleoside
C) Thymidine nucleoside
D) Adenine nucleoside
Answer: (B) Guanosine nucleoside
Famciclovir is used for the treatment of various herpes virus infections, most commonly for herpes zoster.
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