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Q.1 Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following
- enzyme
- substrate
- end products
- intermediate end products
Answer ✔ (c) end products
Explanation: end products
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Q.2 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
- succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
- cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
- hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
- carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
Explanation: succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
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Q.3 Insulin is made up of _______ and _______.
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Insulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose.
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Q.4 Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by
- lowering activation energy
- increasing activation energy
- increasing temperature and pH
- decreasing temperature and pH
Answer ✔ (a) lowering activation energy
Explanation: Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
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Q.5 Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
- Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
- Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
- Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
- Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Answer ✔ (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
Explanation: Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
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Q.6 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
- Uracil
- Cytosine
- Guanine
- Thymine
Answer ✔ (c) Guanine
Explanation: Guanine is a purine.
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Q.7 Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of
- Peptidase
- Amylase
- Sucrose
- Lipase
Answer ✔ (b) Amylase
Explanation: Amylase
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Q.8 Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids
- Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
- Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion
- Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
- Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer ✔ (d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Explanation: Both Assertion and Reason are false
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Q.9 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
- End product
- External factors
- Enzyme
- Substrate
Answer ✔ (a) End product
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Q.10 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
- Lactose
- Starch
- Glycogen
- Dextrin
Answer ✔ (a) Lactose
Explanation: Lactose is a disaccharide made up of glucose and galactose.
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Q.11 Inulin is made up of _______ and _______
- glucose and fructose
- glucose and fructose
- fructose and mannose
- mannose and glucose
Answer ✔ (b) glucose and fructose
Explanation: Inulin is a polysaccharide made up of glucose and fructose
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Q.12 A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
- Collagen
- Trypsin
- Myosin
- Actin
Answer ✔ (c) Myosin
Explanation: Myosin
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Q.13 NADP contains vitamin ______
- B1
- B2
- B3
- B12
Answer ✔ (c) B3
Explanation: B3 also named as niacin.
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Q.14 With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?
- Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
- Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme
Answer ✔ (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Explanation: Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
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Q.15 Inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. Hence blocking the reaction. This is an example of
- allosteric inhibition
- feedback inhibition
- uncompetitive inhibition
- competitive inhibition
Answer ✔ (d) competitive inhibition
Explanation: When substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, it completes the reaction.When inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, it blocks the reaction
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Q.16 The fastest enzyme known is
- DNA polymerase
- carbonic anhydrase
- carbonic dehydrogenase
- DNA ligase
Answer ✔ (b) carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: The fastest enzyme known is carbonic anhydrase. It converts 106 molecules of carbon dioxide molecules per second.
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Q.17 Lecithin is a
- polysaccharide
- protein
- nucleic acid
- lipid
Answer ✔ (d) lipid
Explanation: Lecithin is a phospholipid.
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Q.18 The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called
- enzymatic energy
- activation energy
- substrate energy
- initiation energy
Answer ✔ (b) activation energy
Explanation: The minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction is called activation energy
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Q.19 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in
- Enhancing oxidative metabolism
- Being synthesised in the body of organisms
- Being proteinaceous
- Regulating metabolism
Answer ✔ (d) Regulating metabolism
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Q.20 Nitrogenous bases present in DNA
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
- Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
- Adenine, thymine, uracil
- Guanine, uracil
Answer ✔ (b) Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
Explanation: Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
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Q.21 Metabolic intermediates found in living system which are essential for growth and life is called___________
- Saponins
- Tannins
- Secondary metabolite
- Primary metabolites
Answer ✔ (d) Primary metabolites
Explanation: Primary metabolites
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Q.22 Enormous diversity of protein molecules is due to
- R groups of amino acids
- Sequence of amino acids
- Peptide bonds
- Amino groups of amino acids
Answer ✔ (b) Sequence of amino acids
Explanation: Sequence of amino acids
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Q.23 Anti-parallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that
- One strand turns anticlockwise
- Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
- Phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends share the same position
- One strand turns clockwise
Answer ✔ (b) Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
Explanation: Phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands (poles) are in opposite position
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Q.24 The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves
- Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
- Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
- Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
- Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Answer ✔ (d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
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Q.25 The most common monomer of carbohydrates is
- Sucrose
- Fructose
- Maltose
- Glucose
Answer ✔ (d) Glucose
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Q.1 Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
- It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
- It is a molecular disease.
- It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria
- All of the above.
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above.
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Q.2 The first genetic material could be
- protein
- cabohydrates
- DNA
- RNA
Answer ✔ (d) RNA
Explanation: The first genetic material could be RNA
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Q.3 The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
- chromosome 21 and Y
- chromosome 1 and X
- chromosome 1 and Y
- chromosome X and Y
Answer ✔ (c) chromosome 1 and Y
Explanation: chromosome 1 and Y is the correct answer.
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Q.4 Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DN A ?
- Rosalind Franklin
- Maurice Wilkins
- Erwin Chargaff
- Meselson and Stahl
Answer ✔ (b) Maurice Wilkins
Explanation: Maurice Wilkins contributed in development of double helix model
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Q.5 Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?
- Initiation
- Elongation
- Termination
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
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Q.6 Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
- DNA-replication
- transcription
- translation
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) transcription
Explanation: It takes place at the level of transcription
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Q.7 Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
- Chromosome 1
- Chromosome 11
- Chromosome 21
- Chromosome X
Answer ✔ (d) Chromosome X
Explanation: Chromosome X was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced
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Q.8 In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
- A – DNA
- B – DNA
- cDNA
- rDNA
Answer ✔ (c) cDNA
Explanation: Such a DNA is called cDNA
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Q.9 If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
- 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
- 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
- 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
- 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Answer ✔ (d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Explanation: Sequence will be 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
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Q.10 The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes
- the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
- the promoter and the terminator region
- the structural gene and the terminator region
- the structural gene only.
Answer ✔ (b) the promoter and the terminator region
Explanation: The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes the promoter and the terminator region
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Q.11 If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be
- 5’ – UAC – 3’
- 5’ – CAU – 3’
- 5’-AUG – 3’
- 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer ✔ (b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
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Q.12 The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
- 5’- end
- 3’ – end
- anticodon site
- DHUloop.
Answer ✔ (b) 3’ – end
Explanation: The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its 3’ – end
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Q.13 To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to
- the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
- the larger ribosomal sub-unit
- the whole ribosome
- no such specificity exists
Answer ✔ (a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Explanation: bind to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
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Q.14 In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
- lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
- repressor binds to operator
- RNA polymerase binds to the operator
- lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
Answer ✔ (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Explanation: In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
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Q.15 In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
- glycosidic bonds
- phosphodiester bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
Answer ✔ (b) phosphodiester bonds
Explanation: In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by phosphodiester bonds
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Q.16 If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
- 20%
- 40%
- 30%
- 60%
Answer ✔ (c) 30%
Explanation: 30%
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Q.17 If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of bases on complementary strand ?
- ATGCATGCA
- AUGCAUGCA
- TACTACGT
- UACGUACGU
Answer ✔ (c) TACTACGT
Explanation: The sequence of bases on complementary strand TACTACGT
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Q.18 How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
- 2 nm
- 3.4 nm
- 34 nm
- 0.34 nm
Answer ✔ (d) 0.34 nm
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Q.19 Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
- central dogma reverse
- reverse transcription
- feminism
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
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Q.20 Histone proteins are
- basic, negatively charged
- basic, positively charged
- acidic, positively charged
- acidic, negatively charged
Answer ✔ (b) basic, positively charged
Explanation: Histone proteins are basic, positively charged
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Q.21 The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called
- nucleotides
- nucleosides
- histone octamer
- nucleosomes
Answer ✔ (d) nucleosomes
Explanation: seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope are called nucleosomes
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Q.22 Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
- It is densely packed
- It stains dark
- It is transcriptionally active.
- It is late replicating
Answer ✔ (c) It is transcriptionally active.
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Q.23 They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
- transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
- structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
- Mendel’s laws of inheritance
- biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer ✔ (b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Explanation: They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
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Q.24 Amino acids which are specified by single codons are
- phenylalanine and arginine
- tryptophan and methionine
- valine and proline
- methionine and aroinine
Answer ✔ (b) tryptophan and methionine
Explanation: Amino acids which are specified by single codons are tryptophan and methionine
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Q.25 Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
- Genetic code is ambiguous.
- Genetic code is deqenerate
- Genetic code is universal
- Genetic code is non-overlanning.
Answer ✔ (a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
Explanation: Genetic code is ambiguous is incorrect.
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Q.1 Which among the following is not ammonotelic
- Aquatic amphibian
- Aquatic insect
- Bony fishes
- Mammal
Answer ✔ (d) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
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Q.2 Which among the following is not ureotelic
- Mammal
- Aquatic insect
- Terrestrial amphibian
- Marine fishes
Answer ✔ (b) Aquatic insect
Explanation: Aquatic insect is ammonotelic
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Q.3 Which among the following is not uricootelic
- Mammal
- Reptiles
- Birds
- Snails
Answer ✔ (a) Mammal
Explanation: Mammal is ureotelic
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Q.4 Which among is the most toxic
- Ammonia
- Uric acid
- Urea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ammonia
Explanation: Ammonia is the most toxic
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Q.5 Which requires min water for removal from body
- Ammonia
- Urea
- Uric acid
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Uric acid
Explanation: Uric acid is least toxic thus requires less water
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Q.6 Flame cells or protonephridia are NOT excretory structure of
- Planaria
- Annelids
- Cockroach
- Rotifers
Answer ✔ (c) Cockroach
Explanation: They have malphigian body for excretion
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Q.7 Kidney is present between
- T12 L3
- T11 L2
- T 10 L1
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) T12 L3
Explanation: Present between last thoracic and third lumbar
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Q.8 Green glands/ antennal glands are excretory structures of which organism
- Earthworm
- Prawn
- Cockroach
- Planaria
Answer ✔ (b) Prawn
Explanation: Planaria have flame cells, cockroach have malphigian tubules and earthworm have nephridia
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Q.9 What is an average weight of kidney
- 80-90g
- 120-150g
- 110-120g
- 120-170g
Answer ✔ (d) 120-170g
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Q.10 Each kidney has how many nephrons
- 1 million
- 2 million
- 2 thousand
- 2 hundred
Answer ✔ (b) 2 million
Explanation: 2 million nephrons are present in each kidney
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Q.11 What are the structural and functional unit of kidney
- Nephrons
- Cell
- Neurons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Nephrons
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Q.12 Bowman capsule with glomerulus is known as
- Malphigian body
- Renal corpuscle
- Malphigian capsule
- Both b and c
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Malphigian capsul is an excretory structure.
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Q.13 Which nephrons run deep into the medulla
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Juxta medullary nephron
Explanation: Cortical nephron is short in length
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Q.14 Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method of correction in which case
- Renal calculi
- Renal failure
- Uremia
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Renal failure
Explanation: A functioning kidney is used in transplantation
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Q.15 Which loop of hence is permeable to water
- Descending loop
- Ascending loop
- Both the loops
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Descending loop
Explanation: Only descending loop of henle is permeable to water.
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Q.16 Which gland remove substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
- Pineal gland
- Pancreas
- Gall bladder
- Sweat glands
Answer ✔ (d) Sweat glands
Explanation: Sweat glands release these substances
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Q.17 Presence of glucose in urine is known as
- Ketonuria
- Glycosides
- Glycosuria
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Glycosuria
Explanation: Ketonuria is presence of ketone body in urine
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Q.18 Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
- Uremia
- Renal failure
- Renal calculi
- Glomerulonephritis
Answer ✔ (d) Glomerulonephritis
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Q.19 Angiotensinogen 2 is
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Vasoconstriction
Explanation: It only cause vasoconstriction
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Q.20 ANF can cause
- Vasoconstriction
- Vasodilation
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Vasodilation
Explanation: It only cause vasodilation
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Q.21 GFR in healthy individual is
- 180 L
- 150L
- 130L
- 120L
Answer ✔ (a) 180 L
Explanation: Its approx 125 ml/min I.e 180L per day
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Q.22 Ciliated columnar cells are lined in which of the following
- DCT
- Both a and c
- PCT
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) PCT
Explanation: In DCT columnar cells are present w/o cilia
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Q.23 On average how much blood is filtered by kidney per minute
- 500-800ml
- 1100- 1200ml
- 1500-1700ml
- 1600-1800ml
Answer ✔ (b) 1100- 1200ml
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Q.24 Vasa recta is present in which type of nephron
- Cortical nephron
- Juxta medullary nephron
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Cortical nephron
Explanation: Its absent or highly reduced in cortical nephron
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Q.1 Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum cannot be seen during
- late telophase
- late prophase
- early anaphase
- late metaphase
Answer ✔ (b) late prophase
Explanation: Cells, when viewed under microscope at the end of prophase, do not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear envelope.
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Q.2 Cell plate grows from
- walls to the centre
- centre to the walls
- in patches
- simultaneously
Answer ✔ (b) centre to the walls
Explanation: Cell plate grows during cytokinesis from centre to the walls
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Q.3 Choose the correct sequence. A. Chromatin condensation B. Protein synthesis C. Duplication of centrioles D. Centrioles moves towards opposite poles
- C, A, B, D
- C, B, A, D
- C, D, B, A
- A, C, D, B
Answer ✔ (b) C, B, A, D
Explanation: Duplication of centrioles occurs in S-phase.Protein synthesis occurs in G2 phase.chromatin condensation is followed by centrioles movement towards the poles. (Prophase)
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Q.4 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into
- Prophase
- Anaphase
- Telophase
- Metaphase
Answer ✔ (d) Metaphase
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Q.5 Karyokinesis is the term used for
- division of cytoplasm
- division of nucleoplasm
- division of nucleus
- separation of daughter chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) separation of daughter chromosomes
Explanation: Karyokinesis means separation of daughter chromosomes.Cytokinesis means division of cytoplasm
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Q.6 During which stage the chromosomes first become visible
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
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Q.7 In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
- Metaphase
- Interphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (c) Prophase
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Q.8 Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence: I. Terminalization II. Crossing over III. Synapsis IV. Disjunction of genomes The correct sequences
- II, I, IV, III
- III, II, I, IV
- IV, III, II, I
- I, IV, III, II
Answer ✔ (b) III, II, I, IV
Explanation: III, II, I, IV
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Q.9 The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is
- splitting of the centromeres
- splitting of the chromatids
- replication of the genetic material
- condensation of the chromatin
Answer ✔ (a) splitting of the centromeres
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Q.10 what type of plant is formed when colchicine is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?
- Autotetraploid
- Haploid
- Triploid
- Allotetraploid
Answer ✔ (d) Allotetraploid
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Q.11 Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
- Pancreas
- Liver
- Ovary
- Kidney
Answer ✔ (c) Ovary
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Q.12 Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
- C, B, A, D, E
- C, A, B, E, D
- C, B, A, E, D
- D, B, C, E, A
Answer ✔ (c) C, B, A, E, D
Explanation: These are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I based on the chromosomal behaviour
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Q.13 How many chromosomes are there in onion root tip cell?
- 6
- 16
- 26
- 36
Answer ✔ (b) 16
Explanation: There are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cell.
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Q.14 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in
- Mitotic prophase
- Mitotic metaphase
- Meiotic metaphase
- Meiotic prophase
Answer ✔ (d) Meiotic prophase
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Q.15 Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
- Plasma membrane
- Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
- Plastids
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
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Q.16 Centromere is a constituent of
- Ribosome
- ER
- Chromosome
- Mitochondrion
Answer ✔ (c) Chromosome
Explanation: Chromosome
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Q.17 In which phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised?
- G0
- G1
- G2
- S
Answer ✔ (c) G2
Explanation: In G2 phase of cell cycle, proteins are synthesised for mitosis and cell growth continues
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Q.18
- Early prophase
- Early metaphase
- Early telophase
- Early anaphase
Answer ✔ (b) Early metaphase
Explanation: Chromosomes are positioning towards the equator.
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Q.19 The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
- Anaphase
- Metaphase
- Prophase
- Telophase
Answer ✔ (a) Anaphase
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Q.20 Synaptonemal complex dissolves in _____ stage.
- Zygotene
- Pachytene
- Diakinesis
- Diplotene
Answer ✔ (d) Diplotene
Explanation: Synaptonemal complex dissolves in diplotene stage of Prophase I.
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Q.21 Synapsis occurs between
- A male and female gametes
- Ribosome and m-RNA
- Spindle fibres and centromeres
- Two homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Two homologous chromosomes
Explanation: Two homologous chromosomes
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Q.22 Division of nucleus without being followed by cytokinesis results into
- Phargmoplast
- Polyploidy
- Uninucleate condition
- Multinucleate condition
Answer ✔ (d) Multinucleate condition
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Q.23 A cell plate is laid down during
- Cytokinesis
- Interphase
- Karyokinesis
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Cytokinesis
Explanation: Cytokinesis
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Q.24 Crossing over results the exchange of genetic material, which occurs between
- Non-sister chromosomes
- Sister chromatids
- Non-homologous chromosome
- Homologous chromosomes
Answer ✔ (d) Homologous chromosomes
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Q.25 The number of chromosome and the amount of DNA are changed in
- Metaphase and M phase
- Anaphase and S phase
- Interphase and S phase
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Anaphase and S phase
Explanation: Anaphase and S phase
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Q.1 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Both a and b
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Q.2 Intercalary meristems are of
- Permanent nature
- Temporary nature
- Some are permanent some temporary
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Temporary nature
Explanation: Intercalary meristems are of temporary nature
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Q.3 Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during
- Phase of cell division
- Phase of cell elongation
- Phase of cell maturation
- Phase of cell differentiation
Answer ✔ (a) Phase of cell division
Explanation: Phase of cell division
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Q.4 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve
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Q.5 Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents
- ability of the plant to produce new cells
- efficiency index
- relative growth rate
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: r is the relative growth rate and also measures the ability of the plant to produce new plant material (efficiency index).
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Q.6 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
- Autonomic movement of variation
- Autonomic movement of locomotion
- Autonomic movement of growth
- Paratonic movement of growth
Answer ✔ (c) Autonomic movement of growth
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Q.7 Which one is incorrect?
- Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
- Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
- Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
Answer ✔ (c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
Explanation: Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast
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Q.8 The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is
- Organogenesis
- Cleavage
- Gastrulation
- Growth
Answer ✔ (b) Cleavage
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Q.9 Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?
- Ethylene
- Gibberellin
- IAA
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (a) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene
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Q.10 To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be
- given a dip in ascorbic acid
- maintained at room temperature
- refrigerated
- stored at the top of refrigerator
Answer ✔ (c) refrigerated
Explanation: refrigerated
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Q.11 Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of
- length of leaf
- increase in cell number
- surface area increase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (c) surface area increase
Explanation: Increase in surface area denotes the growth in a dorsiventral leaf
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Q.12 Plants grow throughout their life due to
- presence of meristems
- presence of vascular cambium
- presence of xylem and phloem
- presence of tracheids
Answer ✔ (a) presence of meristems
Explanation: Plants growth throughout their life due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body.
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Q.13 Mechanism of development was explained by
- Hans Dietrisch
- Spemann
- Both a and b
- Haemmerling
Answer ✔ (c) Both a and b
Explanation: Haemmerling
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Q.14 The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
- Aging
- Regeneration
- Abnormal development
- Primary inductio
Answer ✔ (b) Regeneration
Explanation: Regeneration
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Q.15 Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing industry?
- Auxins
- Gibberellins
- Ethylene
- Cytokinins
Answer ✔ (b) Gibberellins
Explanation: Gibberellins especially GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry
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Q.16 Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?
- Auxin
- Gibberelic acid
- Cytokinin
- Abscisic acid
Answer ✔ (d) Abscisic acid
Explanation: Abscisic acid are the derivatives of carotenoids.
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Q.17 Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.
- J-shaped
- S-shaped
- I-shaped
- Parabolic
Answer ✔ (b) S-shaped
Explanation: Typical plant growth represents sigmoid curve.
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Q.18 Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by
- auxins
- cytokinins
- gibberellins
- ethylene
Answer ✔ (c) gibberellins
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Q.19 Cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesoderm is called
- Gastrocoele
- Blastocoele
- Coelom
- Neurocoele
Answer ✔ (c) Coelom
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Q.20 IAA is naturally occurring plant hormone called
- Gibberlin
- Auxin
- Cytokinin
- Absicic acid
Answer ✔ (b) Auxin
Explanation: Auxin
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Q.21 Auxin is synthesised from in apical meristem from amino acid
- Isoleucine
- Methionine
- Niacin
- Tryptophan
Answer ✔ (d) Tryptophan
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Q.22 Growth regulator which induces parthenocarpy
- IAA
- ABA
- Cytokinin
- Ethylene
Answer ✔ (a) IAA
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Q.23 Formation of seedless fruit without act of fertilisation
- Parthenocarpy
- pseudocarpy
- Apomixis
- Parthenogenesis
Answer ✔ (a) Parthenocarpy
Explanation: Parthenocarpy
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Q.24 The major site for production of gibberellin is
- Embryos
- Roots
- Young leaves
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.25 Gibberellin is isolated from
- Brian et al
- Went
- Yabuta
- Kurosawa
Answer ✔ (a) Brian et al
Explanation: Brian et al
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Q.1 R.Q is ratio of
- CO2 produced to substarate consumed
- CO2 produced to O2 consumed
- oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
- oxygen consumed to water produced
Answer ✔ (b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
Explanation: CO2 produced to O2 consumed
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Q.2 Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the
- 1 – celled stage
- 2 – celled stage
- 3 – celled stage
- male gamete formation stage
Answer ✔ (b) 2 – celled stage
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Q.3 The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in
- cell cytoplasm
- inner mitochondrial membrane
- mitochondrial matrix
- nucleus
Answer ✔ (c) mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: Pyruvate is transported from cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in matrix of mitochondria
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Q.4 Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide + Ethanol
- Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
- Alcohol dehydrogenase
- None of these
- Both of these
Answer ✔ (d) Both of these
Explanation: In fermentation, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions in which pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
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Q.5 TCA cycle was discovered by
- Otto Meyerhof
- Hans Kreb
- Gustav Embden
- All of these
Answer ✔ (b) Hans Kreb
Explanation: TCA cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle was given by Hans Kreb. So it is also called as Kreb cycle.
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Q.6 Which one of the following describes the spikelet of a cereal or grass plant
- inferior ovary
- dehiscent fruit
- pair of glumes
- fused calyx
Answer ✔ (c) pair of glumes
Explanation: pair of glumes
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Q.7 Malacophily means
- pollination by wind
- pollination by water
- pollination by insects
- pollination by snails
Answer ✔ (d) pollination by snails
Explanation: pollination by snails
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Q.8 Herkogamy is a contrivance for
- allogamy
- autogamy
- chasmogamy
- cleistogamy
Answer ✔ (a) allogamy
Explanation: allogamy
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Q.9 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration
- 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
- 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
- all the formed inside mitochondria
- 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle
Answer ✔ (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
Explanation: 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
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Q.10 Complete the reaction. _________ + O2 → CO2 + _______ + Energy
- C6H12O6, 2H2O
- C12H22O11, 6H2O
- C6H12O6, 6H2O
- C12H22O11, 11H2O
Answer ✔ (c) C6H12O6, 6H2O
Explanation: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
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Q.11 The significant morphological feature of passion flower is the presence of
- numerous corolla
- androphore
- gynophore
- androgynophore
Answer ✔ (b) androphore
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Q.12 The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is
- Cytochrome C
- FADH
- NADH
- oxygen
Answer ✔ (d) oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in electron transport chain.
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Q.13 Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and complex IV?
- Cytochrome c
- cytochrome a3
- cytochrome a
- FADH2
Answer ✔ (a) Cytochrome c
Explanation: Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
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Q.14 Aleurone layer takes part in
- protection of delicate embryo
- enzyme synthesis
- transfer of food to cotyledons
- transfer of food from cotyledons to embryo tips
Answer ✔ (b) enzyme synthesis
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Q.15 A characteristic of drupe is
- fleshy seed coat
- stony pericarp
- stony mesocarp
- stony endocarp
Answer ✔ (d) stony endocarp
Explanation: stony endocarp is characteristic of drupe is
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Q.16 Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate steps is know as
- TCA pathway
- Glycolysis
- Hms pathway
- Glycolysis
Answer ✔ (b) Glycolysis
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Q.17 End product of glycolysis is
- acetyl Coenzyme A
- PEP
- pyruvate
- OAA
Answer ✔ (c) pyruvate
Explanation: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
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Q.18 Respiratory enzymes are located in
- mitochondrial matrix
- Cristae
- perimitochondrial space
- outer membrane
Answer ✔ (b) Cristae
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Q.19 Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
- 0.9
- 1.2
- 1
- 0
Answer ✔ (c) 1
Explanation: RQ i.e. respiratory quotient is 1.RQ = volume of CO2 evolved / volume of O2 consumed
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Q.20 One molecule of glucose yields ___ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.
- 2
- 16
- 38
- 42
Answer ✔ (c) 38
Explanation: One molecule of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP during aerobic respiration.
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Q.21 When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes:
- 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
- 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
- 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
- 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
Answer ✔ (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
Explanation: 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules
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Q.22 Most of the energy of the carbohydrates is released by oxidation when
- Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
- Pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl Co-A
- Sugar is converted into pyruvic acid
- Glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2
Answer ✔ (a) Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
Explanation: Pyruvic acid is converted into CO2 and H2O
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Q.23 Acetyl CoA combine with oxalo-acetate in presence of condensing enzyme citrate synthase to form 6-C compound called
- Malic acid
- Tartaric acid
- Pyruvic acid
- Citric acid
Answer ✔ (d) Citric acid
Explanation: Citric acid
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Q.24 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
- 10
- 8
- 5
- 12
Answer ✔ (a) 10
Explanation: 10 Number of oxygen atoms required for aerobic oxidation of one pyruvate
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Q.25 Most of the enzymes of the TCA cycle are present in
- Intermembrane space of mitochondria
- Mitochondrial matrix
- Inner membrane of mitochondria
- Cytoplasm
Answer ✔ (b) Mitochondrial matrix
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Q.1 The rate of photosynthesis is controlled by
- the rate of light reaction
- the rate of dark reaction
- the rates of both light and dark reactions
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (b) the rate of dark reaction
Explanation: the rate of dark reaction
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Q.2 The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.
- RuBP
- PGAL
- PGA
- ADP + NADP
Answer ✔ (a) RuBP
Explanation: RuBP
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Q.3 The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is
- malic acid
- phosphoenol pyruvate
- rubisco
- aspartic acid
Answer ✔ (b) phosphoenol pyruvate
Explanation: The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 pathway is phosphoenol pyruvate
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Q.4 The law of limiting factor was given by
- Calvin
- Blackman
- Priestley
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Blackman
Explanation: If a chemical process is affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be detrmined by the factor which is nearest to its minimal value
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Q.5 The metabolic pathway which produces carbohydrate is
- Calvin cycle
- Glycolysis
- Cyclic electron pathway
- Krebs cycle
Answer ✔ (a) Calvin cycle
Explanation: Calvin cycle
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Q.6 Manganese is required in
- Chlorophyll synthesis
- Nucleic acid synthesis
- Plant cell wall formation
- Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Answer ✔ (d) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
Explanation: Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
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Q.7 Oxidative phosphorylation refers to
- Anaerobic production of ATP
- The citric acid cycle production of ATP
- Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
- Alcoholic fermentation
Answer ✔ (c) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
Explanation: Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
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Q.8 Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?
- Carotene
- Chlorophyll a
- Chlorophyll b
- Xanthophyll
Answer ✔ (b) Chlorophyll a
Explanation: Chlorophyll a is a primary pigment.
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Q.9 Besides water and CO2, which is more essential a raw material for food formation
- light
- oxygen
- NAD
- mineral salt
Answer ✔ (a) light
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Q.10 In actively gro – wing young plants, the best data for estimating the rate of photosynthesis would be
- ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
- increase in fresh weight
- increase in dry weight
- increase in carbohydrate
Answer ✔ (a) ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
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Q.11 Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the
- two distinct photochemical reactions
- light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
- photophosphorylation
- photorespiration
Answer ✔ (a) two distinct photochemical reactions
Explanation: two distinct photochemical reactions
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Q.12 Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of
- glucose
- sucrose
- starch
- maltose
Answer ✔ (b) sucrose
Explanation: sucrose is used for translocation of sugar in flowering plants
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Q.13 Where are thylakoids and grana located?
- Lysosomes
- Mitochondria
- Chloroplasts
- Golgi apparatus
Answer ✔ (c) Chloroplasts
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Q.14 Who enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis?
- Robert Emerson
- Ruben
- Blackman
- Calvin
Answer ✔ (c) Blackman
Explanation: Blackman enunciated the law of limiting factor for photosynthesis
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Q.15 Which one of the following statement is true for ATP?
- ATP is prosthetic part of an enzyme
- ATP is an enzyme
- ATP is organic ions of enzyme
- ATP is a Co-enzyme
Answer ✔ (d) ATP is a Co-enzyme
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Q.16 Kranz anatomy is a feature of
- C3 plants
- CAM plants
- C4 plants
- All of these
Answer ✔ (c) C4 plants
Explanation: Kranz anatomy is a feature of C4 plants. Kranz means wreath.It tells about the arrangement of cells
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Q.17 Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?
- Oxaloacetic acid
- Phosphoglyceric acid
- Ribulose biphosphate
- Phosphoenolpyruvate
Answer ✔ (a) Oxaloacetic acid
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Q.18 Which of the following process (C4 cycle) occurs in bundle sheath cells?
- Regeneration
- Fixation
- Carboxylation
- Decarboxylation
Answer ✔ (d) Decarboxylation
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Q.19 Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in
- stroma
- thylakoid
- grana
- cytoplasm of cell
Answer ✔ (c) grana
Explanation: Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in grana.
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Q.20 Water stress causes
- opening of stomata
- increase in metabolic rate
- wilting of leaves
- lesser availability of carbon dioxide
Answer ✔ (c) wilting of leaves
Explanation: Water stress causes closure of stomata. Since stomata is closed carbon dioxide available to plants is less.
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Q.21 During photochemical reaction of photosynthesis–
- liberation of O2 takes place
- Formation of ATP and NADPH2 take place
- Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
- Assimilation of CO2 takes place
Answer ✔ (c) Liberation of O2, formation of ATP, and NADPH2 takes place
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Q.22 In the half-leaf experiment of photosynthesis, KOH solution is used because
- It provides O2 to the leaf.
- It provides moisture to the leaf.
- t helps in CO2 fixation
- It absorbs CO2
Answer ✔ (d) It absorbs CO2
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Q.23 Structurally, chlorophyll a and b are different as
- Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
- Chl a has an aldehyde group and Chl b has a methyl group.
- Chl a has an ethyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group
- Chl a has a carboxyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
Answer ✔ (a) Chl a has a methyl group and Chl b has an aldehyde group.
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Q.24 Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires:
- 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
- 2ATP and 2NADPH2
- 3ATP and 2NADPH2
- 2ATP and 1NADPH2
Answer ✔ (c) 3ATP and 2NADPH2
Explanation: 3ATP and 2NADPH2
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Q.25 Which one of the following statements about cytochrome P-450 is wrong?
- It is a colored cell
- It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reaction
- It has an important role in metabolism
- It contains iron
Answer ✔ (a) It is a colored cell
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Q.1 In plants, a common symptom caused by deficiency of P, K, Ca and Mg is the
- bending of leaf tip
- formation of anthocyanins
- poor development of vasculature
- appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Answer ✔ (d) appearance of dead necrotic tissue
Explanation: appearance of dead necrotic tissue
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Q.2 Function of zinc is
- Closing of stomata
- Biosynthesis of 3-IAA
- Synthesis of chlorophyll
- Oxidation of carbohydrate
Answer ✔ (c) Synthesis of chlorophyll
Explanation: Synthesis of chlorophyll
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Q.3 Which of the following is a group of micronutrients?
- Ca, Zn, B
- Fe, Mn, Cu
- Cl, C, Ca
- Ni, Mo, H
Answer ✔ (b) Fe, Mn, Cu
Explanation: Iron, mangenese and copper are micronutrients
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Q.4 The process of conversion of NO2– to N2 is called
- nitrification
- ammonification
- denitrification
- nitrogen fixation
Answer ✔ (c) denitrification
Explanation: The process of conversation of NO2– to N2 is called denitrification
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Q.5 The formation of first stable product of nitrogen fixation is catalysed by enzyme
- dehydrogenase
- nitrogenase
- isomerase
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) nitrogenase
Explanation: The first stable product of nitrogen fixation is ammonia obtained from atmospheric nitrogen catalysed enzyme nitrogenase
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Q.6 Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of
- iron
- calcium
- magnesium
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: Manganese toxicity causes deficiency of iron, magnesium and calcium
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Q.7 Chlorosis will occur if a plant is grown in
- dark
- shade
- strong light
- Fe – free medium
Answer ✔ (d) Fe – free medium
Explanation: Fe – free medium
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Q.8 Choose the correct function of magnesium
- It is a constituent of several coenzyme
- It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
- It activates enzyme catalase
- It helps in maintaining anion-cation balance
Answer ✔ (b) It activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.
Explanation: Magnesium is absorbed by plants as Mg2+ it activates the enzymes of respiration and photosynthesis.It is involved in the synthesis of DNA RNA.It is the constituent of ring structure of chlorophyll.
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Q.9 Mineral salts which are absorbed by the roots from soil are in the form of
- Dilute solution
- Very concentrated solution
- Concentrated solution
- Very dilute solution
Answer ✔ (d) Very dilute solution
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Q.10 Which one of the following mineral elements plays an in biological nitrogen fixation?
- Copper
- Manganese
- Zinc
- Molybdenum
Answer ✔ (d) Molybdenum
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Q.11 Oxygen scavangers present in root nodules of legumes is
- haemoglobin
- leg haemoglobin
- cyano haemoglobin
- none of these
Answer ✔ (b) leg haemoglobin
Explanation: Leg-haemoglobin is the oxygen scavanger in root nodules of legumes
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Q.12 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
- Magnesium
- Molybdenum
- Boron
- Zinc
Answer ✔ (a) Magnesium
Explanation: Magnesium
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Q.13 Which of the following is not a macronutrient
- iron
- calcium
- manganese
- phosphorus
Answer ✔ (c) manganese
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Q.14 Insectivorous plants grow where
- There is carbohydrate deficient soil
- There is nitrogen deficient soil
- Vitamin c is required
- Hormones are required
Answer ✔ (b) There is nitrogen deficient soil
Explanation: There is nitrogen deficient soil
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Q.15 Phytotron is meant for
- Controlled humidity
- Induction of mutations
- Controlled irradiation
- Growing plants under controlled environment
Answer ✔ (d) Growing plants under controlled environment
Explanation: Growing plants under controlled environment
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Q.16 Toxicity of which element leads to the appearance of brown spots on leaves
- Mg
- Mn
- Fe
- Cu
Answer ✔ (b) Mn
Explanation: Toxicity of mangenese leads to the appearance of the brown spots with chlorotic veins.
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Q.17 Presence of phosphorus
- brings about healthy root growth
- promotes fruit ripening
- retards protein formation
- none
Answer ✔ (c) retards protein formation
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Q.18 Which element is required for opening and closing of stomata?
- P
- K
- Ca
- Na
Answer ✔ (b) K
Explanation: Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
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Q.19 Exanthema is due to deficiency of
- B
- Mo
- Mn
- Cu
Answer ✔ (d) Cu
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Q.20 NPK denotes
- Nitrogen, Protein, Kinetin
- Nitrogen, Protein, Potassium
- Nitrogen, Potassium, kinetin
- Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
Explanation: Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
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Q.21 The nitrogen exists as two nitrogen atoms joined by
- Di covalent bonds
- tetra covalent bonds
- triple covalent bonds
- monocovalent bond
Answer ✔ (c) triple covalent bonds
Explanation: triple covalent bonds
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Q.22 Biological nitrogen fixation was discovered by
- Gericke
- Nehar and Sakmann
- Liebig
- Winograndsky
Answer ✔ (d) Winograndsky
Explanation: Winograndsky
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Q.23 The enzyme involved in biological nitrogen fixation are
- Carboxylase
- Oxygenase
- Dehydrogenase
- Nitrogenase
Answer ✔ (d) Nitrogenase
Explanation: Nitrogenase
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Q.24 The requirement of micro nutrient are always low if the concentration increases it leads to
- deficiency symptoms
- Cell differentiation
- toxicity
- Cell elongation
Answer ✔ (c) toxicity
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Q.25 Analysis of xylem sap shows
- presence of enzymes
- presence of organic matter
- presence of nutrients
- presence of mineral salts
Answer ✔ (d) presence of mineral salts
Explanation: presence of mineral salts
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Q.1 Blood corpuscles are formed in the
- Haversian canal
- endosteum
- red bone marrow
- pancreas
Answer ✔ (c) red bone marrow
Explanation: red bone marrow
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Q.2 Which of the following is absent in female frog?
- Webbed feet
- Copulatory pads
- Tympanum
- All are present
Answer ✔ (b) Copulatory pads
Explanation: Copulatory pads are absent in female frog.These are present on the first digit of the fore limbs.
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Q.3 Osteoblasts are found in
- blood
- muscle
- Bone
- catrilage
Answer ✔ (c) Bone
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Q.4 Choose the incorrect statement.
- Vascular system of frog is closed type.
- Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
- During aestivation and hibernation, skin acts as respiratory organ.
- All the statements are correct
Answer ✔ (b) Frogs have 4-chambered heart.
Explanation: Vascular system of frogs is closed and they have 3-chambered heart.
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Q.5 Which one of the four parts mentioned below is not part of a single uriniferous tubule ?
- Bowman scapsule
- Loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Collecting ducts
Answer ✔ (d) Collecting ducts
Explanation: Collecting ducts
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Q.6 Ciliated epithelium is present in
- fallopian tubes
- blood vessels
- mid brain
- none of the above
Answer ✔ (a) fallopian tubes
Explanation: Ciliated epithelium is present in inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles ando fallopian tubes.
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Q.7 The vascular tissue of blood is made up of
- RBC
- plasma
- platelets
- all of the above
Answer ✔ (d) all of the above
Explanation: all of the above
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Q.8 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water.
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Q.9 Fats are richly found in
- alveolar tissue
- lymph glands
- adipose tissue
- liver cells
Answer ✔ (c) adipose tissue
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Q.10 The main function of the skin of frog is
- the exchange of respiratory gases
- the storage of fat
- the storage of energy
- to convert light vitamin D
Answer ✔ (a) the exchange of respiratory gases
Explanation: the exchange of respiratory gases
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Q.11 The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in
- trachea
- ureter
- bile duct
- intestines
Answer ✔ (a) trachea
Explanation: trachea
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Q.12 Which one of the following is a scent gland of mammals?
- Bartholin
- Anal
- Prostate
- Adrenal
Answer ✔ (b) Anal
Explanation: Anal
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Q.13 The characteristic of simple eqithelium is that
- the cells are loosely placed
- they are single – layered in thickness
- cells are tightly packed with no intercelluar spaces
- cells are generally ciliated
Answer ✔ (b) they are single – layered in thickness
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Q.14 Spot the salivary gland in the following :
- sublingual
- adrenal
- Brunners
- lacrimal
Answer ✔ (a) sublingual
Explanation: sublingual
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Q.15 Protein not found in the connective tissues is
- actin
- ossein
- collagen
- elastin
Answer ✔ (a) actin
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Q.16 Tendons connect the following
- bone to bone
- muscle to muscle
- cartilage to muscle
- bone to muscle
Answer ✔ (d) bone to muscle
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Q.17 Frogs are beneficial to us because
- they protect crops
- they links food web
- they are food to man.
- all of these
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Frogs are beneficial to man because they protect crops and eat insects.They maintain ecological balance.They link food chain and food web.Muscular leg of frog is used as food by man
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Q.18 Which membrane protects the eyes of frog in water?
- Tympanum
- Skin
- Sebaceous
- Nictitating
Answer ✔ (d) Nictitating
Explanation: Frogs have nictitating membrane which protect their eyes in water
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Q.19 Which of the following helps in locomotion of earthworms?
- Clitellum
- Setae
- Intersegmental grooves
- Nephridiophores
Answer ✔ (c) Intersegmental grooves
Explanation: Setae helps in locomotion of earthworms
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Q.20 Which is not a part of reproductive system of female cockroach?
- Phallic gland
- Vestibulum
- Gonapophyses
- Collaterial glands
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Phallic gland is a part of male reproductive system of cockroach.It helps in formation of spermatophores
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Q.21 Glands of Zeis are associated with eyelashes. These are modified
- Sweat glands
- Mucous glands
- Sebaceous glands
- Sudoriferous glands
Answer ✔ (c) Sebaceous glands
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Q.22 The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is
- Muscle tissue
- Nervous tissue
- Connective tissue
- Epithelial tissue
Answer ✔ (c) Connective tissue
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Q.23 The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is
- Squamous epithelium
- Cuboidal epithelium
- Columnar epithelium
- Ciliated columnar epithelium
Answer ✔ (c) Columnar epithelium
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Q.24 In mammals maximum energy is lost by the
- Respiration
- Urine
- Skin
- Stool
Answer ✔ (c) Skin
Explanation: Skin
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Q.25 Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extra-cellular material
- Striated muscle
- Areolar tissue
- Stratified epithelium
- Myelinated nerve fibres
Answer ✔ (b) Areolar tissue
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Q.1 Radula is found in
- Pila sp
- Chiton sp
- Lamellidens sp
- Pinctada sp
Answer ✔ (a) Pila sp
Explanation: Pila sp.
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Q.2 Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes
- Jawless
- Bony
- Cartilaginous
- Freshwater
Answer ✔ (c) Cartilaginous
Explanation: Cartilaginous
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Q.3 Turtles are
- Arthropods
- Pisces
- Reptiles
- Molluscs
Answer ✔ (c) Reptiles
Explanation: Reptiles
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Q.4 The clam nervous system is composed of
- labial palps
- one pair of ganglia
- two pairs of ganglia
- three pairs of ganglia
Answer ✔ (d) three pairs of ganglia
Explanation: hree pairs of ganglia
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Q.5 Choose the correct pair.
- Hippocampus – 3-chambered heart
- Rana – 2-chambered heart
- Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
- Pavo – 3-chambered heart
Answer ✔ (c) Crocodilus – 4-chambered heart
Explanation: Crocodilus (crocodile) belongs to class reptilia. It is an exception in reptiles.
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Q.6 Who wrote the book Systema Naturae?
- Lamarck
- Darwin
- Wallace
- Linnaeus
Answer ✔ (d) Linnaeus
Explanation: Linnaeus
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Q.7 Which of the following statement is correct?
- Platypus lays eggs
- Camels have biconcave RBCs
- Whales respire by gills
- Bats do not fly
Answer ✔ (a) Platypus lays eggs
Explanation: Platypus lays eggs
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Q.8 Osteichthyes belongs to
- class amphibia
- super class pisces
- super class tetrapoda
- division agnatha
Answer ✔ (b) super class pisces
Explanation: super class pisces
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Q.9 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?
- Mammalia : give birth to young ones
- Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
- Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
- Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Answer ✔ (d) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Explanation: Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
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Q.10 Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Echinodermata
- Nematoda
Answer ✔ (d) Nematoda
Explanation: Nematoda
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Q.11 Which of the following is a pseudocoelomate?
- Platyhelminthes
- Aschelminthes
- Mollusca
- Hemi-chordates
Answer ✔ (b) Aschelminthes
Explanation: Aschelminthes is a pseudocoelomate.
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Q.12 Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?
- Bilateral
- Radial
- Asymmetry
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Radial
Explanation: Radial
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Q.13 Phylum that doesnt have a true coelom is
- Platyhelminthes
- Annelida
- Echinoderms
- Arthropoda
Answer ✔ (a) Platyhelminthes
Explanation: Platyhelminthes
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Q.14 Male mosquitoes usually feed on
- Garbage
- Human blood
- Flower sap
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Flower sap
Explanation: Flower sap
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Q.15 Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of
- Typhoid
- Yellow fever
- Typhus
- Trench fever
Answer ✔ (c) Typhus
Explanation: Typhus
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Q.16 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
- Ventral nerve cord
- Closed circulatory system
- Segmentation
- Pseudocoelom
Answer ✔ (d) Pseudocoelom
Explanation: Pseudocoelom
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Q.17 ______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.
- Threadworms
- Sponges
- Tapeworms
- Liver fluke
Answer ✔ (b) Sponges
Explanation: Sponges
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Q.18 Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans
- Blood
- Bile
- Digestive tract
- Lung
Answer ✔ (c) Digestive tract
Explanation: Digestive tract
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Q.19 Water-Vascular system is found in
- Sea-anemone
- Sea-pen
- Sea-cucumber
- Sea-horse
Answer ✔ (c) Sea-cucumber
Explanation: Sea-cucumber
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Q.20 Order Rhynchocephalia consists of
- Tuataras
- Lizards and snakes
- Turtles and tortoises
- Crocodiles, alligators, caimans
Answer ✔ (a) Tuataras
Explanation: Tuataras
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Q.21 One of the following are not formed in mosquito
- Sporozoites
- Ookinetes
- Oocystes
- Merozoites
Answer ✔ (d) Merozoites
Explanation: Merozoites
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Q.22 The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum
- Annelida
- Mollusca
- Cnidaria
- Echinodermata
Answer ✔ (d) Echinodermata
Explanation: Echinodermata
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Q.23 Which blood vessel carry larva of Ascaris in lungs
- Pulmonary vein
- Hepatic vein
- Carotid artery
- Pulmonary artery
Answer ✔ (d) Pulmonary artery
Explanation: Pulmonary artery
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Q.24 the excretory product of Ascaris is
- Urea
- Ammonia
- Both A and B
- None
Answer ✔ (a) Urea
Explanation: Urea
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Q.25 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
- Aschelminthes (round worms)
- Ctenophores
- Sponges
- Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Answer ✔ (a) Aschelminthes (round worms)
Explanation: Aschelminthes (round worms)
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Q.1 Which among the following does not exchange o2 with CO2 through simple diffusion
- Earthworms
- Earthworms
- Sponges
- Flatworms
Answer ✔ (b) Earthworms
Explanation: They use moist cuticle for exchange
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Q.2 Which among the following have well developed respiratory system
- Cockroaches
- Earthworms
- Sponges
- Mammals
Answer ✔ (d) Mammals
Explanation: Mammals well developed system includes lungs, alveoli, bronchi and bronchioles
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Q.3 How many lobes are present in right lung
- 2
- 5
- 3
- 4
Answer ✔ (c) 3
Explanation: Left lung is 2 lobed whereas right lung is 3 lobed
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Q.4 Name a sound box which is responsible for sound production
- Pharynx
- Larynx
- Epiglottis
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Larynx
Explanation: Pharynx is common passage for food and air, epiglottis prevent entry of food into wind pipe
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Q.5 Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by
- Vertebral column
- Sternum
- Ribs
- Diaphragm
Answer ✔ (a) Vertebral column
Explanation: Sternum is ventrally formed, ribs laterally and diaphragm on the lower side
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Q.6 Inspiration occurs if the pressure within the lungs is
- More than atm pressure
- Less tha atm pressure
- Equal to atm pressure
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Less tha atm pressure
Explanation: If the pressure is more than expiration occurs
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Q.7 The part starting from external nostril upto terminal bronchioles is known as
- Conducting part
- Exchange part
- Respiratory part
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Conducting part
Explanation: Alveoli and their ducts form exchange or the respiratory part
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Q.8 What is the structural and functional unit of lungs
- Bronchioles
- Alveoli
- Bronchi
- Both a and c
Answer ✔ (b) Alveoli
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Q.9 On an average healthy human breathes how many times per minute
- 12-16
- 15-16
- 20-25
- 72
Answer ✔ (a) 12-16
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Q.10 What is the inspiratory reserve volume
- 2500-3000 ml
- 500 ml
- 1000-1100 ml
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) 2500-3000 ml
Explanation: 500ml is tidal volume, 1000-1100 ml is expiratory reserve volume
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Q.11 Volume air inspired or expired during normal respiration is known as
- TV
- IRV
- ERV
- RV
Answer ✔ (a) TV
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Q.12 which among the following is measured by spirometer
- Total lung capacity
- FRC
- RV
- TV
Answer ✔ (d) TV
Explanation: Rest all aren?t measured by spirometer
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Q.13 Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gas is known as
- Partial pressure
- Diffusion pressure
- Osmotic pressure
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Partial pressure
Explanation: Partial pressure is exerted by individual gases
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Q.14 Solubility of CO2 is how many times higher than O2
- 10-15
- 30-40
- 20-21
- 20-25
Answer ✔ (d) 20-25
Explanation: Its 20-25 times higher
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Q.15 What is the partial pressure of O2 in atmosphere
- 156
- 159
- 94
- 40
Answer ✔ (b) 159
Explanation: O2 pressure is 159 and co2 is 0.3
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Q.16 What is the partial pressure of O2 in deoxygenated blood
- 45
- 40
- 95
- 43
Answer ✔ (b) 40
Explanation: C02 pressure in deoxy blood is 45
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Q.17 How many percent of co2 is carried by plasma in dissolved form
- 6
- 7
- 20-25
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) 7
Explanation: 7 percent is carried by plasma
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Q.18 How many percent of co2 is carried as bicarbonate
- 50
- 97
- 70
- 25
Answer ✔ (c) 70
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Q.19 Every 100ml of deoxy blood delivers approx
- 2ml of co2 to alveoli
- 3 of co2 to alveoli
- 4ml of co2 to alveoli
- 7ml of co2 to alveoli
Answer ✔ (c) 4ml of co2 to alveoli
Explanation: It delivers of 4ml of co2
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Q.20 RBC contains very high quantity of which enzyme
- Carbonic anhydrase
- Lysosome
- Ligase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Carbonic anhydrase
Explanation: Only carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC
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Q.21 which among the following is caused due to decreased respiratory surface area
- Astma
- Emphysema
- Sclerosis
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Emphysema
Explanation: Astma occurs due to inflammation of bronchioles
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Q.22 Whose role in respiratory rhythm regulation is insignificant
- Co2
- O2
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) O2
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Q.23 Pneumotaxic centre is present in which region of brain
- Medulla
- Hypothalamus
- Pons
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Pons
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Q.24 Which type of curve is formed when percent of haemoglobin is plotted against po2
- Straight line
- Hyperbola
- Sigmoid
- Parabola
Answer ✔ (c) Sigmoid
Explanation: Sigmoid curve is obtained
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Q.25 which among the following is responsible to shift o2 dissociation curve right
- High Pco2
- Low pco2
- Low H+
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) High Pco2
Explanation: Option b and c shift the curve left
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Q.1 In five kingdom classification chlamydomonas and chlorella falls under
- Algae
- Plantae
- Monera
- Protista
Answer ✔ (d) Protista
Explanation: Unicellular belongs to Protista. Prokaryotces belong to monera
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Q.2 Which groups holds max nutritional diversity
- monera
- Plantae
- Fungi
- Anamalia
Answer ✔ (a) monera
Explanation: Photoautotrophic, chemoautotrophic and heterotrophic belongs to monera
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Q.3 Nuclear membrane is absent in
- Volvox
- Nostoc
- Agarics
- Penicillium
Answer ✔ (b) Nostoc
Explanation: Nostoc doesn?t have nuclear membrane
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Q.4 Name the classification based on genetic and evolutionary relationship
- Phonetics
- Biosynthesis
- Numerical taxonomy
- Cladistics
Answer ✔ (d) Cladistics
Explanation: Cladistics is based on similar characteristics.
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Q.5 What is the purpose of taxonomy
- Explain the origin of life
- Identification of unknown species
- To search history of evolution
- Identify medicinal plants
Answer ✔ (b) Identification of unknown species
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Q.6 The purpose of botanical garden is to
- Preserve tropical plants
- Ex-situ conservation of germplasm
- Preserve wildlife
- Giving place for recreation
Answer ✔ (b) Ex-situ conservation of germplasm
Explanation: It is used to preserve rare and endemic species
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Q.7 In which form fungi store food material
- Lipid
- Starch
- Oil and glycogen
- Protein
Answer ✔ (c) Oil and glycogen
Explanation: Oil and glycogen is stored in fungi
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Q.8 Common feature of archaebacteria
- Structure of cell membrane
- Structure of cell wall
- Has fatty acid synthetase
- Structure of flagellin protein
Answer ✔ (c) Has fatty acid synthetase
Explanation: Has fatty acid synthetase
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Q.9 Another name of blue green bacteria
- Cyanobacteria
Answer ✔ (a) Cyanobacteria
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Q.10 Paramecium is
- Protist
- Monera
- Slime mould
- Fungi
Answer ✔ (a) Protist
Explanation: Its single celled organism belonging to protist
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Q.11 name of agaricus fruiting body
- Fairy rings
- Cleistothecium
- Basidocarp
- Asciocarp
Answer ✔ (c) Basidocarp
Explanation: Fungi contains sporophytes in which sexually producing spores are formed on the club shaped surface known as basidiocarp
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Q.12 Phycology is the study of
- Algae
- Fungi
- Lichens
- Mosses
Answer ✔ (a) Algae
Explanation: Scientific study of algae is known as phycology
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Q.13 Viral protein is made of
- Protein
- Lipid
- Carbohydrate
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.14 Heterocyst in nostoc participates in
- Nitrogen fixation
- Fragmentation
- Fruit storage
- Symbiotic relation
Answer ✔ (a) Nitrogen fixation
Explanation: In Heterocyst nitrogen fixation occurs
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Q.15 Whittakers definition of classification does not include
- Algae
- Protista
- Plantae
- mychota
Answer ✔ (a) Algae
Explanation: Algae is not included in Whittakers classification
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Q.16 Classification is not based on
- Thallus organisation
- Cell structure
- Gross morphology
- Phylogenetic relationship
Answer ✔ (c) Gross morphology
Explanation: Gross morphology is not used for classification in taxonomy
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Q.17 Which is not a bacterial disease
- Cholera
- Plague
- Citrus canker
- mumps
Answer ✔ (d) mumps
Explanation: Mumps is a viral disease of salivary glands
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Q.18 Which of the feature mycoplasma does not have
- Pleomorphic
- Lack cell wall
- All the above
- Can?t live w/o O2
Answer ✔ (d) Can?t live w/o O2
Explanation: Mycoplasma is aerobic which needs oxygen
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Q.19 Diatoms do not have
- Indestructible cell wall
- Cell wall are like soap box
- Two thick overlapping cells
- Release cell wall deposits
Answer ✔ (c) Two thick overlapping cells
Explanation: They don?t have two overlapping cells
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Q.20 Azolla boosts soil fertility of
- Barley
- Maize
- Rice
- Wheat
Answer ✔ (d) Wheat
Explanation: Wheat
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Q.21 Fungal cell wall have
- Hemicellulase
- Cellulase
- Chitin
- Pectin
Answer ✔ (d) Pectin
Explanation: Fungi have pectin in their walls
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Q.22 Genetic recombination in prokaryotes can occur during
- Transformation
- Transduction
- Conjunction
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
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Q.23 Diatoms do not decay fast because
- They are chitinous
- They have silicious wall
- Contain saline oil
- Body is impervious to water
Answer ✔ (b) They have silicious wall
Explanation: They have siliceous walls
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Q.24 What cause red tides
- Gonyalaux
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Gonyalaux
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Q.25 What is not part of sexual cycle of fungi
- Plasmogamy
- Mitosis
- Karyogamy
- Meiosis
Answer ✔ (b) Mitosis
Explanation: Mitosis is cell division in which it divides in two identical daughter cells
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Q.1 Each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone known as
- Thecodont
- Diphyodont
- Heterodont
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
Explanation: Reference ncert last para
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Q.2 A cartilagenous flap which prevents entry of food
- Glottis
- Pyloric spincter
- Epiglottis
- Cardiac spincter
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Epiglottis prevent entry of food into glottis
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Q.3 Where is paratoid salivary gland is situated
- Lower jaw
- Below tongue
- Upper jaw
- Cheek
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Its situated in cheek
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Q.4 The bile duct and pancreatic duct open together into which region of intestine
- Jejunum
- Ileum
- Duodenum
- Cardiac
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: It opens in duodenum as hepato- pancreatic duct
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Q.5 Which kind of gland is pancreas
- Exocrine
- Endocrine
- Compound gland
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (C)
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Q.6 Which cell is responsible for secretion of HCL and intrinsic factors
- Parietal cell
- Chief cell
- Mucus cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.7 Which enzyme is responsible for digestion of milk protein in infants
- Renin
- Rennin
- Proteoses
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin
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Q.8 Which enzyme converts polysaccharides into disaccharides
- Amylases
- Lipases
- Salivary amylase
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.9 Which enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice
- Lipases
- Amylase
- Nucleases
- Nucleosides
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Its present in intestinal juice
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Q.10 Which pH is optimum for salivary amylase to work
- 6.8
- 5.8
- 3.8
- 8
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.11 Absorption of water in large intestine is done by
- Chief cells
- Haustra cells
- Parietal cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: These cells absorb water and minerals
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Q.12 Glucose and amino acids are transported by which transport
- Facilitated diffusion
- Diffusion
- Active transport
- Passive transport
Answer ✔ (c) Active transport
Explanation: amino acid and glucose are transported by "active" transport.
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Q.13 Fructose are transported by which mechanism
- Passive transport
- Active transport
- Diffusion
- Facilitated diffusion
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: These are transported by facilitated
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Q.14 Which is not present in bile juice
- Bile pigments
- Enzymes
- Bile salts
- Cholesterol
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Enzymes are absent in bile
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Q.15 Maltase converts maltose into
- glucose+ glucose
- Glucose + fructose
- Glucose + galactose
- Fatty acids+ glycerol
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.16 How many salivary glans are present
- 2
- 3
- 4
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Paratoid , maxillary, sub lingual
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Q.17 The small finger like foldings in small intestine is called
- Rugae
- Villi
- Botha a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Rug is present in stomach
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Q.18 Crypts in between bases of villi in intestine are known as
- Crypts of lieberkuhn
- Crypts of intestine
- Crypts of stomach
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.19 What are the structural and functional units of liver
- Hepatic cells
- Hepatic lobules
- Hepatic glands
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Hepatic lobules are the functional and structural unit of liver
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Q.20 Duct of paratoid gland are known as
- Rhenius
- Stensons
- Warton
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
Explanation: Rhenius is duct for sub lingual and warton is for sub maxillary
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Q.21 Which is not the part of stomach
- Cardiac
- Pyloric
- Funds
- Ileum
Answer ✔ (D)
Explanation: Its the part of small intestine
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Q.22 Enamel is originated from which cell
- Amiloblast cell
- Odontioblast cell
- Chief cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.23 Dentine is originated from which cell
- Amiloblast cell
- Odontioblast cell
- Chief cell
- Peptic cell
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.24 In which condition the food is not digested properly leading to feeling of fullness
- Indigestion
- Constipation
- Diarrhoea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (A)
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Q.25 In which condition the faeces are retained in the rectum as the bowel movement occur irregularly
- Indigestion
- Constipation
- Diarrhoea
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (B)
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Q.1 How many bones are total present in human body
- 209
- 203
- 206
- 120
Answer ✔ (d) 120
Explanation: In embryo 306 bones are present but in adult 206 are present
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Q.2 How many bones are present in axial skeleton
- 82
- 80
- 87
- 85
Answer ✔ (b) 80
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Q.3 Which among is not facial bone
- Frontal
- Nasal
- Palantine
- Maxilla
Answer ✔ (a) Frontal
Explanation: Frontal is a cranial bone
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Q.4 Which bone isn?t found in ear
- Malleus
- Incus
- Stapes
- Palatine
Answer ✔ (d) Palatine
Explanation: Rest all are ear ossicles
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Q.5 Name a single U shaped bone
- Malleus
- Incus
- Hyoid
- Palatine
Answer ✔ (c) Hyoid
Explanation: Rest all are ear ossicles
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Q.6 What are 8,9 and 10th ribs known as
- True ribs
- False ribs
- Floating ribs
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) False ribs
Explanation: 1-7 are true ribs and last are floating ribs
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Q.7 Name the longest bone
- Femur
- Humerus
- Tibia
- Fibula
Answer ✔ (a) Femur
Explanation: Femur is aka thigh bone and is longest
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Q.8 Which among the following is auto immune disorder
- Tetany
- Arthritis
- Myasthenia gravis
- Gout
Answer ✔ (c) Myasthenia gravis
Explanation: Rest all aren?t auto immune disorders
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Q.9 Name a disorder which occurs due to rapid spasm in muscles due to low ca2+ in body fluid
- Tetany
- Arthritis
- Myasthenia gravis
- Gout
Answer ✔ (a) Tetany
Explanation: Gout is inflammation of joints due to uric acid, arthritis is inflammation of joints
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Q.10 How many serially arranged units called vertebrae forms vertebral column
- 23
- 24
- 26
- 28
Answer ✔ (c) 26
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Q.11 Which among the following are synovial joints
- Ball and socket joint
- Hinge joint
- Pivot joint
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All are synovial joints
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Q.12 Which of these contain ATP and ATPase binding site
- Actin
- Myosin
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Myosin
Explanation: Only myosin contains not actin
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Q.13 Which among the following are involuntary muscles
- Cardiac
- Skeletal
- Smooth
- Both a and c
Answer ✔ (d) Both a and c
Explanation: Skeletal is voluntary muscle
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Q.14 Which joint is present between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
- Saddle joint
- Pivot
- Hinge
- Condyloid
Answer ✔ (a) Saddle joint
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Q.15 Which joint is present between humerus and pectoral girdle
- Hinge
- Ball and socket
- Pivot joint
- Condyloid
Answer ✔ (b) Ball and socket
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Q.16 How many bones form lumbar vertebrae
- 7
- 6
- 5
- 8
Answer ✔ (c) 5
Explanation: 5 bones together form lumbar vertebrae
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Q.17 Sarcoplasmic reticulum is store house of which ion
- Ca2+
- Mg2+
- Mn2+
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Ca2+
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Q.18 What is functional unit of contraction
- Cell
- Myosin
- Actin
- Sarcomere
Answer ✔ (d) Sarcomere
Explanation: Sarcomere is the portion between two successive Z lines
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Q.19 The central part of thick filament which isn?t overlapped by thin filaments is called
- H zone
- I band
- A band
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) H zone
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Q.20 Length of which band get reduced during contraction
- A band
- I band
- Z line
- C band
Answer ✔ (b) I band
Explanation: only I band length gets reduced
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Q.21 how may phalanges are present
- 14
- 13
- 10
- 6
Answer ✔ (a) 14
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Q.22 Scapula is present in which girdle
- Pelvic
- Pectoral
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pectoral
Explanation: Scapula isn?t present in pelvic girdle
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Q.23 Acetabulum cavity is present in which girdle
- Pelvic
- Pectoral
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Pectoral
Explanation: It is present in pelvic girdle
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Q.24 How many bones are present in cranium
- 6
- 5
- 7
- 8
Answer ✔ (d) 8
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Q.25 Atlas is which vertebrae among the following
- 1st
- Last
- 5th
- 7th
Answer ✔ (a) 1st
Explanation: Atlas is known as first vertebrae
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Q.1 Which hormones is a stress hormone
- Norepinephrine
- Androgen
- Cortisol
- FSH
Answer ✔ (a) Norepinephrine
Explanation: Epinephrine and norepinephrine is released during emergency or stress.
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Q.2 Secretin cause stimulation of
- Bile juice
- Water
- Gastric secretion
- Pepsinogen
Answer ✔ (b) Water
Explanation: It acts on exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions
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Q.3 In adults insufficient thyroxine lead to
- Myxoedema
- Goitre
- Tetany
- Cretinism
Answer ✔ (a) Myxoedema
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Q.4 In the body both blood sodium and potassium is regulated by
- Pheromones
- Aldosterone
- Cortisols
- Androgens
Answer ✔ (b) Aldosterone
Explanation: Aldosterone is released
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Q.5 Chemical name of T4 is
- Tetradiodothyronine
- Tridiodothyronine
- Tetraiodothyronine
- Triiodothyronine
Answer ✔ (c) Tetraiodothyronine
Explanation: T3 is triiodothyronine and T4 is tetraiodothronine
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Q.6 Anabolic steroids are ___ versions of testosterone
- Effective
- Synthetic
- Natural
- Ineffective
Answer ✔ (b) Synthetic
Explanation: Synthetic
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Q.7 which of the following acts on bones
- Melatonin
- Triiodothyronine
- GH
- Parathyroid
Answer ✔ (d) Parathyroid
Explanation: Parathyroid hormone also stimulates bone reabsorption
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Q.8 Glucagon hormone is secreted by
- Thyroid gland
- Pituitary
- Adrenal
- Pancreas
Answer ✔ (d) Pancreas
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Q.9 Which of the following is male sex organs
- Insulins
- Aldosterone
- Androgens
- Pheromones
Answer ✔ (c) Androgens
Explanation: Rest all are not male sex organs
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Q.10 Choose the incorrect statement
- Hormones are non-nutrients chemicals
- Exocrine glands are ductless glands
- Invertebrates have simple endocrine system
- All of the above statements are incorrect
Answer ✔ (b) Exocrine glands are ductless glands
Explanation: Endocrine are ductless glands
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Q.11 Endemic goitre is a state of
- Increased thyroid function
- Normal thyroid function
- Decreased thyroid function
- Moderate thyroid function
Answer ✔ (c) Decreased thyroid function
Explanation: Decreased thyroid function
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Q.12 PTH is called hypercalcemic hormone because it leads to
- Absorption of CaCo3 from digested food
- Reabsorption of water from renal tubules
- Increasing blood calcium levels
- Maintain ion balance in blood
Answer ✔ (c) Increasing blood calcium levels
Explanation: This is called so because PTH stimulates reabsorption of calcium by renal tubules and increase calcium reabsorption from digested food
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Q.13 Corpus leuteum secretes
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- Vasopressin
- Glucagon
Answer ✔ (a) Progesterone
Explanation: After ovulation follicles convert into corpus leuteum and release progesterone
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Q.14 In children hypothyroidism lead to
- Goitre
- Acromegaly
- Cretinism
- Myxoedema
Answer ✔ (c) Cretinism
Explanation: Cretinism
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Q.15 Diurnal rhythm of body is maintained by
- Melatonin
- Isthmus
- PTH
- Norepinephrine
Answer ✔ (a) Melatonin
Explanation: Melatonin is released by pineal gland
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Q.16 Which hormone inhibits release of growth hormone
- Insulin
- Gonadotrophin
- Somatostatin
- Thymosin
Answer ✔ (c) Somatostatin
Explanation: Somatostatin is released from hypothalamus
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Q.17 Which of the following is essential for thyroid gland
- nacl
- I3
- CaCo2
- H2Co3
Answer ✔ (b) I3
Explanation: Iodine is essential for thyroid gland
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Q.18 Testorone is produced by
- Leydigs cell
- Pituitary gland
- Both a and b
- Non of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Leydigs cell
Explanation: Leydig cell
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Q.19 The phase of menstrual cycle that last for 7-8 days are
- Ovulatory
- Menstruation
- Luteal
- Follicular
Answer ✔ (a) Ovulatory
Explanation: Ovulatory phase
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Q.20 Blood pressure is under control of
- Pituitary
- Adrenal
- Thymus
- Thyroid
Answer ✔ (b) Adrenal
Explanation: Adrenal gland regulates bp
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Q.21 Master endocrine gland is
- Pituitary
- Parathyroid
- Thyroid
- Pineal
Answer ✔ (a) Pituitary
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Q.22 Largest completely endocrine gland is
- Adrenal
- Thyroid
- Pituitary
- Parathyroid
Answer ✔ (b) Thyroid
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Q.23 Implantation of embryo and placentation is under control of
- FSH
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Estradiol
Answer ✔ (c) Progesterone
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Q.24 Insulin is secreted by
- Acinus
- A cells
- P cells
- Y cells
Answer ✔ (c) P cells
Explanation: P cells
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Q.25 Hormones are
- Excretory pdt
- Enzymatory pdt
- Chemical messenger
- Nerve impulse
Answer ✔ (c) Chemical messenger
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Q.1 How many percent of plasma is water
- 90-92
- 6-8
- 20-25
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) 90-92
Explanation: 90-92 of water is plasma
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Q.2 Which among the following is not the major protein of plasma
- Fibrinogen
- Globulin
- Albumins
- Basophil
Answer ✔ (d) Basophil
Explanation: Basophil is a type of WBC
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Q.3 What is life span of RBC in days
- 120
- 110
- 115
- 125
Answer ✔ (a) 120
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Q.4 Which is devoid of nucleus
- WBC
- Leucocytes
- RBC
- Both a and b
Answer ✔ (c) RBC
Explanation: Only RBCs are devoid of nucleus
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Q.5 What is the percent of formed elements in blood
- 55
- 45
- 35
- 95
Answer ✔ (b) 45
Explanation: 55 percent is plasma and 45 is formed elements
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Q.6 Plasma without clotting factor is known as
- sirum
- Serum
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Serum
Explanation: Serum is the plasma w/o clotting factor
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Q.7 Which is also known as reservoir of RBC
- Thymus
- Kidney
- Gall bladder
- Spleen
Answer ✔ (d) Spleen
Explanation: Spleen is graveyard , reservoir for RBC
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Q.8 Which among the following WBC secrete histamine, serotonin,heparin
- Eosinophil
- Neutrophil
- Basophil
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) Basophil
Explanation: Basophil secrete these substances and is involved in inflammatory reactions
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Q.9 Where does erythropoiesis in adult takes place
- Bone marrow
- Spleen
- Thymus
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Bone marrow
Explanation: In adults this process takes place in bone marrow
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Q.10 which blood group is known as universal donor
- AB
- 0
- A
- B
Answer ✔ (b) 0
Explanation: AB is known as the universal acceptor
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Q.11 which blood group is known as universal acceptor
- AB
- 0
- B
- C
Answer ✔ (a) AB
Explanation: AB is known as the universal acceptor
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Q.12 Which enzyme converts prothrombin into thrombin
- Thrombin
- Thrombokinase
- Pepcase
- Ligase
Answer ✔ (b) Thrombokinase
Explanation: Thrombin is incorrect as it converts fibrinogens into fibrin
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Q.13 Which among the following plays imp role in clotting
- mg2+
- Ca2+
- Na+
- Mn2+
Answer ✔ (b) Ca2+
Explanation: Ca2+ helps in blood coagulation
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Q.14 which is antigen for blood group A
- A
- B
- AB
- Anti-A
Answer ✔ (a) A
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Q.15 Which blood group lacks antigens
- A
- B
- O
- AB
Answer ✔ (c) O
Explanation: Rest all have antigens A,B, [A,B] respectively
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Q.16 Which among the following has 2 chamber heart
- Fish
- Crocodile
- Birds
- Mammals
Answer ✔ (a) Fish
Explanation: Rest all have 4 chambered heart
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Q.17 Which is known as pacemaker of
- SA Node
- AV node
- AV bundle
- Purkinjee fibres
Answer ✔ (a) SA Node
Explanation: AV is known as pace setter
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Q.18 How many times our heart beats in a minute
- 65-59
- 70-75
- 25-45
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) 70-75
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Q.19 What is duration of cardiac cycle in sec
- 0.8
- 0.9
- 0.6
- 0.4
Answer ✔ (a) 0.8
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Q.20 What is first name of heart sound
- Dubb
- Lubb
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Lubb
Explanation: Dubb is second sound
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Q.21 What does P wave indicate
- Depolarisation of atria
- repolarisation
- Depolarisation of ventricle
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) Depolarisation of atria
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Q.22 What?s meaning of systole
- Relaxation
- Contraction
- Both a and b
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (b) Contraction
Explanation: Diastole means relaxation
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Q.23 What is normal blood pressure
- 120 over 80
- 190 over 120
- 70 over 70
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (a) 120 over 80
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Q.24 T wave represents
- Repolarisation
- Depolarisation of atria
- Depolarisation of ventricle
- Both b and c
Answer ✔ (a) Repolarisation
Explanation: In this ventricles return from excited to normal state
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Q.25 What condition occurs when not enough oxygen reaches heart muscle
- High bp
- Low bp
- Angina
- Heart failure
Answer ✔ (c) Angina
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Q.1 Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?
- Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
- Pupil constriction
- Acceleration of heart beat
- Contraction of hair muscles
Answer ✔ (b) Pupil constriction
Explanation: Pupil constriction
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Q.2 During resting state, fluid outside axon contains
- low concentration of K+
- low concentration of Na+
- low concentration of Cl–
- high concentration of Cl–
Answer ✔ (a) low concentration of K+
Explanation: During resting state (when neuron is not conducting any impulse), axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+ The fluid outside axon contains low concentration of K+.
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Q.3 The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.
- Cerebellum
- Medulla oblongata
- Cerebral cortex
- Thalamus
Answer ✔ ()
Explanation: Medulla oblongata
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Q.4 The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of
- Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
- A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
- A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
- Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions
Answer ✔ (c) A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
Explanation: A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
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Q.5 The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except
- Generation of end-plate potential
- Release of calcium from troponin
- Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
- Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP
Answer ✔ (b) Release of calcium from troponin
Explanation: Release of calcium from troponin
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Q.6 Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness?
- Thalamus
- Reticular formation
- Hypothalamus
- Limbic system
Answer ✔ (d) Limbic system
Explanation: Limbic system
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Q.7 Vestibular apparatus is made up of three semi circular canals. These canals lies at ____ degree angle to each other.
- 30
- 45
- 60
- 90
Answer ✔ (d) 90
Explanation: Semicircular canals lies at right angle to each other.
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Q.8 At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.
- Acetylcholine
- Epinephrine
- Adrenaline
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine
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Q.9 There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
- 8
- 12
- 18
- 25
Answer ✔ (b) 12
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Q.10 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
- Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
- Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
- Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
- Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Answer ✔ (a) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
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Q.11 Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
- Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
- Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
- Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
- Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
Answer ✔ (b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
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Q.12 The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to
- Initiate the heart beat
- Reduce the heart beat
- Accelerate the heart beat
- Maintain constant heart beat
Answer ✔ (b) Reduce the heart beat
Explanation: Reduce the heart beat
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Q.13 Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?
- Abducens nerve
- Oculomotor nerve
- Olfactory nerve
- Trigeminal nerve
Answer ✔ (d) Trigeminal nerve
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Q.14 Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?
- Peristalsis
- Digestion
- Excretion
- Memory and learning
Answer ✔ (d) Memory and learning
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Q.15 Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are regulated by ______ system.
- Parasympathetic
- Sympathetic
- Central nervous
- Autonomic
Answer ✔ (d) Autonomic
Explanation: Functions of skeletal muscles is controlled by CNS
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Q.16 Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?
- Satellite cells
- Schwann cells
- Both (A) and (B)
- Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer ✔ (b) Schwann cells
Explanation: Myelin sheath is produced by schwan cells
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Q.17 Which layer is in contact with brain tissues?
- Piamater
- Arachnoid
- Duramater
- Piamater and Arachnoid
Answer ✔ (a) Piamater
Explanation: Brain is covered by cranial meninges.1) Duramater (outer)2) Arachnoid (middle)3) Piamater (inner)- in contact with brain tissues)
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Q.18 The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is
- Medulla oblongata
- Thalamus
- Cerebral cortex
- Meninges
Answer ✔ (c) Cerebral cortex
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Q.19 Find the odd one.
- Schwann cells
- Nissl s granules
- nephrons
- synaptic knob
Answer ✔ (c) nephrons
Explanation: Schwann cells, Nissl s granules and synaptic knobs are the parts of neurons.
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Q.20 Select the correct statement from the ones given below
- Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
- Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
- Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
- Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
Answer ✔ (c) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
Explanation: Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
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Q.21 cyton has
- Single nucleus
- Double nucleus
- Three nucleus
- None of these
Answer ✔ (a) Single nucleus
Explanation: It only have one nucleus
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Q.22 Neurons are excitable cells because the membrane is
- Non polar
- Apolar
- polar
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) polar
Explanation: Membranes are in polarised state
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Q.23 In Na-K pump how much ions of Na are transported outwards
- 2
- 3
- 6
- 5
Answer ✔ (b) 3
Explanation: 2
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Q.24 Which among is faster impulse transmission
- Chemical
- Both
- Electrical
- None of these
Answer ✔ (c) Electrical
Explanation: Electrical signal is faster
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Q.25 Which is not part of brain stem
- Pons
- Medulla
- Mid brain
- Cerebellum
Answer ✔ (d) Cerebellum
Explanation: Cerebellum is not part of brain stem
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Q.1 Which of the following groups is formed only of the hermaphrodite organisms?
- Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog
- Earthworm, tapeworm, seahorse housefly
- Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm
- Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge
Answer ✔ (d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge
Explanation: roundworm, housefly, frog, seahorse aren’t hermaphrodite
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Q.2 Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only?
- Amoeba, sponge, leech
- Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
- Earthworm, sponge, leech
- Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Amoeba,cockroach, honeybee,Tapeworm aren’t bisexual.
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Q.3 Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.
- Cucurbits and coconuts are monoecious plants
- Papayas and date palms are dioecious plants.
- Leeches and tapeworms are bisexual animals.
- Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals
Answer ✔ (d) Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals
Explanation: Sponges and coelenterates are bisexual animals
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Q.4 Meiosis does not occur in
- asexually reproducing diploid individuals
- sexually reproducing haploid individuals
- sexually reproducing diploid individuals
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (a) asexually reproducing diploid individuals
Explanation: It occurs in all except asexually reproducing diploid individuals
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Q.5 A diploid parent plant body produces ________ gametes and a haploid parent plant body produces ________gametes.
- diploid, haploid
- haploid, diploid
- diploid, diploid
- haploid, haploid
Answer ✔ (d) haploid, haploid
Explanation: haploid, haploid
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Q.6 Which of the following organisms has the highest number of chromosomes?
- Housefly
- Butterfly
- Ophioglossum
- Onion
Answer ✔ (C)
Explanation: Ophioglossum has 1260 chromosomes.
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Q.7 In maize, a meiocyte has 20 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in its somatic cell?
- 40
- 30
- 20
- 10
Answer ✔ (c) 20
Explanation: 20
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Q.8 If a butterfly has chromosome number 360 in its meiocyte (2n). What will be the chromosome number in its gametes?
- 190
- 380
- 95
- 760
Answer ✔ (a) 190
Explanation: 190
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Q.9 In flowering plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile. The method to bring them together for fertilisation is
- water
- air
- pollination
- apomixis
Answer ✔ (c) pollination
Explanation: pollination is the only method to bring fertilisation
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Q.10 In which of the following plants, sepals do not fall off after fertilisation and remain attached to the fruit?
- brinjal
- cucumber
- papaya
- Bitter gourd
Answer ✔ (a) brinjal
Explanation: brinjal sepals do not fall off after fertilisation and remain attached to the fruit
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Q.11 The wall of the ovary forms
- pericarp
- fruit wall
- fruit
- both (a) and (b).
Answer ✔ (d) both (a) and (b).
Explanation: both (a) and (b).
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Q.12 The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because
- offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
- DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
- offspring are formed at different times
- DNA of parent and offspring are completely different
Answer ✔ (a) offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
Explanation: Because offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
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Q.13 The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively
- 12, 24, 12
- 24, 12, 12
- 12, 24, 24
- 24, 12, 24
Answer ✔ (c) 12, 24, 24
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Q.14 Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane and ginger is mainly because
- nodes are shorter than intemodes
- nodes have meristematic cells
- nodes are located near the soil
- nodes have non-photosynthetic cells.
Answer ✔ (b) nodes have meristematic cells
Explanation: nodes have meristematic cells
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Q.15 There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because
- they cannot reproduce sexually
- they reproduce be binary fission
- parental body is distributed among the offspring
- they are microscopic.
Answer ✔ (c) parental body is distributed among the offspring
Explanation: because parental body is distributed among the offspring
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Q.16 There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on
- the habitat and morphology of the organism
- morphology of the organism
- morphology and physiology of the organism
- the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
Answer ✔ (d) the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
Explanation: It depends on the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
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Q.17 Which of the following is a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants?
- Transfer of pollen grains
- Embryo development
- Formation of flower
- Formation of pollen grains
Answer ✔ (b) Embryo development
Explanation: Only Embryo development comes under post fertilisation event.
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Q.18 The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosomes in the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall be
- 20
- 10
- 40
- 15
Answer ✔ (a) 20
Explanation: 20
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Q.19 The growth phase of an organism before attaining sexual maturity is referred to as
- juvenile phase
- vegetative phase
- both (a) and (b)
- None of the above
Answer ✔ (c) both (a) and (b)
Explanation: both (a) and (b)
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Q.20 Select the monocarpic plant out of the following.
- Bamboo
- Litchi
- Mango
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (a) Bamboo
Explanation: Bamboo is the monocarpic plant
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Q.21 Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases cannot be observed in
- annual plants
- perennial plants
- biennial plants
- ephemeral plants.
Answer ✔ (b) perennial plants
Explanation: In perennial Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases
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Q.22 Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in
- 5 years
- 12 years
- 20 years
- 50 years
Answer ✔ (b) 12 years
Explanation: 12 years
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Q.23 Strobilanthus kunthiana differs from bamboo in
- being monocarpic
- length of juvenile phase
- being polycarpic
- none of these.
Answer ✔ (b) length of juvenile phase
Explanation: length of juvenile phase
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Q.24 Oestrous cycle is reported in
- cows and sheep
- humans and monkeys
- chimpanzees and gorillas
- none of these.
Answer ✔ (a) cows and sheep
Explanation: Rest doesn’t show oestrous cycle
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Q.25 Which of the following animals show menstrual cycle?
- Gorillas and chimpanzees
- Monkeys and humans
- Orangutans and monkeys
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: All of these
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Q.1 The anther wall consists of four wall layers where
- tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
- middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
- endothecium lies inner to middle layers
- tapetum lies next to epidermis
Answer ✔ (b) middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
Explanation: middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
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Q.2 Anther is generally
- monosporangiate
- bisporangiate
- tetrasporangiate
- trisporangiate.
Answer ✔ (c) tetrasporangiate
Explanation: tetrasporangiate
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Q.3 The stamens represent
- microsporangia
- male gametophyte
- male gametes
- microsporophylls.
Answer ✔ (d) microsporophylls.
Explanation: The stamens represent microsporophylls
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Q.4 Nonessential floral organs in a flower are
- sepals and petals
- anther and ovary
- stigma and filament
- petals only.
Answer ✔ (a) sepals and petals
Explanation: Nonessential floral organs in a flower are sepals and petals
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Q.5 Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and arrangement of flowers is called
- arboriculture
- floriculture
- horticulture
- anthology
Answer ✔ (b) floriculture
Explanation: Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and arrangement of flowers is called floriculture
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Q.6 From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium
- Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
- Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
- Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
- Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
Answer ✔ (d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
Explanation: Rest are not associated with gynoceium
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Q.7 During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
- endothecium
- microspore mother cells
- microspore tetrads
- pollen grains
Answer ✔ (b) microspore mother cells
Explanation: meiosis occurs in microspore mother cells
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Q.8 The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively
- endothecium and tapetum
- epidermis and endodermis
- epidermis and middle layer
- epidermis and tapetum.
Answer ✔ (d) epidermis and tapetum.
Explanation: epidermis and tapetum.
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Q.9 Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
- Stamen
- filament
- pollen grain
- androecium
Answer ✔ (c) pollen grain
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Q.10 An embryo may sometimes develop from any cell of embryo sac other than egg. It is termed as
- apospory
- apogamy
- parthenogenesis
- parthenocarpy
Answer ✔ (b) apogamy
Explanation: apogamy is development of embryo from any cell of embryo sac other than egg.
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Q.11 Polyembryony commonly occurs in
- banana
- tomato
- Potato
- Citrus
Answer ✔ (d) Citrus
Explanation: Citrus
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Q.12 Indentify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilisation development
- The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
- The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
- The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm.
- The ovule develops into seed.
Answer ✔ (b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
Explanation: The outer integument of ovule develops into seed.
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Q.13 Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.
- perisperm, black pepper
- perisperm, groundnut
- endosperm, black pepper
- endosperm groundnut
Answer ✔ (a) perisperm, black pepper
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Q.14 In albuminous seeds, food is stored in _______ and in non albuminous seeds, it is stored in _______
- endosperm, cotyledons
- cotyledons, endosperm
- nucellus, cotyledons
- endosperm, radicle
Answer ✔ (a) endosperm, cotyledons
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Q.15 Endospermic seeds are found in
- castor
- barley
- Coconut
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
Explanation: All of these are endosperm seeds.
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Q.16 Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively coloured flowers are associated with
- hydrophily
- entomophily
- ornithophily
- anemophily
Answer ✔ (b) entomophily
Explanation: entomophily involves insects.
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Q.17 Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant ?
- Zostera
- Vallisneria
- Hydrilla
- Cannabis
Answer ✔ (d) Cannabis
Explanation: Cannabis isn’t pollinated by water
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Q.18 Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
- bees
- Butterflies
- birds
- Wind
Answer ✔ (d) Wind
Explanation: Ovaries with many ovules are pollinated by birds or insects.
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Q.19 Feathery stigma occurs in
- pea
- wheat
- Datura
- Caesalpinia
Answer ✔ (b) wheat
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Q.20 Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in
- papaya
- bottle gourd
- maize
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (a) papaya
Explanation: papaya
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Q.21 Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
- Commelina
- Zostera
- Salvia
- Fig
Answer ✔ (a) Commelina
Explanation: It is only seen in Commelina.
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Q.22 Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in
- Helianthus
- Commelina
- Rosa
- Gossypium
Answer ✔ (b) Commelina
Explanation: Commelina shows Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers
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Q.23 Polygonum type of embryo sac is
- 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
- 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
- 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled
- 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled
Answer ✔ (a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
Explanation: 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
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Q.24 The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is
- 8 – celled
- 7 – celled
- 6 – celled
- 5 – celled
Answer ✔ (b) 7 – celled
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Q.25 What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiospermic embryo sac?
- Brings about opening of the pollen tube
- Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
- Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
Explanation: Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
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Q.1 IUDs prevent pregnancy by
- inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation
- increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
- suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
Explanation: all of these
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Q.2 Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
- prevent ovulation
- make uterus unsuitable for implantation
- decrease phagocytosis of sperms
- suppress sperm motility
Answer ✔ (d) suppress sperm motility
Explanation: Cu suppress sperm motility
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Q.3 Confirmatory test for STDs is
- ELISA
- PCR
- DNA hybridisation
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
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Q.4 Hepatitis B is transmitted through
- blood transfusion
- intimate physical contact
- sexual contact
- all of these
Answer ✔ (d) all of these
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Q.5 Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?
- Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
- Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
- AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
- AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Answer ✔ (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Explanation: AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B aren’t curable.
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Q.6 World AIDS day is
- Dec 21
- Dec 1
- Nov 1
- Jun 11
Answer ✔ (b) Dec 1
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Q.7 In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube ?
- Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
- Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
- Embro of 32 cell stage
- Zygote only
Answer ✔ (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Explanation: Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
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Q.8 From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs
- Syphilis
- AIDS
- Gonorrhea
- Genital warts
Answer ✔ (b) AIDS
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Q.9 Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
- These are effective barriers for insemination
- They do not interfere with coital act
- These help in reducing the risk of STDs
- All of the above
Answer ✔ (d) All of the above
Explanation: All of the above
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Q.10 The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
- ovariectomy
- hysterectomy
- vasectomy
- castration
Answer ✔ (c) vasectomy
Explanation: Corect method is vasectomy
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Q.11 RCH stands for
- routine check-up of health
- reproduction cum hygiene
- reversible contraceptive hazards
- reproductive and child health care
Answer ✔ (d) reproductive and child health care
Explanation: It stands for reproductive and child health care
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Q.12 Amminocentesis is a technique used to
- determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
- pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
- determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
- all of these
Answer ✔ (a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
Explanation: It determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
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Q.13 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
- Jaundice
- Down’s syndrome
- Cystic fibrosis
- Colourblindness
Answer ✔ (a) Jaundice
Explanation: Jaundice can’t be determined.
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Q.14 In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?
- 12th – 14th week
- 8th – 10th week
- 5th – 7th week
- None of these
Answer ✔ (b) 8th – 10th week
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Q.15 Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
- increase in birth rate
- decrease in death rate
- lack of education
- all of these.
Answer ✔ (d) all of these.
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Q.16 Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?
- Natality and immigration
- Mortality and emigration
- Natality and emigration
- Mortality and immigration
Answer ✔ (a) Natality and immigration
Explanation: Natality and immigration contributes to an increase in population
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Q.17 Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?
- It increases the poverty of a country
- It leads to shortage of food supply
- It results in unemployment
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.18 The best way to decrease population of a country is
- to educate people
- to have better houses
- to kill people on a large scale
- to practice and implement familay planning
Answer ✔ (d) to practice and implement familay planning
Explanation: It can be decreased by family planning
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Q.19 Which of the following correctly describes the measures hat can be used to control over-population ?
- Educating people about the advantages of a small family
- Raising the age of marriage
- Encouraging family planning programme
- All of these
Answer ✔ (d) All of these
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Q.20 Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?
- User-friendly
- Irreversible
- Easily available
- Least side-effects
Answer ✔ (b) Irreversible
Explanation: It should be reversible
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Q.21 Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ?
- Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
- Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial
- HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
- Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not
Answer ✔ (c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
Explanation: HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases
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Q.22 Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria only ?
- Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
- Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
- Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
- Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis
Answer ✔ (a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Explanation: Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
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Q.23 The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
- who cannot produce an ovum
- who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
- who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
- all of these
Answer ✔ (a) who cannot produce an ovum
Explanation: It is used where who cannot produce an ovum
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Q.24 Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment ?
- IUD
- GIFT
- IUI
- IUI
Answer ✔ (b) GIFT
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Q.25 Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
- suppression of gonadotropins
- hypersecretion of gonadotropins
- suppression of gametic transport
- suppression of fertilisation
Answer ✔ (a) suppression of gonadotropins
Explanation: Because of suppression of gonadotropins
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Q.1 Which Is Known As The Power House Of The Cell?
- Mitochondria
- Ribosome
- Nucleus
- Golgi apparatus
Answer ✔ (a) Mitochondria
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